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Cardiac Activity and Physiology Worksheet

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The inotropic effect on cardiac activity is a change in...:

a)

contraction force

b)

myocardial excitability

c)

heart rate

d)

myocardial conductivity

e)

all answers are correct

2.

The bathmotropic effect on cardiac activity is a change in:

a)

heart rate

b)

myocardial conductivity

c)

contraction force

d)

myocardial excitability

e)

all answers are correct

3.

The dromotropic effect on Cardiac activity is a change in:

a)

myocardial conductivity

b)

heart contraction force

c)

heart excitability

d)

heart rate

e)

all answers are correct

4.

What changes in heart rate are most often observed when pressing on the eyeballs (Danini-Aschner reflex):

a)

slowing down

b)

acceleration

c)

rate does not change

d)

arrhythmia

e)

at first does not change, then increases in speed

5.

Which reflex can temporarily reduce heart rate:

a)

Danini-Aschner

b)

Anrep

c)

Starling

d)

Parin

e)

Bouditch

6.

Which of the following humoral factors stimulate the heart:

a)

adrenaline

b)

acetylcholine

c)

potassium ions

d)

endothelin

e)

all answers are correct

7.

The main arteries of the elastic type (aorta, pulmonary trunk, and large arteries branching off them) are functionally classified as:

a)

Conducting arteries

b)

Distributing arteries

c)

Resistance arteries

d)

Capacitance vessels

8.

Which of the following is classified as a shock-absorbing vessel?

a)

resistance vessels

b)

exchange vessels

c)

capacitance vessels

d)

shunting vessels

e)

shock-absorbing vessels

9.

The muscular arterial vessels (small arteries, arterioles, and precapillary sphincters) are functionally classified as:

a)

resistance vessels

b)

exchange vessels

c)

shock-absorbing vessels

d)

capacitive vessels

e)

shunt vessels

10.

Venules and veins, based on their functional significance, are classified as...

a)

resistance vessels

b)

exchange vessels

c)

shock-absorbing vessels

d)

shunting vessels

e)

capacitance vessels

11.

The greatest resistance in the systemic circulation is observed at the level of...

a)

large arteries

b)

medium arteries

c)

capillaries

d)

vascular anastomoses

e)

arterioles

12.

Volumetric blood flow velocity is…

a)

the distance a portion of blood moves through a vessel per unit of time

b)

the volume of blood in the chambers of the heart

c)

the volume of blood flowing in the pulmonary circulation

d)

the volume of blood flowing in the systemic circulation

e)

the volume of blood flowing through the cross-section of a given section of the circulatory system or an individual vessel per unit of time

13.

Linear blood flow velocity is…

a)

the volume of blood flowing through the cross-section of a given section of the circulatory system or an individual vessel per unit of time

b)

the distance a portion of blood moves in the pulmonary circulation

c)

the distance a portion of blood moves when ejected from the blood vessels heart

d)

the distance a portion of blood travels in the systemic circulation

e)

the distance a portion of blood moves through a vessel per unit of time

14.

How does the linear velocity of blood flow change from the aorta to the vena cava?

a)

decreases up to the capillaries, then increases

b)

remains constant at all levels

c)

increases up to the capillaries, then decreases

d)

gradually decreases at all levels of the vascular system

e)

gradually increases at all levels of the vascular system

15.

The automaticity of conduction system cells is based on the ability to:

a)

Spontaneous depolarization

b)

Rapid depolarization

c)

Repolarization

d)

Trace potentials

e)

Slow repolarization

16.

The action potential of sinoatrial node pacemaker cells is characterized by all of the following except:

a)

the presence of a plateau during the repolarization period

b)

a shallow rise

c)

absence of an early rapid repolarization phase

d)

a mild overshoot

e)

slow diastolic depolarization

17.

Systolic volume is:

a)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta or pulmonary artery in one contraction

b)

the sum of the volumes of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta and pulmonary artery in one contraction

c)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart per unit of time

d)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart per minute

e)

the amount of blood ejected by the heart into the aorta

18.

Blood pressure depends on all of the following factors except:

a)

Osmotic pressure of the blood

b)

Cardiac output

c)

Stroke volume

d)

Vascular elasticity

e)

Peripheral resistance

19.

Working muscles of the heart:

a)

myocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

endocardium

d)

pericardium

e)

pleura

20.

