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Anatomy Worksheet MCQs

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As a tubular bone, the humerus consists of:

a)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, body

b)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

c)

Proximal and distal metaphyses, body, diaphysis

d)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses

e)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

2.

The pterygo-palatine fossa continues downward into which canal?

a)

Infraorbital

b)

Greater palatine

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Mastoid canal

e)

Carotid canal

3.

The orbit connects to the pterygo-palatine fossa via:

a)

Round foramen

b)

Greater palatine foramen

c)

Inferior orbital fissure

d)

Superior orbital fissure

e)

Pterygoid canal

4.

The infratemporal fossa connects to the orbit via:

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic canal

d)

Pterygo-maxillary fissure

e)

Tympanic-squamous fissure

5.

The paired bones of the facial skeleton include:

a)

Nasal, lacrimal, temporal

b)

Maxilla, palatine, inferior nasal concha

c)

Nasal, parietal, zygomatic

d)

Palatine, ethmoid, lacrimal

6.

The shoulder girdle is formed by:

a)

Scapula, sternum, and clavicle

b)

Scapula and humerus

c)

Clavicle and humerus

d)

Scapula and clavicle

e)

Humerus

7.

The bones of the free part of the leg are:

a)

Femur (thigh), ilium, sesamoid

b)

Femur (thigh), tibia, and fibula

c)

Pelvis, thigh, trapezoid

d)

Ischium, trapezoid, calcaneus

e)

Pelvis, sesamoid, tibia, and fibula

8.

The body of a long tubular bone is called:

a)

Metaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Apophysis

e)

Supracondylar

9.

Consists of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process:

a)

Vertebral column

b)

Sternum

c)

Sacrum

d)

12th rib

e)

Clavicle

10.

The intertubercular sulcus is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

11.

The coracoid process is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

12.

The conoid tubercle is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

13.

The trapezoid line is located on the bone:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

14.

The trochlear notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

15.

The acromion is a structural part of:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

16.

The groove for the ulnar nerve is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

17.

The ulnar notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

18.

The ethmoid bone consists of:

a)

Orbital plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

b)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinth

c)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, ethmoidal labyrinths

d)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

e)

Perpendicular process, ethmoidal plate, inferior nasal concha

19.

The anatomical structure separating the ischial notches is called:

a)

Ischial tuberosity

b)

Gluteal ridge

c)

Superior anterior iliac spine

d)

Ischial spine

e)

Ischial ridge

20.

As a tubular bone, the humerus consists of:

a)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, body

b)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

c)

Proximal and distal metaphyses, body, diaphysis

d)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses

e)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

21.

The pterygo-palatine fossa continues downward into which canal?

a)

Infraorbital

b)

Greater palatine

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Mastoid canal

e)

Carotid canal

22.

The orbit connects to the pterygo-palatine fossa via:

a)

Round foramen

b)

Greater palatine foramen

c)

Inferior orbital fissure

d)

Superior orbital fissure

e)

Pterygoid canal

23.

The infratemporal fossa connects to the orbit via:

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic canal

d)

Pterygo-maxillary fissure

e)

Tympanic-squamous fissure

24.

A child with speech impairment, an open oral cavity, a bite disorder, and displacement of teeth was brought to the trauma unit. Which bone of the skull should be considered as potentially injured?

a)

Lower jaw

b)

Occipital bone

c)

Palate

d)

Temporal bone

e)

Sphenoid bone

25.

A person injured in a road accident has a "goggles" symptom, indicating blood in the soft tissue around the eyes. Which bones of the skull are likely to be injured?

a)

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla

b)

Frontal, palate, temporal bones

c)

Lacrimal, occipital, parietal

d)

Maxilla, temporal, facial bones

e)

Frontal, parietal, occipital

26.

A patient with skull and brain trauma presents with hearing loss and vestibular disorders. Which bone of the skull should be considered as potentially injured?

a)

Temporal bone

b)

Maxilla

c)

Ethmoid bone

d)

Sphenoid bone

e)

Occipital bone

27.

A patient suffered a chest injury in a road accident. Which bones form the chest cage?

a)

Ribs, sternum, thoracic vertebrae

b)

Clavicle, sternum, thoracic vertebrae

c)

Scapula, sternum, thoracic vertebrae

d)

Sternum, ribs, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

e)

Scapula, clavicle, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

28.

