wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Nursing Battery Exam Practice Question by M.L and A.R (SFC-CON)

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Eugene has been choosing which particular program he will pursue. One thing on his mind is that he is interested in pursuing the science of the chemical basis of life. What program is he likely to pursue in college?

a)

Analytical Chemistry

b)

Biochemistry

c)

Organic Chemistry

d)

Inorganic Chemistry

2.

Anna poured coconut oil into a water solution. She noticed that the coconut oil stays suspended above the water. What characteristic of the coconut oil is observed?

a)

Coconut oil is hydrophilic

b)

Coconut oil has higher polarity than water

c)

Coconut oil is composed of a hydrophobic head

d)

Coconut oil is hydrophobic

3.

During cell division, the chromatin turns into what molecule?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

b)

Ribonucleic Acid

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Chromosomes

4.

What enzyme dissolves polysaccharides?

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Peptin

c)

Pancreatic amylase

d)

Both A and C

5.

All but one of the following is not true regarding polysaccharides. Which one is not a polysaccharide?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Chitin

c)

Lactose

d)

Cellulose

6.

Madam Charlene Bulan asked a nursing student about the best way to describe an amino acid. What would you answer if you were in the nursing student's situation?

a)

Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins.

b)

Amino acids are components of hemoglobin.

c)

Amino acids are bonded with hydrogen bonds.

d)

None of the above

7.

Mark is a nursing student who is tasked with enumerating the elements that build nucleic acids. What should Mark enumerate in front of the class?

a)

Nucleic acid is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogenous base

b)

Nucleic acid is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogenous base, phosphate

c)

Nucleic acid is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogenous base, phosphate, sugar

d)

Nucleic acid is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogenous base, phosphate, sugar, and ribose

8.

Among the following, which function is not associated with lipids?

a)

Energy reserve

b)

Energy source for muscles

c)

Component of cell membrane

d)

None of the Above

9.

It is a mechanism that regulates

the pH level of the blood in the human body.

a)

Negative feedback mechanism

b)

Positive feedback mechanism

c)

Bicarbonate buffer system

d)

None of the Above

10.

What speeds up a chemical reaction?

a)

Enzyme

b)

Catalase

c)

Lipase

d)

Heat

11.

A 13-year-old boy’s temperature increased to 37.8°C during winter. He started sweating to cool off his body, and his temperature went back to 37.5°C. What is the mechanism that helps the boy maintain homeostasis?

a)

Perspiration

b)

Body heat convection

c)

Inflammatory response

d)

Negative feedback mechanism

12.

All but one is not true.

a)

Head is superior to the neck

b)

Olecranon is more proximal than phalanges

c)

Epidermis is more superficial than tissues

d)

Scapula is posterior to the pectoralis major

e)

None of the above

13.

It is a transport mechanism that does not require the expenditure of energy.

a)

Bus

b)

Active transport

c)

Passive transport

d)

Diffusion

14.

Movement of molecules from a high concentration gradient to a low concentration gradient.

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Facilitated diffusion

15.

It is a process that occurs when sodium and potassium interchangeably goes in and out of the cell that causes an electrical signals or impulses

a)

Action Potential

b)

Electrolyte Discharge

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Sliding Filament Theory

16.

Thyroid gland enlarges due to a lack of iodine.

a)

Cretinism

b)

Myxedema

c)

Goiter

d)

Hypothyroidism

17.

What hormone stimulates the release of T3 and T4?

a)

Thyroid stimulating hormone

b)

Parathyroid stimulating hormone

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Growth hormone

18.

It is the rest and digest process of the central nervous system

.

a)

Parasympathetic nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Central nervous system

19.

Are tiny filtering units within each kidney responsible for producing urine by removing waste and excess substances from the blood?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Nephron

c)

Hepatic lobules

d)

Glomerulus

20.

It is a systematic process that makes the heart to beat on its own without being controlled by the Central Nervous System

a)

Cardiac Muscle-associated Action Potential

b)

Contractility

c)

Conduction System

d)

None of the Above

21.

What microorganisms generally cause diseases?

a)

Pathogens

b)

Microbes

c)

Intestinal flora

d)

Viruses

22.

