True or False: The "Generic Name" of a drug is the proprietary name owned by a specific manufacturer.

A patient is prescribed Epinephrine for anaphylaxis. The nurse knows this drug acts on which receptors? (Select All That Apply)

Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor for a patient taking Valproic Acid?

A patient is taking Phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

What is the drug of choice for treating Status Epilepticus initially?

True or False: Tolerance occurs when a patient requires a higher dosage of a drug to achieve the same therapeutic effect.

Which of the following are common adverse effects of Anticholinergic drugs? (Select All That Apply)

The nurse is teaching a patient about Levodopa/Carbidopa. Which side effect should the nurse emphasize?

A patient on Lithium therapy reports a metallic taste, hand tremors, and diarrhea. The nurse suspects:

Which drug is used as the "rescue" inhaler for acute bronchospasm?

True or False: Vancomycin should be administered rapidly via IV push to prevent infection spread.

Which adverse effect is specifically associated with the "Red Man Syndrome"?

A patient is taking an MAO Inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which food should they avoid?

What is the primary concern when a patient is taking both a Benzodiazepine and Alcohol?

True or False: Pharmacokinetics is the study of what the drug does to the body.

Which drug class is often used to treat the "positive" symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A patient is receiving an Opioid analgesic. What is the priority nursing assessment?

Which medication is the antidote for an Acetaminophen overdose?

True or False: NSAIDs like Ibuprofen can cause gastric ulcers by inhibiting the COX-1 enzyme.

The nurse provides teaching for a patient starting Methylphenidate (Ritalin). Which instruction is correct?

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease? (Select All That Apply)

The Half-life of a drug is defined as:

A patient is prescribed Atropine. This drug is classified as a:

True or False: Epinephrine is non-selective, meaning it stimulates multiple types of adrenergic receptors.

Which of the following is a "Black Box Warning" for many antidepressants?

A patient is allergic to Penicillin. The nurse should be cautious when administering which other class of antibiotics due to cross-sensitivity?

What is the mechanism of action for Naloxone (Narcan)?

True or False: Schedule I controlled substances have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use.

Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?

A patient taking a first-generation antihistamine (like Diphenhydramine) should be warned about:

Which of the following are nursing interventions for a patient on a stimulant? (Select All That Apply)

The Therapeutic Index (TI) measures:

True or False: Agonists are drugs that bind to a receptor and block a response.

Which of the following describes "Superinfection"?

A patient is prescribed Albuterol and a Beclomethasone (steroid) inhaler. How should they be used?

What is a major side effect of loop diuretics (like Furosemide)?

True or False: Aspirin should not be given to children with viral symptoms due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.

Which drug is used to treat a dry, non-productive cough?

A patient is taking Warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should teach the patient to maintain a consistent intake of:

Which medication is considered a mood stabilizer?

True or False: First-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.

A patient is taking a beta-blocker (e.g., Atenolol). Which vital sign is most important to check before administration?

Symptoms of "Salicylism" (aspirin toxicity) include: (Select All That Apply)

Which drug class does Prednisone belong to?

True or False: Bacteriostatic drugs kill bacteria directly.

What is the primary use of Donepezil (Aricept)?

A patient has been taking a benzodiazepine for 10 years. What is the biggest risk if they stop suddenly?

Which antibiotic class is associated with potential ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

True or False: Intravenous (IV) administration provides the fastest absorption of a medication.

Which drug is commonly used to treat a urinary tract infection (UTI) and requires the patient to drink plenty of fluids to prevent crystalluria?

True or False: A "Loading Dose" is a large initial dose given to reach the therapeutic range quickly.

What is a common side effect of Tetracycline that nurses should warn young patients about?

A patient is prescribed Rifampin for Tuberculosis. What normal side effect should the nurse mention?

Which of the following are adverse effects of Gentamicin? (Select All That Apply)

True or False: Patients taking Metronidazole (Flagyl) must avoid alcohol to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction (severe vomiting).

Which drug is the "rescue" medication for an acute asthma attack?

The nurse is teaching a patient about Theophylline. Which substance should the patient avoid?

Which medication is an example of an Inhaled Anticholinergic used for COPD?