A woman arrived at the maternity hospital at 38 weeks of pregnancy. During examination, uniform narrowing of the pelvis was detected. Which bones contribute to the formation of the pelvis?

a)

Pelvic bones, sacrum, coccyx

b)

Ilium bones, sacral vertebrae, coccyx

c)

Pelvic bones, sacrum, femur

d)

Pubic symphysis, sacrum, coccyx

e)

Symphysis, sacrum, coccyx

29.

A patient has a fracture at the base of the skull. Which bones of the skull might be damaged?

a)

Sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones

b)

Sphenoid, temporal, occipital, ethmoid, and nasal bones

c)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal, ethmoid bones

d)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones

e)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal, occipital bones

30.

In a road accident, a patient sustained fractures of the calvarial bones of the skull. Which bones are likely to be affected?

a)

Frontal bone, parietal bones, occipital plate, temporal bones

b)

Frontal bone, nasal portion, parietal bones, temporal bones

c)

Frontal bone, sphenoid, temporal, parietal

d)

Frontal, sphenoid, temporal, occipital

e)

Frontal, parietal, occipital bones, temporal

31.

During an operation on an eye injury, damage to the upper wall of the orbit was found. Which bones form the upper wall of the orbit?

a)

Frontal bone, small wings of the sphenoid bone

b)

Frontal bone, large and small wings of the sphenoid

c)

Frontal, nasal parts, and large wings of the sphenoid

d)

Frontal bone, ethmoid plate, small and large wings of the sphenoid

e)

Frontal bone, large wings of the sphenoid

32.

A patient with bleeding from the right external auditory canal was brought in. Which bone of the skull is likely to be damaged?

a)

Right temporal bone

b)

Right frontal bone

c)

Left temporal bone

d)

Right parietal and facial bones

e)

Occipital bone, right side

33.

A child with impaired nasal breathing was brought to the trauma unit. Which bones of the facial skeleton are likely to be injured?

a)

Ethmoid bone, nasal bones, inferior nasal concha, nasal septum

b)

Facial and nasal bones

c)

Maxilla, nasal bones

d)

Sphenoid and frontal bones

e)

Palate and maxilla

34.

A child with speech impairment, an open oral cavity, a bite disorder, and displacement of teeth was brought to the trauma unit. Which bone of the skull should be considered as potentially injured?

a)

Lower jaw

b)

Facial bone

c)

Palate bone

d)

Maxilla

e)

Sphenoid bone

35.

A patient has a fracture in the proximal and distal epiphyses of the humerus. Define the topography and clinical importance of the surgical neck of the humerus.

a)

The constricted area located below the two tubercles of the proximal epiphysis, where fractures are common

b)

The constricted area located below the two tubercles of the distal epiphysis

c)

The constricted area located above the two tubercles of the proximal epiphysis

d)

The constricted area located above the two tubercles of the distal epiphysis

e)

The constricted area located in the middle of the humeral shaft

36.

Define the topography and clinical significance of the groove for the radial nerve in the humerus.

a)

The spiral groove for the radial nerve passes under the two tubercles on the medial side of the humerus. A tourniquet should not be applied to the lower third of the arm due to the risk of nerve compression.

b)

The spiral groove passes on the anterior surface of the humeral diaphysis.

c)

The groove for the radial nerve passes on the external side of the humeral shaft.

d)

The groove passes near the deltoid tuberosity, in the upper third of the humerus.

e)

The groove for the radial nerve is located in the upper third of the humerus.

37.

Define the topography and clinical significance of the ulnar nerve groove in the humerus by identifying the correct statement.

a)

The ulnar nerve is located on the posterior surface of the medial epicondyle, a surface vulnerable to injury in trauma.

b)

The ulnar nerve passes through the lateral epicondyle groove.

c)

The ulnar nerve is positioned along the posterior surface of the biceps brachii.

d)

The ulnar nerve is located at the front of the humerus.

e)

The ulnar nerve is located on the external surface of the humerus.

38.