It is the destruction of pathogens in non-living objects by using physical or chemical means.

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Aseptic technique

d)

Sanitization

23.

James, a resident of Brgy Baculud, has been known for spreading influenza or flu to his family, but he himself remains asymptomatic. According to the scenario, James can be described as what?

a)

Incubatory carrier

b)

Carrier

c)

Asymptomatic carrier

d)

Symptomatic carrier

24.

It is a bacterium that helps in digestion and produces a therapeutic effect rather than causing diseases?

a)

Anaerobic Bacteria

b)

Aerobic Bacteria

c)

Indigenous Flora

d)

Probiotics

25.

Ebola virus has spread to some countries in the Western African continent. What type of outbreak situation is this?

a)

Pandemic

b)

Sporadic

c)

Epidemic

d)

Endemic

26.

San Mariano, Isabela is known for an increased incidence rate of dengue fever and malaria from 2004 to 2007. Because of this, the municipality is known to be a Malaria breeding ground for the past few years. What type of outbreak is this?

a)

Sporadic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Endemic

d)

Local community outbreak

27.

Bacteria are one of the deadliest microorganisms that can inflict diseases and rapidly multiply in a short period of time. How do bacteria reproduce?

a)

Binary Fusion

b)

Binary Fission

c)

Asexual Reproduction

d)

Sexual Reproduction

28.

It is a process of eliminating pathogens on the skin surface?

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

All of the above

29.

It is the infestation of parasites into a host that either harms the host or lives at the expense of the host.

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Parasitic Infestation

30.

Aaron was admitted to the hospital due to pain at McBurney’s point. He was placed in a ward with patients who had respiratory tract illnesses. Later on, he developed a runny nose and productive cough after being exposed to the ward with respiratory illnesses at the hospital. What type of infection is most likely to have occurred?

a)

Nosocomial Infection

b)

Cross Infection

c)

Direct Exposure

d)

Close Contact Infection

31.

James, a 29-year-old male with a BMI of 30 and an increased level of low-density lipoprotein, is at risk of developing atherosclerosis. He asked you about possible alternatives or substitutions for fats to incorporate healthier types of lipids into his diet. What type of fats would you recommend?

a)

Polyunsaturated

b)

Monounsaturated

c)

Unsaturated

d)

Diunsaturated

32.

To maximize calcium and phosphorus absorption in the body, what micronutrient is needed for faster absorption of the aforementioned minerals?

a)

Retinol

b)

B-Complex

c)

Ascorbic Acid

d)

Calciferol

33.

A vitamin that is needed for collagen synthesis?

a)

B-Complex

b)

Ascorbic Acid

c)

Tocopherol

d)

Cholecalciferol

34.

A vitamin that is known for its antioxidant properties and increased protection of cell membranes?

a)

Tocopherol

b)

Calciferol

c)

Phytomenodione

d)

Biotin

35.

A vitamin that is needed for macronutrient metabolism and cell function?

a)

B-complex

b)

Biotin

c)

Riboflavin

d)

Niacin

36.

What are the signs that an infant is ready for complementary foods? SATA

a)

The baby can maintain a balanced head-to-neck posture

b)

When the extrusion reflex is present

c)

When the extrusion reflex is absent

d)

When the baby is 4-6 months old

e)

When breast milk is no longer an effective option for the infant’s nutrition

37.

What is the best food option for toddlers?

a)

Cubed vegetables and fruits for snacks

b)

Boiled carrots and eggs chopped into small bite-sized pieces

c)

Softened vegetables and fruits in bite-sized pieces

d)

Mixed vegetables and fruits in a bowl with various colors

38.

How will you introduce a picky school-age child to a vegetable in their diet? Choose the best answer.

a)

Be consistent in giving vegetables and make the presentation more vibrant.

b)

Sneak small vegetables into their usual foods, such as making smoothies, salads, etc.

c)

Make positive reinforcement when the child eats a vegetable and be involved in the process without being forceful or giving punishment.

d)

Explore a variety of foods, make dressings or dips, give additional texture by frying or coating with breadcrumbs, and pair it with their favorite foods.