Arterial blood enters:

a)

left atrium via the pulmonary veins

b)

right atrium via the vena cava

c)

right atrium via the pulmonary arteries

d)

right atrium via the inferior vena cava

e)

left atrium via the pulmonary arteries

21.

Function of atypical cardiac fibers?

a)

excitability and conductivity

b)

contractility and conductivity

c)

nutritional

d)

contractility and excitability

e)

protective

22.

The relative refractoriness phase in the heart coincides with:

a)

rapid terminal repolarization

b)

action potential plateau

c)

rapid initial depolarization

d)

depolarization

e)

local answer

23.

Cardiac conduction disturbances are observed with

a)

atrio-ventricular block

b)

tachycardia

c)

extrasystole

d)

sinus arrhythmia

e)

bradycardia

24.

Can atrioventricular node cells spontaneously generate excitation impulses?

a)

they can, if the sinoatrial node is blocked

b)

they cannot

c)

they can, if the function of the bundle branches of His is impaired

d)

they can, if the function of the Purkinje fibers is impaired

e)

they can, if myocardial conduction is impaired

25.

Excitability disorders in the heart are manifested by:

a)

extrasystole

b)

block

c)

decompensation

d)

tachycardia

e)

bradycardia

26.

The Frank-Starling Law is:

a)

the relationship between ventricular filling and stroke volume

b)

the process of oxygen exchange in the lungs

c)

the mechanism of nerve impulse transmission

d)

the regulation of blood pressure by the kidneys

27.

Increased force of heart contractions in response to stretching of the heart chambers:

a)

decompensation of cardiac activity

b)

impaired cardiac activity

c)

increased heart rate

d)

increased systolic blood volume

e)

increased force of heart contractions in response to stretching of the heart chambers

28.

The mechanism of Bowditch's "ladder" phenomenon is:

a)

stepwise change in the relative position of the active centers of contractile filaments

b)

stepwise increase in contraction frequency due to accumulation of calcium ions

c)

stepwise increase in the interaction time of actin and myosin during contraction

d)

sequential change metabolic activity of enzyme systems

e)

decrease in heart rate

29.

Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the:

a)

duodenum

b)

stomach

c)

large intestine

d)

oral cavity

e)

small intestine

30.

Loss of taste is called:

a)

analgesia

b)

ataxia

c)

anosmia

d)

anorexia

e)

ageusia

31.

The vomiting center is located in:

a)

the midbrain

b)

the hypothalamus

c)

the pons of Varli

d)

the reticular formation

e)

the medulla oblongata

32.

Salivary gland secretion upon stimulation of parasympathetic nerves:

a)

decreases

b)

does not change

c)

changes in two phases

d)

decreases, then increases

e)

increases

33.

The salivary center is located in:

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

midbrain

c)

hypothalamus

d)

pons of Varli

e)

reticular formation

34.

Gastrointestinal motility under the influence of sympathetic nerve stimulation:

a)

decrease

b)

no change

c)

change in two phases

d)

increase

e)

increase, then decrease

35.

Chewing movements are recorded using the following methods:

a)

mastication

b)

balloonography

c)

electromyography

d)

electrogastrography

e)

gnathodynamometry

36.

What type of digestion is unique to the small intestine:

a)

mural (membrane)

b)

autolytic

c)

symbiotic

d)

inherent

e)

remote

37.

What is the reaction of pancreatic juice?

a)

slightly alkaline

b)

acidic

c)

slightly acidic

d)

alkaline

e)

neutral

38.

Emulsification of fats occurs under the influence of:

a)

bile acids

b)

lipase

c)

amylase

d)

trypsin

e)

pepsin

39.

In which part of the digestive system is gastrin produced?

a)

in the stomach

b)

in the small intestine

c)

in the large intestine

d)

in the pancreas

40.

Name the main enzymes in human saliva:

a)

maltase, amylase

b)

pepsin, trypsin

c)

enterokinase

d)

lipase, elastase

e)

protein kinase

41.

How are fats broken down during digestion:

a)

mono- and diglycerides and fatty acids

b)

amino acids

c)

glucose

d)

monosaccharides

e)

fat-soluble vitamins

42.

Mural digestion occurs:

a)

on the microvilli and glycocalyx of the small intestine

b)

in the oral cavity

c)

in the stomach

d)

in the rectum

e)

in the cecum

43.

What is the primary function of gastrin?

a)

increases gastric juice secretion

b)

activates a pancreatic enzyme

c)

converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach

d)

increases bile secretion

e)

increases pancreatic secretion

44.

