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NEUR 3001 UNIT 1

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. Histone methylation causes euchromatin to open for transcription

b)
  1. Alternative splicing allows the same gene to make different variations of a protein

c)
  1. Exons are removed, and introns are kept during mRNA processing

d)
  1. Paracrine signaling is when two neighboring neurons are touching (an electrical synapse, for example)

e)
  1. Neurotransmitters are expelled from a neuron via endocytosis

2.

What is an SRP?

a)

Serine RNA Peptide – an amino acid that can be used to construct proteins

b)

Serine Receptor Particle – a protein that binds serine during protein trafficking in the Golgi apparatus

c)

Single RNA Polymerase – the protein responsible for beginning to replicate mRNA

d)

Single Ribosome Protein – a type of protein that only needs one ribosome to be produced

e)

Signal Recognition Particle – used in Translocation to the rough ER

3.

If vowels are introns and consonants are exons, which is an example of alternate splicing if the original DNA was: K I T T Y C A T?

a)
  1. K T T Y C T vs K I T T Y C A T

b)
  1. K I T T Y vs C A T

c)
  1. K T T Y vs K C T

d)
  1. K T T Y vs D G

e)
  1. K T T Y C T vs C T K T T Y

4.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

Microfilaments are for transport over long distances

b)

Neurofilaments are involved in organelle transport

c)

Dynein is a molecular motor that travels along microtubules in a retrograde direction

d)

Fast axon transport is for proteins only

e)

Microtubules are aligned so that the (+) and (-) are mixed in axons, but all point the same direction in dendrites

5.

What is Local Protein Synthesis?

a)

Movement of mRNA to the ER

b)

The process of transporting proteins down the axon towards the synapse

c)

The process of making proteins in dendrites/dendritic spines

d)

The process of making proteins in the synapse

e)
  1. The process of making proteins only within the cell that needs them (heart proteins im heart cells and neuron proteins in neurons)

6.

Which statement is correct?

I. Sodium ions move uninterrupted through the protein without a gate

II. Oxygen moves uninterrupted across the membrane

III. In the Sodium-Potassium Pump, 3 sodiums are exchanged for 2 potassiums

a)
  1. I & II are examples of facilitated diffusion

b)
  1. I-III are all examples of passive diffusion

c)
  1. I & III are both ion channels

d)
  1. I is a pore/leaky ion channel & III is a carrier

e)
  1. III is an example of secondary active transport

7.

Which of the following is FALSE/Incorrect?

a)
  1. Microglia are involved in synaptic pruning

b)
  1. Glial cells can release gliotransmitters or chemical messengers that alter synapses

c)
  1. Glial cells lack VGSC and therefore cannot send electrical signals/fire action potentials

d)
  1. Myelin in the CNS is composed of different protein types compared to Myelin in the PNS

e)
  1. There are only 6 types of glial cells

8.

Which term/definition pair is incorrect?

a)
  1. Astrocyte – helps form new synapses & provides nutrients in the CNS

b)
  1. Microglia – CNS immune-system, clears debris

c)
  1. Satellite Cells – PNS cushion/support/nutrition to DRG/soma

d)
  1. Ependymal Glia – PNS, found exclusively in the gastro-intestinal tract

e)
  1. Oligodendrocyte – CNS myelination

9.

How are voltage-gated potassium channels able to select for only K+ ions?

a)
  1. A strongly negative core repels Cl- ions and attracts positive ions

b)
  1. A selectivity filter selects for only K+ ions (Ca2+ and Na+ cannot bind)

c)
  1. The potassium ion channel is too small to select for any ions other than K+ (ex: Na+ ions cannot fit)

d)
  1. The aqueous pore selects for only K+ ions

e)
  1. There is a K+ bind site domain that selects for only K+ ions

10.

How are voltage-gated sodium channels able to select for only Na+ ions?

a)
  1. A strongly negative core repels Cl- ions and attracts positive ions

b)
  1. A selectivity filter selects for only Na+ ions (Ca2+ cannot bind despite being similar sized)

c)
  1. The sodium ion channel is too small to select for larger ions (ex: all other ions cannot fit)

d)
  1. The aqueous pore selects for only Na+ ions

e)
  1. There is a Na+ bind site domain that selects for only Na+ ions

11.

How can NMDA receptors be non-selective, allowing any positive ion (Na+, K+ , and Ca2+) to enter?

a)
  1. A selectivity filter repels Cl- ions and attracts positive ions

b)
  1. A selectivity filter selects for only Na+, K+ , and Ca2+ ions only

c)
  1. NMDA is too small for Cl- ions to enter

d)
  1. The large aqueous pore lined with negative charges allows all + ions to enter while repelling - ions

e)
  1. There is a Na+, K+, and Ca2+ bind site domain that selects for only K+ ions

12.