39.

What age bracket is eating disorder usually rampant?

a)

Preschoolers

b)

Adolescents

c)

Early Adulthood

d)

Late Adulthood

40.

What is the best delivery method of nutrients for patients who are suffering from a coma?

a)

Total Parenteral Nutrition

b)

Total Enteral Nutrition

c)

Gastrectomy Tube

d)

Nasogastric Tube

41.

What is the core of community health nursing?

a)

Community

b)

Residents

c)

Family

d)

Individual

42.

What is the legal basis for the immunization of both maternal and child starting from before conception up to birth?

a)

RA 8473

b)

RA 10152

c)

RA 10173

d)

EO 51

43.

Which of the following is one of the goals of Community Health Nursing?

a)

Community mobilization towards independency

b)

Mitigation of poverty and full utilization of local resources

c)

Prevention of Leptospirosis and Leprosy

d)

Education about antidrug use and teenage pregnancy

44.

It is described as the service of community health nursing that is within the reach of the people in the society or community they belong to?

a)

Availability

b)

Acceptability

c)

Accessibility

d)

Affordability

45.

Mang Ernesto is a farmer at Barangay Baculud who spends most of his day during the summer season harvesting and planting corn on their family's hectare. After a tiring day, Mang Ernesto drank water from his open bottle to compensate for water loss due to the heat. After some days, he experienced abdominal pain, increased borborygmi sound (>30/minute), and loose stools with a foul odor. Due to medication restrictions, what alternative medicine should Mang Ernesto drink to soothe his signs and symptoms?

a)

Concoction of Ulasimang Bato

b)

Concoction of combined Ulasimang Bato and Bawang

c)

Concoction of Tsaang Gubat

d)

Concoction of combined Tsaang Gubat and Niyog-niyogan

46.

Aling Mika is a vendor who sells Binallay during the hot weather season. Due to the intense heat index brought on by the increasing temperature, she experienced dizziness, headache, diaphoresis, blurred vision, and chest pain. As a community nurse, you are aware of these manifestations and what herbal medication you should recommend to your patient?

a)

Concoction of Ampalaya

b)

Concoction of Yerba Buena

c)

Concoction of Bawang

d)

Concoction of Tsaang Gubat

47.

It is a freeze-dried vaccine that can be stored at temperatures ranging from 15 degrees Celsius to negative 25 degrees Celsius.

a)

MMR, BCG, and OPV

b)

BCG, OPV, Hepa B

c)

OPV, Hepa B, PCV

d)

None of the above

48.

It is a vaccine that is highly sensitive to heat.

a)

MMR, BCG, OPV

b)

BCG, OPV, Hepa B

c)

OPV, Hepa B, PCV

d)

BCG, OPV, IPV

e)

Hepa B, MMR, IPV

49.

It is the best choice container for storing vaccines from the manufacturer to the personnel who will administer the medication.

a)

Cold Chain Container

b)

Cooler Container

c)

Small Refrigerator

d)

Thermal Insulated Bag

50.

Drug of choice in treating the multibacillary type of leprosy that is known to be highly infectious.

a)

Rifampicin, Dapsone, Erythromycin

b)

Erythromycin, Rifampicin, and Isoniazid

c)

Rifampicin, Erythromycin, Sildenafil

d)

Rifampicin, Clofazimine, Dapsone

51.

It is the goal of maternal and child health to prevent any congenital diseases or illnesses that may affect the health of mothers and their children. Select all that apply.

a)

Health Promotion

b)

Diseases Prevention

c)

Curative

d)

Rehabilitation

52.

It is a diagnostic test to detect and measure the thickness of free fluid in the nuchal portion of a fetus inside the womb.

a)

Alpha Fetoprotein

b)

Nuchal Translucency Scan

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

53.

It is characterized by excessive growth of trophoblastic cells (hyperplasia) overriding the formation of the fetus.

a)

Endometriosis

b)

Endometrial Myoma

c)

Cervical Myoma

d)

Hydatidiform Mole

54.