In clinical practice, Latin names or ordinal numbers of the fingers may be used to describe conditions in the fingers. According to international anatomical terminology, provide the correct Latin names and ordinal numbers of each finger from the lateral side of the hand toward the medial side.

a)

Thumb (pollex) – first finger (digitus primus), then index finger (index) – second (digitus secundus), middle finger (digitus medius) – third (digitus tertius), ring finger (digitus annularis) – fourth (digitus quartus), and little finger (digitus minimus) – fifth (digitus quintus).

b)

Index finger (index) – first finger (digitus primus), then thumb (pollex) – second finger (digitus secundus), middle finger (digitus medius) – third (digitus tertius), ring finger (digitus annularis) – fourth (digitus quartus), and little finger (digitus minimus) – fifth finger (digitus quintus).

c)

Thumb (pollex) – first finger (digitus primus), index finger (index) – second (digitus secundus), middle finger (digitus anularis) – third, ring finger – fourth (digitus quartus), and pinky finger (digitus minimus) – fifth finger (digitus quintus).

39.

During surgery on a humerus injury, damage to the humeral joint capsule was detected. Which structures are involved in the formation of the joint capsule?

a)

Humeral tubercles, acromion, and clavicle

b)

Glenoid cavity, articular surface of the humerus, fibrous layer

c)

Glenoid cavity, coracoid process, articular cartilage

d)

Articular cartilage, humeral tubercles, coracoid process

40.

A patient presents with wrist pain after a fall, and a scaphoid fracture is suspected. What structures does the scaphoid bone articulate with?

a)

Radius, lunate, trapezium, trapezoid bones

b)

Radius, pisiform, trapezium, capitate bones

c)

Radius, lunate, capitate, pisiform bones

d)

Radius, ulna, lunate, trapezium bones

41.

A child has difficulty breathing due to nasal trauma. Which bones of the face might be damaged?

a)

Maxilla and mandible

b)

Nasal bones, vomer, inferior nasal concha

c)

Palatine and maxilla

d)

Zygomatic and nasal bones

42.

During an accident, a patient injured their pelvic region. What bones form the pelvis?

a)

Sacrum, coccyx, ilium

b)

Ilium, ischium, pubic bones, sacrum, coccyx

c)

Ilium, sacrum, and femur

d)

Pubic symphysis, sacrum, ischium

43.

A patient has difficulty moving their arm due to a fracture at the surgical neck of the humerus. Which nerve is most at risk of injury?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Axillary nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Median nerve

44.

After a car accident, a patient has impaired vision and pain around the orbit. Which bones form the orbit?

a)

Zygomatic, nasal, and lacrimal bones

b)

Frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, maxilla, ethmoid, palatine bones

c)

Frontal, maxilla, nasal, and lacrimal bones

d)

Temporal, zygomatic, and frontal bones

45.

During head trauma evaluation, the patient's speech and swallowing were affected. Which cranial base bones are implicated?

a)

Temporal, sphenoid, occipital bones

b)

Frontal, parietal, occipital bones

c)

Parietal, ethmoid, sphenoid bones

d)

Occipital, maxilla, and zygomatic bones

46.

A patient has a severe fracture in the midshaft of the humerus. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Axillary nerve

d)

Median nerve

47.

A patient has a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Axillary nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Median nerve

48.

A newborn presents with abnormal head shape and suspected cranial deformation. Which cranial bones are primarily involved?

a)

Frontal, parietal, occipital bones

b)

Temporal, frontal, ethmoid bones

c)

Parietal, sphenoid, temporal bones

d)

Frontal, occipital, zygomatic bones

49.

A patient reports difficulty in chewing after a mandibular fracture. Which muscles of mastication are primarily affected?

a)

Frontalis and orbicularis oris

b)

Temporalis and orbicularis oris

c)

Temporalis, masseter, medial, and lateral pterygoid muscles

50.

An X-ray of a patient's spine revealed a herniated intervertebral disc. Which structures are involved in this condition?

a)

Annular ligament and vertebral body

b)

Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus

c)

Nucleus pulposus and ligamentum flavum

d)

Annular ligament and ligamentum flavum

51.

A child injured their hand, and a fracture in the metacarpal bones was detected. Which bones are in the hand?

a)

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

b)

Carpals, tarsals, phalanges

c)

Metacarpals, radius, ulna

d)

Carpals, metatarsals, phalanges

52.