List all the factors that contribute to the rate at which ions will diffuse across a membrane using facilitated diffusion?

a)

The concentration gradient of the ion across the membrane

b)

The number of transport proteins/channels available in the membrane

c)

The binding affinity of the transport protein for the ion

d)

The membrane potential (electrical gradient) across the membrane

e)

The size and shape of the cell nucleus

13.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

Electrical synapses signal using voltage, chemical synapses signal using ion channels

b)
  1. An electrical synapse can pass a graded potential from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron without an AP

c)
  1. Chemical synapses happen instantly, while electric synapses are delayed

d)
  1. Chemical synapses contain receptors such as connexons

14.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. Inhibition is most successful when it is initiated in the dendrites

b)
  1. EPSPs are mostly initiated in the dendritic shafts, not the dendritic spines

c)
  1. Dendritic synapses tend to always be excitatory

d)
  1. Axo-axonic synapses are involved in modulating neurotransmitter release

15.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

Primary Active Transport is used to make a concentration gradient of H+ ions within vesicles

b)

SNAP-25 and Syntaxin are V-SNARES

c)

.Synoptobrevin is the protein responsible for sensing rising intracellular calcium and signaling for vesicle fusion/neurotransmitter release

d)

VGLUT transports glutamine from the synaptic cleft back into glia and neuron cells as part of reuptake

e)
  1. Acetylcholinesterase transports acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft back into glia and neuron cells as part of reuptake

16.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. SNARE complexes include: Synaptobrevin, SNAP-25, & clathrin

b)
  1. Exocytosis releases neurotransmitters & endocytosis takes them back in

c)
  1. VGLUT transports glutamate from the synapse back into the pre-synaptic neuron or glia cell

d)
  1. Increased intracellular Ca2+ drives the release of synaptic Vesicles (and this is the slow step)

e)
  1. SLC6 transports GABA into a synaptic vesicle using the gradient produced by H+ proton pumps

17.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

Histamine is a type of neurotransmitter commonly involved in learning & memory

b)

GABA only causes hyperpolarization via an influx of Cl- ions

c)

Serotonin binds only to ionotropic receptors

d)

Neuropeptides are the most commonly used neurotransmitters

e)

Glutamate can act on only ionotropic receptors (AMPA and NMDA)

18.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

Histamine is a type of neurotransmitter commonly involved in learning & memory

b)

GABA only causes hyperpolarization via an influx of Cl- ions

c)

Serotonin binds only to ionotropic receptors

d)

Neuropeptides are the most commonly used neurotransmitters

e)

Glutamate can act on only ionotropic receptors (AMPA and NMDA)

19.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. GPCRs commonly use Ras/MAPK while RTKs use PKA/cAMP as secondary messangers

b)
  1. Kinases remove phosphates, and phosphatases add phosphates

c)
  1. RTKs are receptors involved in growth/development/survival, also known as Trks (during neuro-development)

d)
  1. GPCRs, RTKs, and TLRs bind neurotransmitters

e)
  1. All metabotropic receptors are GPCRs

20.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. GPCRs also called six transmembrane proteins

b)
  1. 5-HT receptors are a family of ionotropic and metabotropic receptors that bind serotonin to produce excitatory, inhibitory, or modulatory effects

c)
  1. Neuropeptides are initially transported to the synapse using axonal transport where they are then readily recycled after use

d)
  1. You can predict if a neurotransmitter is excitatory, inhibitory, or modulatory just by its name/type

e)
  1. Most neurons can only release a single neurotransmitter from all of their synapses and they cannot ever release more than one neurotransmitter from the same synapse

21.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. G Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCRs) are a type of ion channel protein

b)
  1. GPCR alpha, beta, and gamma subunits all detach from one another and disperse using 3 different signaling pathways

c)
  1. There are four types of Gα subunits, each with their own unique signaling pathway

d)
  1. β-Arrestin, GRKs, etc. bind to the GPCR to excite/increase its signaling

e)
  1. The Gα subunit of a GPCR is bound to ATP/ADP

22.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. NMDAr receptors open before AMPAr, which only open in response to depolarization

b)
  1. AMPAr and NMDAr are both GABA receptors

c)
  1. NMDAr has a calcium block

d)
  1. AMPAr signals primarily with calcium, while NMDAr does not

e)
  1. NMDA receptors can trigger either Long-Term Depression or Potentiation based on how much calcium they let through

23.