Characterized by congenital cleft palate, low-set ears, small head, and absence of eyebrows.

a)

Trisomy 13

b)

Trisomy 18

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Trisomy 23

55.

Dolly, a 20-year-old female, was admitted to the hospital due to inconsistent uterine contractions. It is characterized by hypertonic contractions at some points, then goes into hypotonic contractions for a time. As a nurse, how will you document your assessment of your patient?

a)

The patient is having a Braxton-Hicks contraction.

b)

The patient may need continuous monitoring.

c)

The patient is exhibiting uterine dysfunction and should be reported to the attending OB-GYN.

d)

Conduct further assessment to evaluate the quality and quantity of the contractions.

56.

Bea, a 21-year-old female, has been in labor for less than 3 hours before she delivered her baby. The nurses observed that the baby was born with increased intracranial pressure and a torn umbilical cord. As a student nurse, you observed this as what?

a)

An abnormal delivery

b)

A fast labor contraction

c)

A precipitate labour

d)

A dysfunctional uterine contraction

57.

Baby Jovanni was born with a congenital disease. His symptoms include becoming cyanotic during breastfeeding (Tet Spell), slowed growth, lethargy, tachypnea, and tachycardia, with a risk for activity intolerance and a possible need for a surgical procedure. What is the possible condition that baby Jovanni has?

a)

Ventricular Septal Defect

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot

c)

Atrial Septal Defect

d)

Pulmonary Stenosis

58.

Baby Eugene was born through NSVD. Later on, every time he breastfed, a loose stool accompanied by a hyper borborygmi sound was observed, and it was later discovered that he cannot fully absorb glucose or carbohydrates. What possible condition is Eugene suffering from?

a)

Lactose intolerance

b)

Celiac disease

c)

Fructose malabsorption

d)

Congenital sucrase-isomaltase deficiency

59.

A baby was admitted to the hospital with clinical manifestations of muscle spasms, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, excessive crying, lethargy, and refusal to suck or breastfeed. Considering these symptoms, what could be the possible diagnosis of this baby manifesting a danger sign in newborns?

a)

Dehydration or electrolyte imbalance

b)

Periventricular Leukomalacia

c)

Neonatal Tetanus

d)

Bacterial infection

60.

A parent is seeking therapy for their child who has excessive outbursts of anger and extreme arguments with adults. As a nurse, you are aware that the child is most likely experiencing a?

a)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

b)

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

c)

Conduct Disorder (CD)

d)

Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

61.

It is a type of palpation where you depress the skin ½” to ¾” (1.5 to 2 cm) with your finger pads.

a)

light palpation

b)

superficial palpation

c)

moderate palpation

d)

deep palpation

62.

A type of technique that helps you locate organ borders, identify organ shape and position, and determine if an organ is solid or filled with fluid or gas during physical assessment?

a)

Auscultation

b)

Palpation

c)

Palpation

d)

Percussion

63.

This is an indication of possible pneumonia in the lungs upon percussion.

a)

Crackling on percussion

b)

Dullness on percussion

c)

Resonance on percussion

d)

Hyperresonance on percussion

64.

An abnormality caused by a complete or partial lack of melanin

a)

Albinism

b)

Melanoma

c)

Vitiligo

d)

Hypopigmentation

65.

It is a superficial growth or patch of the skin that does not resemble the area surrounding it.

a)

lesion

b)

striae

c)

ecchymosis

d)

localized erythema

66.

Spinous processes that deviate laterally may indicate __________

a)

kyphosis

b)

lordosis

c)

herniated disc

d)

scoliosis

67.

It is also called subcutaneous emphysema and is a crackling sensation that occurs when air passes through fluid.

a)

fremitus

b)

crepitus

c)

atelectasis

d)

ascites

68.

What is an abnormal finding when auscultating for breath sounds using bronchophony?

a)

indistinct

b)

the words are easily understood

c)

muffled

d)

soft

69.

In palpating the urinary bladder, which is a normal finding?

a)

palpable

b)

not palpable

c)

smooth

d)

somewhat firm mass extending as far as the umbilicus

70.

What is the position for male examination?

a)

knee chest

b)

supine

c)

leaning over to a table

d)

left lateral

71.