During a football match, a player suffered a direct blow to the shoulder, causing a fracture of the scapula. Which anatomical structures form the scapula?

a)

Spine, acromion, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, body of the scapula

b)

Acromion, coracoid process, clavicle, humeral head, glenoid cavity

c)

Glenoid cavity, coracoid process, scapular notch, olecranon, acromion

d)

Spine, coronoid process, humeral head, clavicle, scapular notch

e)

Acromion, spine, coracoid process, olecranon, acromial end of the clavicle

53.

A patient complains of limited leg movement after a fracture of the femur. Which anatomical features are located on the femur?

a)

Head, neck, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter, linea aspera

b)

Glenoid cavity, greater tubercle, radial groove, head, neck

c)

Ischial tuberosity, lesser trochanter, acetabulum, medial condyle, neck

d)

Head, lesser trochanter, coronoid fossa, epicondyles, fibular notch

e)

Greater trochanter, lesser trochanter, interosseous border, acetabulum, linea alba

54.

A patient presents with severe pain in the lower back due to a fracture in the lumbar vertebra. What anatomical structures are characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?

a)

Body, spinous process, transverse process, vertebral foramen, superior articular process

b)

Body, bifid spinous process, transverse foramina, pedicle, inferior articular process

c)

Dens, transverse process, vertebral notch, articular facet, lamina

d)

Body, transverse foramina, costal facets, spinous process, lamina

e)

Superior costal facet, vertebral foramen, bifid spinous process, lamina, body

55.

After falling on an outstretched hand, a patient fractured their clavicle. Which features are specific to the clavicle?

a)

Sternal end, acromial end, conoid tubercle, subclavian groove, trapezoid line

b)

Sternal notch, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, spine, conoid tubercle

c)

Acromial end, interosseous ridge, coronoid process, trapezoid line, glenoid fossa

d)

Sternal end, acromial end, styloid process, radial tuberosity, trapezoid line

e)

Coracoid process, acromion, greater tubercle, trapezoid line, deltoid tuberosity

56.

A patient experiences difficulty raising their arm after dislocating their shoulder joint. Which structures form the shoulder joint?

a)

Glenoid cavity, humeral head, articular capsule, synovial membrane, ligaments

b)

Acromion, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, humeral shaft, articular capsule

c)

Glenoid cavity, coracoid process, deltoid tuberosity, greater tubercle, ligaments

d)

Coracoid process, greater tubercle, humeral shaft, articular capsule, ligaments

e)

Acromion, glenoid cavity, synovial fluid, deltoid tuberosity, ligaments

57.

During childbirth, an obstetrician detected an injury to the pelvis. What anatomical landmarks are located on the pelvic bones?

a)

Iliac crest, ischial tuberosity, acetabulum, obturator foramen, pubic symphysis

b)

Acetabulum, ischial spine, obturator groove, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter

c)

Iliac crest, acetabulum, greater trochanter, ischial spine, glenoid cavity

d)

Ischial tuberosity, pubic tubercle, humeral head, coracoid process, acetabulum

e)

Iliac crest, obturator groove, coronoid fossa, intercondylar ridge, ischial tuberosity

58.

After a car collision, one driver experiences deformation and severe pain in the middle third of the left lower leg, with a triangular bone fragment protruding from the wound and significant bleeding. Which bone is likely damaged?

a)

Femur (thigh bone)

b)

Tibia (shin bone)

c)

Fibula (calf bone)

d)

Patella and proximal epiphysis of the femur

e)

Tarsal bones

59.

A fracture is identified on the medial side of the left ankle joint. Where is the fracture most likely located?

a)

Lower third of the fibula

b)

Talus

c)

Medial malleolus

d)

Lateral malleolus

e)

Lower third of the tibia

60.

A 70-year-old man suffers a fracture after falling, with damage to the femur. What is the most common site of femoral fractures in such cases?

a)

Neck of the femur

b)

Lower third of the femur

c)

Upper third of the femur

d)

Middle shaft of the femur

e)

Medial condyle of the femur

61.

During a football match, a player sustains a knee injury. X-ray imaging reveals a fracture in the bone located within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. To which classification group does this bone belong?

a)

Long (tubular) bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Pneumatic bones

d)

Sesamoid bones

e)

Irregular bones

62.

Which set lists the components of a typical vertebra?

a)

Body, arch, two pedicles, one spinous process, two transverse processes, and four articular processes

b)

Body, arch, two pedicles, two spinous processes, two transverse processes, and four articular processes

63.