Which of the following is NOT a graded potential?

a)

IPSP

b)
  1. Stimuli Potential

c)
  1. Receptor Potential

d)
  1. Post Synaptic Potential

e)
  1. Generator Potential

24.

Which of the following is true/correct

a)
  1. Both graded potentials and action potentials primarily use voltage-gated channels

b)
  1. Dendritic action potentials use ligand-gated ionotropic receptors to fire

c)
  1. Action potentials can (sometimes) use backpropagation to move backwards into the soma and dendrites

d)
  1. End-Plate Potentials (EPPs) occur in the pre- synaptic sensory neuron

e)
  1. Similar to Graded Potentials, Action Potentials in the axon sum spatially and temporally

25.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. A single EPSP is enough to generate an AP

b)
  1. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors utilize secondary active transport

c)
  1. mEPPs occur when smaller amounts of ACh are released into the synaptic cleft in the absence of an action potential

d)
  1. EPPs are excitatory or inhibitory

e)
  1. Acetylcholine reuptake transporters are responsible for transporting acetylcholine back into the pre-synaptic neuron and are the main mechanism for clearing it from the synaptic cleft

26.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)
  1. Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple neurons

b)
  1. A single EPP is large enough to trigger an AP

c)
  1. VGSC are directly responsible for triggering muscle contractions

d)
  1. The basil lamina is part of the cytoskeletal matrix

e)
  1. VGSC are located at the top of the junctional folds

27.

Which of the following proteins is a v-SNARE, and what is its primary function?

a)

Synaptobrevin – docks and fuses synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane for neurotransmitter release via exocytosis

b)

SNAP-25 – acts as a v-SNARE and docks vesicles for neurotransmitter release

c)

Syntaxin – acts as a v-SNARE and fuses vesicles with the presynaptic membrane

d)

Synaptotagmin – acts as a v-SNARE and senses calcium to trigger vesicle release

e)

Clathrin – acts as a v-SNARE involved in vesicle docking and recycling

28.

When a depolarizing stimulus arrives at the axon terminal, which type of channels open to trigger neurotransmitter release?

a)

Voltage-gated sodium channels

b)

Voltage-gated potassium channels

c)

Voltage-gated calcium channels

d)

Ligand-gated chloride channels

e)

Proton (H⁺) pumps

29.

While at rest, which cellular molecule is bound to the G-protein complex?

a)

GDP

b)

cAMP

c)

Ca2+

d)

ATP

e)

GTP

30.

Which of the following best describes the processes of transcription and translation?

a)

DNA is copied into mRNA during transcription, and mRNA is read by ribosomes to assemble amino acids into proteins during translation.

b)

mRNA is copied into DNA during transcription, and DNA is read by ribosomes to make proteins during translation.

c)

DNA is translated directly into proteins, and RNA only serves as an energy source.

d)

mRNA is made in the cytoplasm during transcription, and proteins are made in the nucleus during translation.

e)

RNA is transcribed into proteins, and those proteins are translated into DNA.

31.

Which of the following best summarizes how proteins are produced, regulated, and transported in a cell?

a)

Proteins are made in the mitochondria, regulated by lysosomes, and transported through endocytosis.

b)

Proteins are synthesized by ribosomes (in the cytoplasm or on the rough ER), regulated by transcription/translation control, and transported via the ER–Golgi pathway or within the cytoplasm.

c)

Proteins are synthesized directly from DNA in the Golgi apparatus, regulated by mRNA splicing, and transported only by vesicles.

d)

Proteins are produced in the smooth ER, regulated by the cytoskeleton, and transported by diffusion only.

e)

Proteins are produced outside the cell, imported by endocytosis, regulated by the plasma membrane, and stored in the nucleus.

32.

Why might genes need to be turned on or off in cells?

a)

To ensure all genes are always active in every cell at the same time

b)

To allow cells to specialize, respond to environmental changes, and conserve energy/resources

c)

To permanently delete unnecessary DNA from the genome

d)

To allow proteins to directly convert into RNA when needed

e)

To prevent transcription and translation from ever happening in differentiated cells

33.

Which of the following correctly compares euchromatin and heterochromatin?

a)

Euchromatin is tightly packed and transcriptionally inactive, while heterochromatin is loosely packed and transcriptionally active

b)

Euchromatin is loosely packed and transcriptionally active, while heterochromatin is tightly packed and generally transcriptionally inactive.

c)

Both euchromatin and heterochromatin are tightly packed, but only heterochromatin allows transcription.

d)

Euchromatin is found only in prokaryotes, while heterochromatin is found only in eukaryotes

e)

Euchromatin and heterochromatin are both permanently inactive DNA storage regions

34.