True or False: Glucocorticoids (Steroids) can cause blood glucose levels to rise (Hyperglycemia).

A patient with a productive cough and thick secretions should be encouraged to take:

What is the mechanism of action for a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) like Pantoprazole?

Which laxative is considered a "Bulk-forming" laxative and is safest for long-term use?

True or False: Diphenoxylate with Atropine (Lomotil) is used to treat constipation.

A patient is taking Ondansetron (Zofran). What is the primary indication for this drug?

Which of the following is a common side effect of Aluminum-containing antacids?

True or False: Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach to allow it to coat the gastric ulcer.

When administering Digoxin, the nurse must monitor for "Digoxin Toxicity." Signs include: (Select All That Apply)

Which lab value must be monitored for a patient on Heparin therapy?

True or False: The antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) is Vitamin K.

Which drug is an HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor used to lower cholesterol?

What is a potentially life-threatening side effect of ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril)?

True or False: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be swallowed with a full glass of water.

A patient is taking Spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which electrolyte imbalance?

Which medication is the first-line treatment for Type 2 Diabetes?

True or False: Glargine (Lantus) insulin is long-acting and has no peak.

Which type of insulin is administered IV for the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Signs of Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) include: (Select All That Apply)

True or False: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken at bedtime with food.

What is the primary risk of taking broad-spectrum antibiotics for a long period?

Which of the following is the antidote for Benzodiazepine overdose?

True or False: Aminoglycosides (like Amikacin) can be given orally to treat systemic infections.

A patient is taking Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for a UTI. What should the nurse teach?

What is the primary purpose of a "Peak and Trough" level?

Which drug class is used to treat "Dry Eyes" and "Dry Mouth" symptoms in Sjögren's, but is generally avoided in patients with Glaucoma?

True or False: Nystatin is commonly used as a "swish and swallow" for oral candidiasis (thrush).

Which drug is a Potassium-sparing diuretic?

What is the priority nursing action if a patient complains of itching and hives during an IV antibiotic infusion?

True or False: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation for the life of the platelet (7–10 days).

A patient is prescribed Iron supplements (Ferrous Sulfate). The nurse should advise them to:

Which medication is used to treat Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) or Varicella-Zoster?

True or False: Allopurinol is used to treat an acute gout attack.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids?

The "Three Ps" of Diabetes (Hyperglycemia) are: (Select All That Apply)

What is the mechanism of action for Heparin?

True or False: Furosemide (Lasix) should be administered in the evening to help the patient sleep.

Which medication is used as a mood stabilizer for Bipolar Disorder?

A patient has an order for "NPO." This means the patient should:

True or False: Trough levels are drawn 30 minutes before the next dose is administered.

Which of the following is a symptom of "Extrapyramidal Symptoms" (EPS) from antipsychotics?

Respiratory depression is the most life-threatening effect.

COX-1 protects the stomach lining.

Caffeine increases stimulatory effects.

Bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, and pill-rolling tremors are hallmark motor symptoms.

Atropine is the prototype anticholinergic.

Cephalosporins have a similar ring structure.

Antagonists block receptors while agonists produce a response.

Antibiotic-associated superinfections can include Clostridioides difficile infections or oral thrush.

When both are ordered for inhalation therapy, give the bronchodilator first to "open the door" for the steroid.

Furosemide wastes potassium.

Antitussive means "against cough."

Sudden changes in vitamin K intake affect clotting time.

Common adverse effects can include tinnitus, dizziness, and headache.

Bacteriostatic agents inhibit growth, while bactericidal agents kill.

Withdrawal can lead to status epilepticus.

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are notable risks with some medications.

Caffeine is a xanthine, like theophylline.

Aluminum salts tend to cause constipation, while magnesium salts tend to cause diarrhea.

Yellow or green halos, bradycardia, and nausea/vomiting are classic toxicity signs.

Sublingual tablets must dissolve under the tongue.

Shakiness, sweating, and confusion are common signs of low blood glucose.

Diuretics are typically given in the morning to prevent nocturia.

In suspected anaphylaxis, first stop the source of exposure.

Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic symptoms seen with high blood glucose.