The vertebral foramen is formed by:

a)

Between the arch and vertebral body

b)

Between the arch and the pedicles of the vertebra

c)

By the arch, body, and pedicles of the vertebra

d)

Between the superior and inferior notches of the vertebrae

e)

By the arch, body, pedicles, and the superior and inferior notches of the vertebrae

64.

Between the bodies of two adjacent vertebrae is located:

a)

Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments

b)

Intervertebral disc

c)

Interspinous ligaments

d)

Ligamentum flavum

e)

Intervertebral joints

65.

How many pairs of ribs does a human normally have?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

e)

24

66.

Name the parts of a rib:

a)

Posterior, intermediate, anterior

b)

Superior, rib body, anterior

c)

Posterior, intermediate, inferior

d)

Posterior, rib body, anterior

e)

Superior, rib body, inferior

67.

The anatomical structures of the posterior part of the rib:

a)

Caput costae, collum costae, angulus costae, tuberculum costae

b)

Caput costae, angulus costae, crista colli costae, tuberculum costae

c)

Caput costae, collum costae, crista colli costae, tuberculum costae

d)

Caput costae, manubrium costae, crista colli costae, tuberculum costae

68.

The sternum consists of the following parts:

a)

Manubrium sterni, corpus sterni, processus jugularis

b)

Manubrium sterni, incisura jugularis, processus xiphoideus

c)

Manubrium sterni, corpus sterni, processus xiphoideus

d)

Manubrium, corpus sterni, processus clavicularis

e)

Manubrium, incisura jugularis, angulus sterni

69.

The maxilla consists of four processes:

a)

Processus frontalis, processus alveolaris, processus anterior, processus zygomaticus

b)

Processus vocalis, processus alveolaris, processus palatinus, processus zygomaticus

c)

Processus frontalis, processus alveolaris, processus palatinus, processus zygomaticus

70.

The frontal bone is classified as:

a)

Mixed bone

b)

Pneumatic bone

c)

Spongy bone

d)

Tubular bone

e)

Flat bone

71.

The surfaces of the maxillary body:

a)

Facies anterior, facies frontalis, facies nasalis, facies orbitalis

b)

Facies anterior, facies infratemporalis, facies nasalis, facies orbitalis

72.

The sphenoid bone is classified as:

a)

Sesamoid bone

b)

Spongy bone

c)

Pneumatic bone

d)

Tubular bone

e)

Flat bone

73.

In fetuses and newborns, the bone marrow is:

a)

Red and yellow

b)

Red

c)

Yellow

d)

Absent

e)

White

74.

Name the parts of a tubular bone:

a)

Epiphyses, two diaphyses, metaphyses

b)

Metaphyses, apophysis, diaphysis, body

c)

Diaphysis, epiphyses, apophysis, metaphysis

75.

The thoracic cage consists of:

a)

12 pairs of ribs and sternum

b)

12 thoracic vertebrae, 12 pairs of ribs, and sternum

c)

10 pairs of ribs and sternum

76.

The bones of the arm include:

a)

Ulna, radius, and nasal bone

b)

Scapula, clavicle, and cuboid bone

c)

Clavicle, radius, and ulna

77.

Which of the paired bones belong to the facial bones of the skull?

a)

Nasal, lacrimal, temporal

b)

Maxilla, palatine, inferior nasal concha

c)

Nasal, parietal, zygomatic

d)

Palatine, ethmoid, lacrimal

e)

Sphenoid, maxilla, nasal

78.

The shoulder girdle is formed by:

a)

Clavicle and scapula

b)

Humerus and scapula

c)

Clavicle and humerus

d)

Clavicle, scapula, and sternum

79.

The bones of the free lower limb include:

a)

Femur, ilium, pisiform

b)

Femur, tibia, fibula

c)

Pelvis, femur, trapezoid

d)

Ischium, trapezoid, calcaneus

e)

Pelvis, pisiform, tibia, fibula

80.

What is the body of a long tubular bone called?

a)

Metaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Apophysis

e)

Supracondylar

81.

Name the plates of the palatine bone:

a)

Lateral, medial

b)

Transverse, frontal

c)

Sagittal, perpendicular

d)

Horizontal, medial

e)

Horizontal, perpendicular

82.