Which of the following correctly describes the effect of histone acetylation and deacetylation on chromatin structure and gene expression?

a)

Histone acetylation (HATs) tightens chromatin and decreases transcription, while HDACs loosen chromatin and increase transcription

b)

istone acetylation (HATs) loosens chromatin and increases transcription, while HDACs tighten chromatin and decrease transcription.

c)

Both HATs and HDACs permanently activate all genes in the cell

d)

HATs and HDACs are involved in adding/removing methyl groups on DNA, not histones

e)

Histone acetylation and deacetylation have no effect on transcription; they only affect DNA replication

35.

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between rough ER and smooth ER?

a)

Rough ER is involved in lipid synthesis, smooth ER has ribosomes and synthesizes proteins

b)

Rough ER has ribosomes and synthesizes proteins, smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification

c)

Both rough and smooth ER have ribosomes and primarily synthesize DN

d)

Smooth ER packages proteins into vesicles, rough ER detoxifies chemicals.

e)

Rough ER is found only in prokaryotes, smooth ER only in eukaryotes.

36.

Which of the following best describes the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Synthesizes all cellular proteins

b)

Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for transport

c)

Generates ATP for energy

d)

Breaks down cellular waste via enzymes

e)

Maintains cytoskeleton structure

37.

Ribosomes are primarily responsible for:

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Lipid metabolism

d)

Packaging proteins for secretion

e)

Maintaining cell shape

38.

Cytoplasm vs Cytosol:

a)

Cytoplasm = everything inside the cell including organelles; Cytosol = the fluid portion without organelles

b)

Cytoplasm = only organelles; Cytosol = DNA + RNA

c)

Cytoplasm = fluid only; Cytosol = entire cell interior

d)

Cytoplasm and Cytosol are exactly the same

e)

Cytoplasm = nucleus; Cytosol = mitochondria

39.

Endosomes are primarily involved in:

a)

ATP production

b)

Transporting and sorting endocytosed material within the cell

c)

Synthesizing proteins

d)

Breaking down waste material

e)

Maintaining cytoskeletal structure

40.

Lysosomes are best described as:

a)

Protein synthesis sites

b)

Digestive organelles that break down macromolecules and cellular waste using hydrolytic enzymes

c)

Lipid storage vesicles

d)

Ribosome assembly centers

e)

Structures that package proteins for secretion

41.

The cytoskeleton’s main functions include

a)

Maintaining cell shape, providing mechanical support, and enabling intracellular transport and movement

b)

Synthesizing proteins

c)

Packaging and modifying proteins

d)

Generating ATP

e)

Storing calcium

42.

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Endocytosis releases materials from the cell, while exocytosis brings materials into the cell

b)

Endocytosis brings materials into the cell via vesicles, while exocytosis releases materials from the cell via vesicles

c)

Both endocytosis and exocytosis only move ions, not macromolecules

d)

Exocytosis occurs only in neurons, while endocytosis occurs only in immune cells

e)

Endocytosis is passive, while exocytosis is an active process

43.

Transcription is the process by which:

a)

DNA is copied into mRNA by RNA polymerase

b)

mRNA is read by ribosomes to make proteins

c)

Proteins are transported into the ER

d)

DNA is replicated before cell division

e)

Amino acids are linked to tRNA

44.

Translation is the process by which

a)

DNA is transcribed into RNA

b)

Ribosomes read mRNA to assemble amino acids into a protein

c)

Proteins are folded in the ER

d)

mRNA is transported out of the nucleus

e)

tRNA is synthesized

45.

Protein translocation refers to:

a)

The synthesis of mRNA from DNA

b)

The movement of proteins to their correct cellular location, such as into the ER, mitochondria, or secretory pathway

c)

Translation of DNA into RNA

d)

Degradation of misfolded proteins

e)

Splicing of introns from pre-mRNA

46.

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between introns and exons?

a)

Exons are non-coding regions that are removed during RNA processing, while introns are coding regions kept in mRNA.

b)

Introns are coding regions that are translated into protein, while exons are non-coding regions removed from pre-mRNA.

c)

Exons are coding regions kept in the mRNA and translated into protein, while introns are non-coding regions removed during RNA processing.

d)

Both introns and exons are coding regions and remain in the final mRNA.

e)

Introns are only found in prokaryotes, while exons are only found in eukaryotes.

47.