What is a central function of the nurse educator that involves planning and organizing the course?

a)

Instructional

b)

Faculty

c)

Substantive

d)

Dimension

72.

What is primarily concerned with observable and measurable aspects of human behavior?

a)

Education

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Pedagogy

d)

Faculty

73.

What is the stage occurring during the formal operational period and the identity vs. role confusion stage?

a)

Adolescence

b)

Infancy to Toddlerhood

c)

Young Adulthood

d)

Middle to Late Childhood

74.

What is the stage occurring from 12 months to years, involving sensorimotor development and the conflict between trust vs. mistrust and autonomy vs. shame and doubt?

a)

Infancy to Toddlerhood

b)

Young Adulthood

c)

Early Childhood to Preschooler

d)

Middle to Late Childhood

75.

What is a learning theory that stresses what goes on in the internal mental processes of the learner as they take in, interpret, store, and retrieve information?

a)

Obstacles to Education

b)

Transfer of Learning

c)

Cognitive Learning Theory

d)

Social Learning Theory

76.

According to your answer in question 75, at what stage does the learner start to think or contemplate abstract principle?

a)

Concrete operational

b)

Preoperational

c)

Formal operational

d)

Sensorimotor

77.

At what psychosocial conflict in psychosocial theory does the virtue of Wisdom will be developed?

a)

Ego Integrity vs Despair

b)

Generativity vs Stagnation

c)

Trust vs Mistrust

d)

Intimacy vs Isolation

78.

What is the first intervention when teaching for a patient that is newly been diagnosed with high blood pressure?

a)

Teach the caregiver how to take the patient’s blood pressure using a manual blood pressure cuff.

b)

Have the dietitian meet with the patient and caregiver to discuss low-sodium dietary choices.

c)

Ask the patient to select important information from a list of hypertension teaching topics that he or she may or may not already know.

d)

Provide a verbal information about the treatment and complications of hypertension using medical terms to provide accuracy of the terms.

79.

A nurse is teaching a postpartum mother how to breastfeed her infant. The nurse notes that the mother is alert and agrees that breastfeeding is important to her and beneficial to her baby. The nurse outlines the expectations of breastfeeding for the mother and the baby and presents the material. In terms of the sequencing of instruction, what should the nurse do next?

a)

Ask the mother about her previous experience with breastfeeding.

b)

Demonstrate how to position the baby for breastfeeding.

c)

Have the mother demonstrate breastfeeding.

d)

Show the mother a video about breastfeeding.

80.

Any combination of planned experiences based on sound theories that provides individuals, groups, and communities the opportunity to acquire the information and skills needed to make quality health decisions is known as:

a)

health promotion.

b)

health counseling.

c)

health education.

d)

health knowledge.

81.

Which nurse theorist focused on nursing as interacting with the client to meet immediate needs?

a)

Levine

b)

Abdellah

c)

Nightingale

d)

Hall

82.

According to Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory, what is the primary goal of nursing?

a)

To provide transcultural care that respects the client’s values and beliefs

b)

To facilitate the client’s adaptation to environmental stressors

c)

To promote interpersonal relationships between the nurse and the client

d)

To assist clients in meeting self-care demands when they are unable to do so themselves

83.

Which nursing theory emphasizes the importance of the nurse-client relationship as a transpersonal and humanistic experience?

a)

Roy’s Adaptation Model

b)

Neuman’s Health Care Systems Model

c)

King’s Goal Attainment Theory

d)

Watson’s Human Caring Model

84.

According to Neuman’s Health Care Systems Model, at what levels do nursing interventions aim to assist clients in stress reduction?

a)

Adaptation, compensation, and integration

b)

Primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of prevention

c)

Intrapersonal, interpersonal, and extrapersonal levels

d)

Self-care, self-care deficit, and nursing systems

85.

According to Roach (2013), what are the six attributes of caring in nursing?

a)

Compassion, Competence, Confidence, Conscience, Commitment, Comportment

b)

Empathy, Skills, Trust, Ethics, Dedication, Behavior

c)

Compassion, Skills, Trust, Ethics, Dedication, Behavior

d)

Empathy, Competence, Confidence, Ethics, Commitment, Behavior

86.