The sternum consists of:

a)

Vertebral column

b)

Handle, body, xiphoid process

c)

Sacrum

d)

XII ribs

e)

Clavicle

83.

The intertubercular groove is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

84.

The coracoid process is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

85.

The conoid tubercle is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

86.

The trapezoid line is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

87.

The trochlear notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

88.

The acromion is a structural part of:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

89.

The ulnar nerve groove is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

90.

The ulnar notch is located on:

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius

e)

Ulna

91.

The ethmoid bone consists of:

a)

Orbital plate, ethmoid plate, ethmoid labyrinths

b)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoid plate, ethmoid labyrinths

c)

Perpendicular plate, ethmoid plate, inferior nasal concha

d)

Perpendicular process, ethmoid plate, inferior nasal concha

92.

What anatomical structure separates the ischial notches?

a)

Ischial tuberosity

b)

Gluteal ridge

c)

Superior anterior spine

d)

Ischial spine

e)

Ischial ridge

93.

As a tubular bone, the humerus consists of:

a)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, body

b)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

c)

Proximal and distal metaphyses, body, diaphysis

d)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, proximal and distal metaphyses

e)

Proximal and distal epiphyses, diaphysis, apophyses

94.

The pterygopalatine fossa extends downward into which canal?

a)

Infraorbital

b)

Greater palatine

c)

Oval foramen

d)

Mastoid foramen

e)

Carotid canal

95.

The orbit communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa through:

a)

Round foramen

b)

Greater palatine foramen

c)

Inferior orbital fissure

d)

Superior orbital fissure

e)

Pterygoid canal

96.

The infratemporal fossa communicates with the orbit via:

a)

Superior orbital fissure

b)

Inferior orbital fissure

c)

Optic canal

d)

Pterygoid-maxillary fissure

e)

Tympanic-squamous fissure

97.

What lordoses are present in the spine?

a)

Thoracic, cervical

b)

Abdominal, lumbar

c)

Cervical, lumbar

d)

Sacral, cervical

e)

Thoracic, lumbar

98.

What kyphoses are present?

a)

Cervical, lumbar

b)

Lumbar, cervical

c)

Thoracic, sacral

d)

Cervical, sacral

e)

Thoracic, coccygeal

99.

What shape of the thoracic cage is characteristic of metamorphic individuals?

a)

Cylindrical

b)

Flat

c)

Cone-shaped

d)

Barrel-shaped

e)

Saddle-shaped

100.

What is the shape of the thoracic cage in dolichomorphic individuals?

a)

Cylindrical

b)

Flat

c)

Cone-shaped

d)

Composite shape

e)

Saddle-shaped

101.

What is the shape of the thoracic cage in brachymorphic individuals?

a)

Cylindrical

b)

Flat

c)

Cone-shaped

d)

Barrel-shaped

e)

Saddle-shaped

102.

What is the length of the true (gynecological) conjugate?

a)

10 cm

b)

11 cm

c)

9 cm

d)

12 cm

e)

8 cm

103.

What pelvic dimension is measured between the iliac-pelvic elevation and the sacroiliac joint?

a)

Vertical dimension

b)

Transverse

c)

Oblique

d)

True gynecological dimension (conjugate)

e)

Anatomical dimension (conjugate)

104.

What pelvic dimension is measured between the upper edge of the symphysis and the sacral promontory?

a)

True gynecological dimension (conjugate)

b)

Diagonal conjugate

c)

Anatomical dimension (conjugate)

d)

Gynecological dimension (conjugate)

e)

Obstetric dimension (conjugate)

105.

What joints make up the elbow joint?

a)

Humeroradial, humeroulnar, proximal radioulnar joints

b)

Humeroulnar, interosseous membrane

c)

Distal radioulnar joint

d)

Proximal radioulnar joint

e)

Humeroradial, interosseous membrane, proximal radioulnar joints

106.

What type of joints does the elbow joint belong to based on the shape of articular surfaces?

a)

Spherical, hinge, cylindrical

b)

Cup-shaped, spherical

c)

Condylar, cylindrical

d)

Saddle-shaped, condylar

e)

Flat, hinge

107.

Ellipsoid joints include the following:

a)

Atlanto-occipital

b)

Proximal radioulnar joint

c)

Radiocarpal joint

d)

Humeroradial joint

e)

Interphalangeal joints

108.