Which of the following correctly matches the type of cell signaling with its description?

a)

Endocrine – signaling molecules are released into the bloodstream to affect distant cells; Autocrine – signals act on the same cell that secreted them; Paracrine – signals affect nearby neighboring cells; Juxtacrine – signals require direct contact between cells.

b)

Endocrine – signals affect nearby cells only; Autocrine – signals affect distant cells; Paracrine – signals act on the same cell; Juxtacrine – signals are secreted into the bloodstream.

c)

Endocrine – signals act only on the same cell; Autocrine – signals act on neighboring cells; Paracrine – signals act on distant cells; Juxtacrine – signals are free-floating in extracellular fluid.

d)

Endocrine – requires direct cell contact; Autocrine – acts on distant cells; Paracrine – signals are released into the bloodstream; Juxtacrine – signals act on the same cell.

e)

Endocrine – signals degrade immediately; Autocrine – signals travel long distances; Paracrine – signals are only hormones; Juxtacrine – signals are neurotransmitters only.

48.

Which of the following correctly describes the direction of axonal transport by motor proteins?

a)

Dynein moves cargo anterograde toward the axon terminal (+ end), Kinesin moves cargo retrograde toward the soma (− end).

b)

Both Dynein and Kinesin move cargo only toward the soma (− end).

c)

Both Dynein and Kinesin move cargo only toward the axon terminal (+ end).

d)

Dynein moves cargo retrograde toward the soma (− end), Kinesin moves cargo anterograde toward the axon terminal (+ end)

e)

Dynein moves cargo randomly, Kinesin moves cargo in a circular pattern along microtubules

49.

What is the rate-limiting step for facilitated diffusion when there is a small concentration gradient?

a)
  1. Nothing – growth is linear based on concentration

b)
  1. The type of ion/neurotransmitter being transported

c)
  1. The thickness of the membrane

d)
  1. The number of ion/neurotransmitter channels

50.

Choose the correct order of events:

a)

translation - transcription - translocation - rough ER - golgi - endocytosis

b)

transcription - translation -translocation - rough ER - golgi - exocytosis

c)

transcription - translocation - translation - rough ER - golgi - endocytosis

d)

translation - transcription - translocation - smooth ER - golgi - exocytosis

51.

T or F: Euchromatin is 'open' due to methylation

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is an SRP (signal recognition particle)

a)

A molecule that tags proteins for degradation (lysis)

b)

An enzyme that synthesizes ribosomal RNA (translation)

c)

A complex that directs proteins to the ER (translocation)

d)

A protein that helps open mRNA for transcription

53.

What is the primary function of clathrin in cells?

a)

A protein that transports mRNA to ribosomes

b)

A protein that 'pinches off' vesicles during assembly to close them/ release them into the cytoplasm

c)

A type of motor protein that moves vesicles from the soma to axons

d)

A coat protein onvolced in vesicle formation and transport (tells the vesicle where to go)

54.

If you wanted to find newly made secretory proteins (neurotransmitters) that are in their final quaternary structure but are not yet in the synapse where would be the best place to look

a)

nucleus

b)

smooth ER

c)

rough ER

d)

cytoplasm

e)

golgi apparatus

55.

Suppose there is a DNA strand made up of the following introns/exons: Intron1 Exon1 Intron2 Exon2 Exon3 Intron3 Exon4 Exon5

Which of the following is an example of alternative splicing?

a)

Intron1 Intron2 vs Intron1 Intron3

b)

Exon1Exon2

c)

Intron1 Intron2 Intron 3 vs Exon1 Exon2 Exon3 Exon4

d)

Exon1 Exon2 Exon3 Exon4 Exon5 vs Exon1 Exon2 Exon3 Exon4 Exon5

e)

Exon2 Exon4 vs Exon1 Exon3 Exon5

56.

Which of the following glial cells predominantly make up the PNS?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Schwann Cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

e)

Satellite cells

57.

T or F: Ogliodendrocytes are glial cells that wrap around a single segment of a single neuron's axon to provide myelination

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What is an integrin?

a)

Molecules that break down and rebuild microtubules

b)

Proteins that help the cell undergo exocytosis (a type of molecular motor)

c)

Proteins embedded in the plasma membrane that help with autocrine signaling

d)

Environment sensing protein that helps anchor cells to the ECM

59.

Which of the following can directly diffuse through the cell membrane?

a)

ions

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen

e)

neurotransmitters

60.

Which is the closest?

a)

channels

b)

pores

c)

carriers

61.

Which of the following is the correct order from largest to smallest?

a)

microfilament > neurofilament > mictrotubule

b)

microtubule > microfilament > neurofilament

c)

neurofilament > microfilament > microtubule

d)

microtubule > neurofilament > microfilament

62.

