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Revision Physical Chem HUCM

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which subatomic particle is negatively charged?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Positron

2.

Which subatomic particle is found outside the nucleus?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Quark

3.

Which subatomic particle is responsible for chemical bonding?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Photon

4.

Which subatomic particle is positively charged and located in the nucleus?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Positron

5.

Which subatomic particle determines the atomic number of an element?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Quark

6.

Which subatomic particle has no charge and is located in the nucleus?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Positron

7.

Which subatomic particle contributes to atomic mass and isotopes?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Photon

8.

The positron is the antimatter counterpart of which particle?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Photon

9.

Neutrinos are extremely small, neutral particles involved in ______ processes.

a)

nuclear

b)

chemical

c)

mechanical

d)

thermal

10.

Quarks are fundamental particles that make up ______ and ______.

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

electrons and photons

c)

atoms and molecules

d)

neutrons and electrons

11.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences the naming of chemical elements?

a)

A) History

b)

B) Properties

c)

C) Places

d)

D) Weather

12.

Fill in the blank: The names of chemical elements often reflect ________, discovery, properties, places, or people associated with them.

a)

history

b)

color

c)

size

d)

weight

13.

Category of Origin: Physical / Chemical Property Basis of Naming: Describes behaviour or characteristic Element: ________ Explanation: From Greek hydro (water) and genes (former); forms water when reacting with oxygen. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Helium

14.

Category of Origin: Physical Appearance Basis of Naming: Colour or visual feature Element: ________ Explanation: From Greek chloros, meaning greenish-yellow. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Chlorine

b)

Bromine

c)

Iodine

d)

Fluorine

15.

Category of Origin: Place / Geography Basis of Naming: Country or region of discovery Element: ________ Explanation: Named after Poland. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Polonium

b)

Francium

c)

Germanium

d)

Ruthenium

16.

Category of Origin: Place / Geography Basis of Naming: Country Element: ________ Explanation: Named after France. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Francium

b)

Germanium

c)

Polonium

d)

Americium

17.

Category of Origin: Scientist Basis of Naming: Honours a scientist Element: ________ Explanation: Named after Marie and Pierre Curie. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Curium

b)

Einsteinium

c)

Fermium

d)

Mendelevium

18.

Category of Origin: Scientist Basis of Naming: Honours a physicist Element: ________ Explanation: Named after Albert Einstein. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Einsteinium

b)

Curium

c)

Fermium

d)

Rutherfordium

19.

Category of Origin: Mythology / Astronomy Basis of Naming: Named after gods or planets Element: ________ Explanation: Named after the Roman god and planet Mercury. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

20.

Category of Origin: Astronomy Basis of Naming: Named after a planet Element: ________ Explanation: Named after planet Uranus. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Uranium

b)

Neptunium

c)

Plutonium

d)

Mercury

21.

Category of Origin: Latin Name Basis of Naming: Derived from Latin term Element: ________ Explanation: Symbol comes from Latin Natrium. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Sodium (Na)

b)

Potassium (K)

c)

Calcium (Ca)

d)

Magnesium (Mg)

22.

Category of Origin: Latin Name Basis of Naming: Derived from Latin term Element: ________ Explanation: Symbol comes from Latin Ferrum. Fill in the blank with the correct element name.

a)

Iron (Fe)

b)

Copper (Cu)

c)

Silver (Ag)

d)

Gold (Au)

23.

What happens to the atomic radius as you move down a group in the periodic table?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Fluctuates

24.

Electropositivity ________ as you move down a group in the periodic table.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Becomes unpredictable

25.

Which property decreases as you move down a group in the periodic table?

a)

Atomic Radius

b)

Electropositivity

c)

Electronegativity

d)

Polarizability

26.

Larger atoms have more easily distorted electron clouds, making them more ________.

a)

polarizable

b)

reactive

c)

stable

d)

electronegative

27.

What happens to the atomic radius as you move across a period from left to right in the periodic table?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

d)

First increases then decreases

28.

Which property increases as you move across a period from left to right in the periodic table?

a)

Atomic Radius

b)

Electronegativity

c)

Electropositivity

d)

Polarizability

29.

Fill in the blank: As you move across a period, atoms lose electrons less easily as nuclear attraction ________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

fluctuates

30.

Which observation in the periodic table describes similar properties between diagonally adjacent elements?

a)

Diagonal Behaviour

b)

Secondary Periodicity

c)

Knight’s Move Relationship

d)

First-Member Anomaly

31.

What is an example of Secondary Periodicity in the periodic table?

a)

Seen in melting points and atomic volumes of elements

b)

Observed in the color changes of transition metals

c)

Found in the isotopic abundance of elements

d)

Related to the magnetic properties of lanthanides

32.