Compound joints include the following:

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Hip joint

c)

Facet joints

d)

Shoulder joint

e)

Atlanto-occipital joint

109.

Which joints have a disc?

a)

Atlanto-occipital

b)

Temporomandibular

c)

Shoulder

d)

Knee

e)

Elbow

110.

Which joints have a meniscus?

a)

Temporomandibular

b)

Knee

c)

Sacroiliac

d)

Sternoclavicular

e)

Acromioclavicular

111.

Hinge joints include the following:

a)

Interphalangeal, ankle

b)

Radiocarpal, intercarpal

c)

Shoulder

d)

Sacroiliac

e)

Knee

112.

Condylar joints include the following:

a)

Atlanto-axial joint

b)

Ankle joint

c)

Knee joint

d)

Thumb carpometacarpal joint

e)

Sacroiliac joint

113.

Saddle joints include the following:

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Thumb carpometacarpal joint

c)

Acromioclavicular joint

d)

Midcarpal joint

e)

Radiocarpal joint

114.

Cylindrical joints include the following:

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Radioulnar, median atlanto-axial joints

c)

Humeroulnar joint

d)

Acromioclavicular joint

e)

Radioulnar, lateral atlanto-axial joints

115.

Which joints' articular rims ensure congruency?

a)

Hip, shoulder joints

b)

Midcarpal joint

c)

Ankle, knee joints

d)

Radioulnar joint

e)

Elbow joint

116.

What is the vertical dimension of the pelvic outlet during childbirth?

a)

9.5–10 cm

b)

10.5–11 cm

c)

12–13 cm

d)

7.5–8 cm

e)

8.5–9.5 cm

117.

Which joints gain mobility during childbirth?

a)

Sacroiliac joint

b)

Pubic symphysis, hip joint

c)

Pubic symphysis, sacrococcygeal joint

d)

Sacroiliac joint, sacrococcygeal joint

e)

Pubic symphysis, sacroiliac joint

118.

What are the morphological features of the atlanto-axial joint?

a)

Composed of three joints, compound joint, uniaxial

b)

Has articular menisci, uniaxial

c)

Belongs to complex joints, has articular menisci

d)

Belongs to biaxial joints, has an articular rim

e)

Belongs to triaxial joints, articular surface is spherical

119.

What are the morphological features of the shoulder joint?

a)

Articular surface is spherical, triaxial joint

b)

Has articular discs, triaxial joint

c)

Has articular menisci, triaxial joint

d)

Belongs to uniaxial joints, complex joints

120.

What are the morphological features of the elbow joint?

a)

Articular surface is spherical, composed of two joints

b)

Complex joint, composed of three joints

c)

Belongs to complex joints, composed of two joints

d)

Belongs to compound joints, composed of three joints

e)

Uniaxial joint, complex joint

121.

What are the morphological features of the radiocarpal joint?

a)

Articular surface is ellipsoid, biaxial joint

b)

Articular surface is spherical

c)

Belongs to uniaxial joints

d)

Complex joint, has articular meniscus

e)

Triaxial joint

122.

What are the morphological features of the temporomandibular joint?

a)

Compound joint, complex joint, has articular discs

b)

Compound joint, complex joint, has articular menisci

c)

Has articular meniscus, complex joint

d)

Has articular discs, articular surface is cup-shaped

e)

Belongs to uniaxial joints, simple joint

123.

Name the morphological features characteristic of the hip joint.

a)

Composite joint, has an articular rim

b)

The articular surface is cup-shaped, with an articular rim and intra-articular ligaments

c)

Articular meniscus, articular rim, and intra-articular ligaments

d)

Has articular discs, the articular surface is cup-shaped

e)

Intra-articular ligaments, discs, and menisci

124.

Name the morphological features characteristic of the knee joint.

a)

Composite joint, has intra-articular ligaments and discs

b)

Complex joint, has intra-articular ligaments and discs

c)

Has articular menisci, is a complex joint, and has intra-articular ligaments

d)

Has articular discs, is a complex joint, and has intra-articular ligaments

e)

Has articular menisci, is a composite joint, and has intra-articular ligaments

125.