T or F: ER/Golgi exist in dendrites, allowing them to make proteins locally. However axons lack ER/Golgi.

a)

False

b)

True

63.

when thinking about how oxygen diffuses across the membrane, the relationship between the rate of diffusion and the amount of oxygen available is

a)

linear

b)

logarithmic

64.

T or F: Na+ ions are larger than K+ ions

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What is responsible for ensuring that K+ ions and not Na+ ions move through VGKC

a)

ion pore

b)

size of the ion channel

c)

charge of the ion channel

d)

selectivity filter

66.

what is a selectivity filter?

a)

a pore that allows water but not ions through

b)

a structure that determines which ions pass

c)

to detect membrane voltage fluctuations

d)

a region that blocks ions using cellular energy

67.

which ion channel state is improperly matched?

a)

inactive = refractory

b)

resting = plugged

c)

open = active

d)

resting = closed

68.

What equilibrium potential is the resting membrane potential of a neuron typically closest to?

a)

potassium

b)

sodium

c)

calcium

69.

At rest which ions are found primarily inside the neuron at rest? (mark all that applies)

a)

K+

b)

Ca 2+

c)

Cl-

d)

Na+

70.

Which of the following is true/correct?

a)

a strong stimulus will produce more depolarization within an AP

b)

graded potentials do not decay over time

c)

a single EPP is enough to generate an action potential

d)

a single EPSP can trigger aan AP in a post-synaptic cell

e)

a stimulus potential is a type of graded potential generated by a stimulus

71.

what does glutamate do when it binds to its receptor? Why?

a)

generates an EPSP because it allows anions to enter the neuron

b)

generates an IPSP because it allows cations to enter the neuron

c)

Generates a graded potential because it allows for cations to enter the neuron

d)

generates an IPSP because it allows anions to enter the neuron

e)

generates an action potential because it allows cations to enter the neuron

72.

which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?

a)

histamine

b)

neuropeptides

c)

noradrenaline

d)

cadherin

e)

seratonin

73.

How are neurotransmitter cleared form the synaptic cleft? (mark all that apply)

a)

exocytosis

b)

degradation via enzymes

c)

reuptake by transporters

d)

endocytosis

74.

which of the following is a v-snare?

a)

synaptobrevin

b)

complexin

c)

SNAP-25

d)

synaptotagmin

e)

syntaxin

75.

When you see V-SNARE, VGLUT, or V-ATPase. What does the V stand for?

4 lines
76.

which synapse is likely inhibitory? (mark all that apply)

a)

grays type II

b)

axoaxonic

c)

grays type I

d)

axosomatic

e)

dendritic shaft (axodendritic)

77.

for a multipolar neuron. which synapse is most likely modulatory?

a)

axosomatic

b)

axodendritic

c)

axoaxonic

78.

which is most likely to be modulatory?

a)

metabotropic receptors

b)

ionotropic receptors

79.

WHat is the difference between AMPA and NMDA receptors?

a)

NMDA receptors allow calcium into the cell

b)

NMDA receptors have a magnesium block

c)

AMPA receptors have a magnesium block

d)

AMPA receptors allow calcium into the cell

e)

AMPA are ionotropic and NMDA are metabotropic

80.

What is located at the top of junctional folds?

a)

VGSC

b)

both nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and VGCC

c)

VGCC

d)

nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

81.

Dynamin is primarily involved in:

a)

Forming a protein coat on vesicles

b)

Scission of vesicles from the plasma membrane

c)

Vesicle fusion with the Golgi

d)

Cargo selection for vesicles

82.

Which statement correctly distinguishes spatial summation from temporal summation at a postsynaptic neuron?

a)

Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons fire simultaneously, while temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron fires repeatedly over time.

b)

Temporal summation occurs from multiple neurons firing at the same time, while spatial summation is from one neuron firing repeatedly.

c)

Spatial summation always produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, while temporal summation always produces excitatory postsynaptic potentials

d)

Temporal summation requires summation of graded potentials from different synapses on different neurons, while spatial summation requires only one synapse.

83.

Which statement correctly distinguishes the activation zone from the trigger zone in a neuron?

a)

The activation zone is where graded potentials are generated, while the trigger zone is where an action potential is initiated.

b)

The trigger zone is located on the dendrites, while the activation zone is at the axon hillock.

c)

Both zones are sites where action potentials are propagated along the axon.

d)

The activation zone integrates incoming signals, while the trigger zone generates neurotransmitters

e)

The trigger zone can generate graded potentials, while the activation zone only generates action potentials

84.