Which observation describes similarity between elements separated by two columns and one row down?

a)

Diagonal Behaviour

b)

Knight’s Move Relationship

c)

First-Member Anomaly

d)

Similarity of n and n+10 Groups

33.

What is the type of bonding in H₂O?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

34.

What is the type of bonding in NaCl?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

35.

What is the type of bonding in KOH?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

36.

What is the type of bonding in N₂?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

37.

What is the type of bonding in MgCl₂?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

38.

What is the type of bonding in Benzene (C₆H₆)?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

39.

What is the type of bonding in Bronze?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

40.

What is the type of bonding in Brass?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

41.

What is the type of bonding in Steel?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

42.

What is the type of bonding in Iron (Fe)?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Metallic bonding

d)

Hydrogen bonding

43.

What is the atomic number of Hydrogen (H)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

8

d)

6

44.

Which group does Carbon (C) belong to?

a)

Group 14

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 7

d)

Group 18

45.

How many valence electrons does Nitrogen (N) have?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

6

d)

8

46.

What is the atomic number of Oxygen (O)?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

12

d)

16

47.

Which group does Sulphur (S) belong to?

a)

Group 16

b)

Group 14

c)

Group 17

d)

Group 15

48.

How many valence electrons does Boron (B) have?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

7

49.

What is the atomic number of Chlorine (Cl)?

a)

17

b)

12

c)

35

d)

8

50.

Which group does Fluorine (F) belong to?

a)

Group 17

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 2

d)

Group 18

51.

How many valence electrons does Magnesium (Mg) have?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

52.

What is the atomic number of Sodium (Na)?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

10

d)

14

53.

What is the ideal gas equation that describes the relationship between pressure, volume, temperature, and amount of a gas?

a)

PV = nRT

b)

PV = RT/n

c)

P = nRT/V

d)

V = nP/RT

54.

What does 'P' stand for in the ideal gas equation?

a)

Pressure of the gas

b)

Potential energy of the gas

c)

Partial volume of the gas

d)

Proton number of the gas

55.

What does 'V' stand for in the ideal gas equation?

a)

Volume of the gas

b)

Velocity of the gas

c)

Viscosity of the gas

d)

Vapor pressure of the gas

56.

What does 'n' stand for in the ideal gas equation?

a)

Number of moles of gas

b)

Normal pressure of gas

c)

Newton of force applied

d)

Numerical value of temperature

57.

What does 'R' stand for in the ideal gas equation?

a)

Gas constant

b)

Rate constant

c)

Resistance

d)

Radius

58.

What does 'T' stand for in the ideal gas equation?

a)

Absolute temperature (in Kelvin)

b)

Time (in seconds)

c)

Tension (in Newtons)

d)

Total pressure (in atm)

59.

Which of the following is a key condition for ideal gas behaviour?

a)

Gas particles have significant volume

b)

Gas particles have negligible volume

c)

Gas particles have strong intermolecular forces

d)

Collisions are not elastic

60.

No intermolecular forces exist between particles in an ideal gas.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Collisions between gas particles in an ideal gas are perfectly elastic.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which factor increases the rate of reaction by causing more frequent effective collisions?

a)

Temperature

b)

Concentration

c)

Surface area

d)

Catalyst

63.

Higher temperature increases the rate of reaction because:

a)

Particles have lower kinetic energy

b)

Particles have higher kinetic energy

c)

More exposed particles for collision

d)

Gas particles are closer together

64.

Larger surface area increases the rate of reaction because it provides ________ for collision.

a)

more exposed particles

b)

less energy

c)

fewer molecules

d)

lower temperature

65.

A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing an alternative ________ pathway.

a)

reaction

b)

energy

c)

temperature

d)

pressure

66.

Higher pressure increases the rate of reaction for gases because gas particles are ________ together.

a)

closer

b)

farther

c)

slower

d)

lighter

67.

What is the overall reaction order for the rate law expression Rate = k[A]?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

2

d)

3

68.

What is the overall reaction order for the rate law expression Rate=k[A][B]2Rate = k[A][B]^2 ?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

69.

What is the definition of a catalyst in pharmaceutical synthesis?

a)

A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process.

b)

A substance that is always consumed during a chemical reaction.

c)

A compound that decreases the rate of a chemical reaction.

d)

A reactant that is required in large quantities for a reaction to occur.

70.

How does a catalyst affect the reaction rate in pharmaceutical synthesis?

a)

Increases the number of particles with sufficient energy to undergo effective collisions.

b)

Decreases the temperature required for the reaction to occur.

c)

Reduces the concentration of reactants needed for the reaction.

d)

Slows down the reaction by stabilizing the reactants.

71.

What is the importance of a catalyst in pharmaceuticals?

a)

Enhances yield, purity, and consistency of active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs).

b)

Reduces the shelf life of pharmaceutical products.

c)

Increases the toxicity of active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs).

d)

Decreases the effectiveness of drug formulations.