What is the significance of Empirical Knowing in nursing practice?

a)

Enhances moral or ethical awareness

b)

Involves creative actions in care provision

c)

Focuses on personal connections with clients

d)

Provides a scientific basis for understanding and predicting nursing phenomena

87.

What is an example of general lead therapeutic communication?

a)

Go on

b)

Was it something like...?

c)

What are your feelings in regard to...?

d)

I’ll sit with you for a while.

88.

Is an environmental factor or stressor that must be present or absent for an illness to occur?

a)

host

b)

environment

c)

bacteria

d)

causative agent

89.

These are examples of the 5 stages of illness except:

a)

assumption of sick role

b)

medical care contact

c)

independent client care

d)

recovery or rehabilitation

90.

Is the action aimed at eradicating, eliminating, or minimizing the impact of disease and disability?

a)

health promotion

b)

prevention

c)

health consultation

d)

immunization

91.

The hospital administration of CIMC has planned to conduct an annual earthquake and fire drill to ensure that all staff of the hospital are prepared in case of a calamity or incident. What principle is most likely to be applied?

a)

Principle of Total Integrity

b)

Principle of Safety Regulation

c)

Principle of Stewardship

d)

Principle of Double Effect

92.

Mark, a 21-year-old male, has undergone amputation due to a vehicular accident. He has now developed low self-esteem and a negative self-perception because of the accident. What principle is likely to be affected?

a)

Principle of Self Concept

b)

Principle of Totality and Integrity

c)

Principle of Mutilation

d)

Principle of Low Self Esteem

93.

Jemlan was admitted to the hospital due to necrotizing fasciitis on his right leg and became unconscious. The doctor is aware that he needed an immediate amputation to prevent Jemlan from going into sepsis. With that, he performed the amputation without Jemlan’s consent. This procedure will impact the physiological aspect but will surely save his life. What principle is likely involved in this situation?

a)

Principle of Totality

b)

Principle of Stewardship

c)

Principle of Mutilation

d)

Principle of Double Effect

94.

Cantor, a 10-year-old boy, has been asked by his parent if he willingly likes to be circumcised due to health benefits and cultural factors. What principle is likely to be applied in this situation?

a)

Principle of Totality

b)

Principle of Common Good

c)

Principle of Bodily Functional Integrity

d)

Principle of Parental Authority

95.

A process of fertilizing an egg from the patient and sperm from the donor in a petri dish:

a)

In Vivo Fertilization

b)

In Vitro Fertilization

c)

Laboratory Induced Pregnancy

d)

Experimental Fertilization

96.

It describes the highest level of happiness, living a life toward virtuousness:

a)

Human Flourishing

b)

Principle of Happiness

c)

Synodality

d)

Eudaimonia

97.

According to this principle, any form of euthanasia or artificially induced death is contraindicated to God’s will:

a)

Principle of Sacredness

b)

Application of Theological Principle

c)

Principle of Inviolability of Human Life

d)

Autonomy

98.

A form of euthanasia that is considered a pleasant death. It is induced by the refraining of professionals from executing useless interventions for those who have no hope of being saved:

a)

Active Euthanasia

b)

Passive Euthanasia

c)

Partial Euthanasia

d)

Orthothanasia

99.

It is a signed, witnessed (or notarized) document. Most declarations instruct an attending physician to withhold or withdraw medical interventions from its signer if he/she is in a terminal condition and is unable to make decisions about medical treatment:

a)

Living Will

b)

DNR Order

c)

Durable Power of Attorney

d)

Last Will

100.

The attending physician shall communicate the decision for DNR in a written order in the doctor’s order sheet, in the progress notes, and in the official hospital DNR form:

a)

DNR Order

b)

Durable Power of Physician

c)

Physician’s Order

d)

Last Will of Patient

101.

It is called the first menstruation of a female, which usually signals that puberty has now started:

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Menstrual Cycle

c)

Menarche

d)

First Menstrual Flow

102.