Which statement correctly distinguishes VGLUT, SLC transporters, and V-ATPase in synaptic vesicles?

a)

VGLUT moves ions across the membrane, SLC transporters pump protons, and V-ATPase packages glutamate into vesicle

b)

SLC transporters and VGLUT both pump protons to generate a gradient, while V-ATPase moves neurotransmitters

c)

VGLUT packages glutamate into vesicles, SLC transporters move specific neurotransmitters or ions across membranes, and V-ATPase pumps protons to create a proton gradient

d)

All three function identically to move calcium into vesicles

85.

Which statement correctly distinguishes V-SNAREs from T-SNAREs?

a)

V-SNAREs are located on the vesicle membrane, while T-SNAREs are located on the target membrane

b)

T-SNAREs are located on vesicles, while V-SNAREs are on the plasma membrane

c)

Both V-SNAREs and T-SNAREs hydrolyze ATP to drive vesicle fusio

d)

V-SNAREs detect calcium, while T-SNAREs form the vesicle coat

86.

Which of the following is true about graded potentials?

a)

They are all-or-none events that propagate along the axon

b)

Their amplitude depends on the strength of the stimulus

c)

They always trigger neurotransmitter release

d)

They occur only at the axon hillock

87.

Which statement describes the resting potential?

a)

It is a temporary depolarization caused by synaptic input

b)

It is the stable membrane potential of a neuron at rest, typically around -70 m

c)

It is generated by action potentials propagating along the dendrite

d)

It only occurs during excitatory postsynaptic potentials

88.

How do action potentials differ from graded potentials?

a)

Action potentials vary in amplitude with stimulus strength

b)

Graded potentials are all-or-none, while action potentials are not

c)

Action potentials propagate without decrement along the axon, while graded potentials decay with distance

d)

Both are always inhibitory signals

89.

What is the primary role of the node of Ranvier

a)

It forms the vesicle fusion machinery for neurotransmitter release.

b)

It regenerates action potentials by exposing voltage-gated Na⁺ channels.

c)

It passively conducts graded potentials along the axon without regeneration.

d)

It stores calcium ions for synaptic transmission

90.

What is saltatory conduction?

a)

Continuous propagation of an action potential along an unmyelinated axon.

b)

Action potentials jumping from node to node along a myelinated axon.

c)

Passive diffusion of ions across the axon membrane.

d)

The slowing of action potentials in myelinated axons.

91.

Which fiber type is myelinated and conducts the fastest action potentials?

a)

Delta fibers

b)

C fibers

c)

Alpha fibers

d)

beta fibers

92.

Which fiber type primarily carries touch and pressure information?

a)

delta fibers

b)

beta fibers

c)

c fibers

d)

alpha fibers

93.

which fiber type transmits fast, sharp pain?

a)

alpha fibers

b)

beta fibers

c)

delta fibers

d)

c fibers

94.

Which fiber type is unmyelinated and transmits slow, dull, aching pain?

a)

c fibers

b)

delta fibers

c)

alpha fibers

d)

beta fibers

95.

Which statement correctly ranks conduction velocity from fastest to slowest?

a)

C > Delta > Beta > Alpha

b)

Alpha > Beta > Delta > C

c)

Delta > Alpha > C > Beta

d)

Beta > Alpha > Delta > C

96.

Which statement is correct?

a)

EPSPs occur at CNS synapses; EPPs occur at the NMJ; MEPPs are miniature, spontaneous EPPs

b)

EPPs are always inhibitory, while EPSPs are excitatory

c)

MEPPs are graded potentials in glial cells

d)

EPSPs, EPPs, and MEPPs are all identical and indistinguishable

97.

Which statement correctly distinguishes these channels/receptors?

a)

nAChRs are ligand-gated cation channels; VGSCs are voltage-gated Na⁺ channels; VGCCs are voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channel

b)

VGCCs detect acetylcholine, VGSCs detect GABA, nAChRs detect calcium.

c)

All three channels are metabotropic GPCRs

d)

VGSCs mediate synaptic vesicle release directly

98.

Which neurotransmitter is the main excitatory transmitter in the CNS

a)

Glycine

b)

Glutamate

c)

GABA

d)

Serotonin

99.

Which neurotransmitter is the main inhibitory transmitter in the brain?

a)

dopamine

b)

GABA

c)

histamine

d)

acetylcholine

100.

Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory transmitter in the spinal cord?

a)

Glycine

b)

Glutamate

c)

Dopamine

d)

Norepinephrine

101.

Which neurotransmitter is both excitatory at the NMJ and modulatory in the CNS?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

endorphins

c)

histamine

d)

serotonin

102.