A component of saliva with a bactericidal composition:

a)

lysozyme

b)

amylase

c)

maltase

d)

maltose

e)

kallekrein

45.

The component of saliva that facilitates swallowing:

a)

mucin

b)

lysozyme

c)

urea

d)

chlorides

e)

phosphates

46.

Where does the initial absorption of water and nutrients occur:

a)

in the oral cavity

b)

in the stomach

c)

in the esophagus

d)

in the large intestine

47.

Where does protein coagulation in the digestive tract occur?

a)

in the stomach

b)

in the small intestine

c)

in the oral cavity

d)

in the large intestine

e)

in the rectum

48.

The hunger and satiety centers are located in:

a)

hypothalamus

b)

cerebral cortex

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

spinal cord

e)

midbrain

49.

Protein coagulation in the digestive tract is caused by:

a)

hydrochloric acid

b)

bile

c)

enterokinase

d)

pepsin

e)

lipase

50.

Gastrointestinal motility under the influence of bile:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

no change

d)

disappear

e)

change gradually

51.

Gastric secretion is inhibited by the intake of:

a)

fats

b)

carbohydrates

c)

water

d)

fruit juice

e)

proteins

52.

What type of saliva is secreted when the parasympathetic nerves are stimulated:

a)

serous

b)

acidic

c)

thick, viscous

d)

neutral

e)

alkaline

53.

What are gastrointestinal hormones:

a)

gastrin

b)

oxytocin

c)

adrenaline

54.

What is hydrochloric acid used for:

a)

activates enzymes, denatures proteins, stimulates gastrin release

b)

suppresses gastric hormone secretion and creates an alkaline environment

c)

breaks down emulsified fats and protects the gastric mucosa from damage

d)

activates lipase and inhibits gastric motility

e)

reduces the development of H. pylori

55.

The main component of bile:

a)

bile acids

b)

pepsin

c)

trypsin

d)

carboxypeptidase

e)

hydrochloric acid

56.

The main humoral regulator of pancreatic secretion:

a)

secretin

b)

insulin

c)

glucagon

d)

HCl

e)

cholesterase

57.

Experimental methods for studying gastric function:

a)

"Imagination feeding" practice

b)

sialography

c)

masticationography

d)

duodenal intubation

e)

Matteucci experiment

58.

What is used to study bile composition:

a)

duodenal intubation

b)

gastric intubation

c)

liver X-ray

d)

liver ultrasound

e)

pH-metry

59.

Pancreatic trypsinogen is activated:

a)

with enterokinase

b)

with hydrochloric acid

c)

with pepsin

d)

with chymotrypsin

e)

with lysozyme

60.

One of the main enzymes of gastric juice:

a)

pepsin

b)

amylase

c)

trypsin

d)

carboxypeptidase

e)

lysozyme

61.

Non-specific liver function: -detoxification -participation in protein metabolism -bile formation -participation in fat and carbohydrate metabolism

a)

synthesis of secretin, cholecystokinin

b)

detoxification

c)

participation in protein metabolism

d)

bile formation

e)

participation in fat and carbohydrate metabolism

62.

Gastrocyanic acid pH:

a)

acidic

b)

neutral

c)

slightly alkaline

d)

strongly alkaline

e)

alkaline

63.

Hydrochloric acid:

a)

creates an optimal pH for enzyme activity

b)

creates a protective layer

c)

neutralizes excess HCL

d)

participates in lipotropic liver metabolism

e)

suppresses the growth of H. pylori

64.

In which part of the gastrointestinal tract does protein breakdown begin:

a)

in the stomach

b)

in the mouth

c)

in the esophagus

d)

in the small intestine

e)

in the large intestine

65.

What are the internal causes of hunger:

a)

decreased blood glucose and amino acid levels

b)

increased body temperature and decreased body water

c)

decreased body weight and plasma osmotic pressure

d)

decreased blood glucose and increased blood amino acid levels

e)

increased blood glucose and amino acid levels

66.

In which part of the gastrointestinal tract does fat breakdown begin?

a)

in the small intestine

b)

in the mouth

67.

Breakdown by a proteolytic enzyme in pancreatic juice:

a)

proteins into peptides and amino acids

b)

carbohydrates into oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides

c)

oils into glycerol and fatty acids

d)

proteins into monosaccharides

e)

binds proteins to albumin and peptones

68.