If a female client has a menstrual cycle lasting 34 days, on which day of her cycle does ovulation occur?

a)

14th day

b)

28th day

c)

20th day

d)

17th day

103.

What month is quickening likely to be observed?

a)

First Trimester; 3rd month

b)

Second Trimester; 6th month

c)

Second Trimester; 5th month

d)

Third Trimester; 7th month

104.

What is the purpose of the 1st trimester in the growth and development of a fetus?

a)

Formation of physiologic and anatomical structures

b)

Formation of brain matter and heart

c)

Formation of placenta

d)

Focus on growth and development cephalocaudally

105.

It is a type of growth and development wherein development starts from the center (heart) and goes to the extremities:

a)

Cephalocaudal

b)

Proximo-Distal

c)

General to Specific

d)

Regine Velasquez

106.

What hormone causes the Graafian follicle to rupture in the ovary?

a)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Estrogen

107.

Where does fertilization usually occur?

a)

Ampulla

b)

Fimbriae

c)

Isthmus

d)

Infundibulum

108.

The nurse is assessing a 5th-day postpartum mother in a clinic. She asked the patient about the color of the vaginal discharge that the patient observed. What is the expected vaginal discharge to be observed by the nurse?

a)

Lochia Rubra

b)

Lochia Serosa

c)

Lochia Alba

d)

White frothy vaginal discharge

109.

A patient is complaining of pain in the lower extremities accompanied by varicosities in her left leg. The nurse asked the patient to lie down and performed dorsiflexion rapidly, during which the patient felt pressure or tenderness in her left leg, indicating a positive Homan’s sign. What does this test indicate?

a)

Positive varicose vein

b)

Decreased venous return due to gravid uterus

c)

Increased venous pressure

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

110.

A legal basis to promote bonding between the mother and the child after birth:

a)

RA 7600

b)

RA 10152

c)

RA 11210

d)

RA 9262

111.

A pharmacological approach that observes how the body reacts or responds to drugs.

a)

Pharmacodynamics

b)

Pharmacokinetics

c)

Onset of drugs

d)

Drug effectivity

112.

These are medications that have a limited dependency rate and less abuse potential. Example drugs include Ketamine and anabolic steroids.

a)

Scheduled II drugs

b)

Scheduled III drugs

c)

Scheduled IV drugs

d)

Scheduled V drugs

113.

It is a medication that helps lower the blood pressure of the client by inhibiting Angiotensin I from binding with Angiotensin Converting Enzyme.

a)

Losartan

b)

Catapres

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Captopril

114.

A medication that is often used as an anti-inflammatory agent, especially in the airway.

a)

Clarithin

b)

Valsartan

c)

Furosemide

d)

Dexamethasone

115.

A diuretic agent that spares potassium from being filtered out by the kidney in the distal convoluted tubules.

a)

Furosemide

b)

Metolazone

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Mannitol

116.

A patient is admitted to the hospital due to being febrile for 5 days. The physician ordered 250 mg of Paracetamol IV PRN OD. The pharmacy has a stock dose of 50 mg/3 mL in a 10 mL vial. Calculate the initial dose volume of the medication for the patient.

a)

5 mL

b)

15 mL

c)

30 mL

d)

50 mL

117.

The physician prescribed the patient Amoxicillin 40,000 mcg/kg/day PO TID. The patient weighs 230 lbs. The stock on hand of Amoxicillin is 450 mg/tab. How many tablets will you give to your patient, and how many tablets will you give at each interval?

a)

9 tablets; 3 tablets per interval

b)

12 tablets; 4 tablets per interval

c)

9 tablets at once

d)

12 tablets; 4 caplets per interval

118.

Following the interval in the previous question, how many minutes is the interval of the medication?

a)

180 minutes

b)

240 minutes

c)

300 minutes

d)

480 minutes

119.

A 3.1 L 0.9% isotonic solution is to be given to a pediatric client using a microset, ordered to run for 8.5 hours. What is the drop factor of the infusion?

a)

362 ugtts/min

b)

363 ugtts/min

c)

364 gtts/min

d)

365 ugtts/min

120.

Fastest way to deliver medication.

a)

IM

b)

IV

c)

PO

d)

Subq