Which neurotransmitter is a neuropeptide that reduces pain?

a)

edorphins

b)

dopamine

c)

glutamate

d)

GABA

103.

Which statement correctly distinguishes synaptic integration from synaptic modulation?

a)

Synaptic integration is the summing of inputs (EPSPs/IPSPs) to decide firing, while synaptic modulation alters synaptic strength or efficiency

b)

Integration always inhibits signals, modulation always excites

c)

Integration occurs at axon terminals, modulation only at dendrites

d)

Modulation is all-or-none, while integration is graded

104.

Which receptor requires both glutamate binding and depolarization to relieve Mg²⁺ block?

a)

AMPA

b)

NMDA

c)

mGluR

d)

5-HT

105.

Which is a metabotropic receptor?

a)

AMPA

b)

NMDA

c)

mGluR

d)

All are ionotropic

106.

Which statement correctly distinguishes fast vs slow EPSPs?

a)

Fast EPSPs use ionotropic receptors (like AMPA), slow EPSPs use metabotropic receptors (like mGluR)

b)

Slow EPSPs always involve Na⁺ influx, while fast EPSPs always involve K⁺ efflux.

c)

Both are mediated by GPCRs

d)

Fast EPSPs are inhibitory, slow EPSPs are excitator

107.

Which is true?

a)

Excitatory synapses depolarize, inhibitory hyperpolarize, modulatory alter signal strength via metabotropic pathways

b)

Inhibitory synapses always use glutamate

c)

Excitatory synapses only occur in the spinal cord

d)

Modulatory synapses cannot change excitability

108.

Which statement correctly distinguishes ionotropic from metabotropic receptors?

a)

Ionotropic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels (fast), metabotropic use GPCRs/second messengers (slow)

b)

Ionotropic receptors are always slower than metabotropic

c)

Both are GPCRs

d)

Metabotropic receptors never alter excitability

109.

Which is true?

a)

GPCRs use G-proteins and second messengers, RTKs (like Trk) dimerize and autophosphorylate, TLRs detect pathogens and activate immune responses

b)

GPCRs are always ion channels, RTKs are GTPases, TLRs mediate synaptic transmission

c)

Trk/RTK and TLRs are only found in muscle

d)

GPCRs directly phosphorylate tyrosine residues

110.

Which statement correctly distinguishes alpha vs beta-gamma subunits?

a)

Alpha subunits form pores, beta-gamma subunits bind neurotransmitters

b)

Both only regulate calcium channels

c)

Alpha subunits bind GTP/GDP and regulate enzymes, while beta-gamma subunits can regulate ion channels and signaling pathways

d)

Beta-gamma subunits hydrolyze GTP directly

111.

Which is correct about arrestins and GRKs?

a)

GRKs phosphorylate activated GPCRs, arrestins bind phosphorylated GPCRs to desensitize them

b)

Arrestins phosphorylate GPCRs, GRKs block receptor signaling

c)

Both activate G-protein signaling

d)

Neither plays a role in receptor desensitization

112.

Which of the following are true/correct (select all that apply)

a)

Flick's Law explains simple diffusion rates

b)

The rate of simple diffusion will increase linear with the amount of solute/chemical to be diffused

c)

The rate of facilitated diffusion will increase linear with the amount of solute/chemical to be diffused

d)

if there is very little solute/chemical to be diffused then, during facilitated diffusion the rate will move almost linearly

e)

the micahelis-mendelson equation explains simple diffusion rates

113.

Which of the following is true/correct

a)

RTK are cell surface rceptors

b)

The only effective way to modulate a synapse is to alter its EPSPs

c)

Kinases remove phosphates

d)

All metabotropic receptors are GPCRs

e)

GPCRs use MAPK while RTKs use PKA

114.

which of the following is true/correct

a)

NTs often bind to both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors

b)

All NTs can be locally synthesized

c)

Glutamate receptors are predominantly located in dendritic shafts

d)

Synaptic vesicle fusion with the cell membrane is the 'slow' step that keeps chemical synapses from moving faster

e)

At the axon intiial segmetn the treshold for generating an AP is around -35mV

115.

What do glycoproteins, glycolipids, and the glycocalyx do?

a)

these are proteins that are embedded into the cell membrane to aid in cell recognition and adhesion (part of the extracellular matrix)

b)

these are secondary messengers involved in mediating signaling cascaded

c)

these are involved in helping proteins to properly become folded within the ER and Golgi apparatus

d)

these are involved in retrograde transport

116.

which is not a cell adhesion molecule

a)

calmodulin

b)

selectin

c)

cadherin

d)

integrin

e)

immunoglobin