Intestinal villus motility is enhanced by:

a)

villikinin, bile acids

b)

adrenaline, bile acids

c)

vasointestinal peptide, enterokinase

d)

secretin, bile

e)

enterogastrone, glucose

69.

The small intestine has the following functions:

a)

secretory, motor, absorptive, excretory

b)

excretory, regulatory, motor, endocrine

c)

absorptive, secretory, storage, motor

d)

thermoregulatory, secretory, absorptive, motor

e)

incretory, reservoir, motor, regulatory

70.

The main mechanism of glucose absorption in the gastrointestinal tract is:

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

filtration

e)

electroosmosis

71.

How do the following substances affect intestinal motility:

a)

adrenaline inhibits, acetylcholine enhances

b)

adrenaline enhances, acetylcholine inhibits

c)

adrenaline has no effect, acetylcholine enhances

d)

adrenaline inhibits, acetylcholine has no effect

e)

adrenaline has no effect, acetylcholine inhibits

72.

Where are the enzymes involved in the membrane digestion process located:

a)

in the endocytic membrane

b)

in the intestinal lumen

c)

glycocalyx

d)

in the intestinal wall

e)

in the intestinal capillaries

73.

This enzyme was named by I.P. Pavlov as the "enzyme" of the enzyme:

a)

trypsin

b)

gastrin

c)

nuclease

d)

lipase

e)

enterokinase

74.

The microflora of the digestive tract in a healthy adult is most often found in:

a)

stomach

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

d)

ileum

e)

large intestine

75.

When does bile flow into the duodenum?

a)

with contraction of the stomach

b)

depends on blood sugar levels

c)

depends on oxygen levels in the air

d)

continuously

e)

with each meal

76.

Which bile substance has the greatest effect on lipids than others?

a)

bilirubin

b)

amino acids

c)

cholesterol

d)

phospholipids

e)

bile acids

77.

Which bile substance has the greatest effect on lipid digestion and absorption:

a)

cholesterol

b)

phospholipids

c)

bilirubin

d)

amino acids

e)

bile acids

78.

The receptors whose stimulation triggers the gag reflex and the swallowing reflex are located on:

a)

the lateral surface of the tongue

b)

the anterior third of the tongue

c)

the middle third of the tongue

d)

the tip of the tongue

e)

the root of the tongue

79.

Which of the following factors are most involved in the development of food motivation?

a)

decreased blood nutrient levels

b)

increased blood nutrient levels

c)

increased gastrin levels

d)

decreased secretin levels

e)

decreased cholecystokinin levels

80.

What increases colon motility (motor) activity?

a)

cholecystokinin

b)

vasoactive intestinal peptide

c)

gastric inhibitory peptide

d)

secretin

e)

peptin

81.

Which of the following enzymes are absent from colonic intestinal juice?

a)

Enterokinase, sucrase

b)

Peptidases, cathepsins

c)

Amylases, lipases

d)

Nuclease

e)

Alkaline phosphatases

82.

The food center is a collection of neurons...

a)

Lateral, ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus

b)

Superior mesenteric plexus

c)

Dorsal nucleus of the X-th pair, Th 2-6 neurons of the spinal cord

d)

Dorsal nucleus of the X-th pair, Th 5-11 neurons of the spinal cord

e)

Inferior mesenteric plexus

83.

Intravenous administration of secretin promotes proliferation of which substance:

a)

duodenal bicarbonate

b)

duodenal amylase and lipase

c)

duodenal trypsin

d)

hydrochloric acid in the stomach

e)

duodenal chemotrisin

84.

The organ that detoxifies metabolic waste products:

a)

liver

b)

spinal cord

c)

kidneys

d)

spleen

e)

brain

85.

In what order does the body utilize organic matter during prolonged fasting?

4 lines
86.

Not related to gallbladder functions:

a)

activation of gastric pepsin

b)

participation in parietal digestion

c)

creation of an alkaline pH in the intestine

d)

emulsification of fats

e)

lipid breakdown

87.

Inhibits intestinal secretion:

a)

somatostatin

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

motilin

d)

pepsin

e)

saliva

88.

Functions of the colonic microflora:

a)

suppresses pathogens

b)

synthesizes bile

c)

breaks down proteolytic enzymes

d)

stimulates HCl secretion

e)

promotes pancreatic juice production

89.

Does NOT stimulate colonic peristalsis:

a)

sympathetic nerve

b)

vagus nerve

c)

gastrin

d)

bile acids

e)

saliva

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