What types of fibrous joints exist?

a)

Sutures, fontanelles, interosseous membranes, ligaments

b)

Cartilage, sutures, interosseous membranes, ligaments

c)

Symphyses, fontanelles, interosseous membranes

d)

Interosseous membranes, discs, and menisci

e)

Articular rims, interosseous membranes

126.

What are considered cartilaginous joints?

a)

The connection of the pelvic bone with the sacrum, the connection of vertebral bodies

b)

The connection of the vertebrae with the skull

c)

The connection of the lower ribs with the vertebrae

d)

The connection of vertebral bodies, the connection of the vertebrae with the skull

e)

The connection of the pelvic bone with the sacrum, the connection of the scapula with the humerus

127.

What anatomical structures are part of the main elements of a joint?

a)

Articular surface, joint capsule, joint cavity, discs, and ligaments

b)

Articular rim, discs, menisci, intra-articular and extra-articular ligaments

c)

Articular surface, articular cartilage, intra-articular and extra-articular ligaments

d)

Synovial fluid, joint cavity, discs, and ligaments

e)

Articular surface, joint capsule, joint cavity, synovial fluid

128.

To which type of joint does the atlanto-occipital joint belong (by structure)?

a)

Complex and simple joints

b)

Composite joints and simple joints

c)

Composite joints and complex joints

d)

Simple joints

e)

Complex (compound) joints

129.

To which type of joint do costotransverse joints belong (by structure)?

a)

Complex joints

b)

Composite and simple joints

c)

Simple and complex joints

d)

Complex and composite joints

e)

Complex joints

130.

What type of joints are the connections of the 2nd–7th ribs with the sternum?

a)

Fibrous joints

b)

Semi-joints

c)

Discontinuous joints

d)

Cartilaginous joints

e)

Osseous joints

131.

Which joints of the hand are uniaxial?

a)

Shoulder joint, interphalangeal joints of the hand

b)

Proximal radioulnar joint, humeroulnar joint, interphalangeal joints of the hand

c)

Elbow joint

d)

Radiocarpal joint, distal radioulnar joint

e)

Radiocarpal joint, wrist–metacarpal joints

132.

The elbow joint (articulatio cubiti) is structurally complex because it consists of 3 simple joints enclosed within a common joint capsule:

a)

Articulatio humeroradialis, articulatio radioulnaris proximalis, articulatio radiocarpea

b)

Articulatio humeroulnaris, articulatio radioulnaris distalis, articulatio radiocarpea

c)

Articulatio humeroulnaris, articulatio humeroradialis, articulatio radioulnaris distalis

d)

Articulatio humeroulnaris, articulatio humeroradialis, articulatio radioulnaris proximalis

e)

Articulatio humeroulnaris, articulatio radioulnaris proximalis, articulatio radiocarpea

133.

By the shape of the articular surfaces, which joints are biaxial?

a)

Ellipsoidal joint, condylar joint, saddle joint

b)

Cylindrical joint, hinge joint

c)

Saddle joint, hinge joint

d)

Ball-and-socket joint, cylindrical joint

e)

Plane joint, tight joint (amphiarthrosis)

134.

By the shape of the articular surfaces, which joints are multiaxial?

a)

Ball-and-socket joint, plane joint

b)

Cylindrical joint, hinge joint

c)

Saddle joint, hinge joint

d)

Ellipsoidal joint, plane joint

e)

Tight joint (amphiarthrosis), hinge joint

135.

What covers the surfaces of the connected bones?

a)

Fibrous joint cartilage

b)

Hyaline joint cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Articular rim

e)

Discs, menisci

136.

What is located in the joint cavity and plays a lubricating role?

a)

Fibrous membrane

b)

Synovial membrane

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Intra-articular ligament

e)

Synovial cavity

137.

Consists of fibrous and synovial membranes?

a)

Fibrous joint cartilage

b)

Joint capsule

c)

Articular surfaces

d)

Intra-articular ligament

e)

Extra-articular ligament

138.

The extra-articular ligaments of the knee joint (articulatio genus)?

a)

Cruciate ligaments, transverse ligament of the knee, arcuate ligament, patellar ligament

b)

Fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, cruciate and transverse ligaments of the knee

c)

Fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, popliteal, arcuate, patellar ligaments, medial and lateral retinacular ligaments

d)

Fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, cruciate ligaments, transverse ligament of the knee

e)

Popliteal and arcuate ligaments