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Chapter 6 and 7: Obstetric and Regional oxfords

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 4hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Uterine contractility tone is affected by anesthetic agents and techniques in all of the following ways EXCEPT

a)

Uterine tone is not affected by muscle relaxants.

b)

Volatile inhalation agents have a dose-dependent relaxant effect.

c)

Uterine tone is reduced by epidural local anesthetic sympathetic blockade, which is why labor is longer with epidural analgesia.

d)

Opioids do not have any effect on uterine contractions.

e)

Nitrous oxide has minimal effect on uterine contractions and tone.

2.

Common clinical events that affect uterine blood flow in the term parturient during labor and delivery include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Uterine blood flow is decreased in most parturients when supine due to aortocaval compression.

b)

Uterine blood flow can be increased in about 15% of parturients when supine due to the uterine arteries taking off above the level of compression of the aorta.

c)

Uterine blood flow decreases when maternal systolic blood pressure drops below 8080 mm Hg.

d)

Effective epidural analgesia can increase uterine blood flow in the parturient with severe preeclampsia by up to 80%80\% .

e)

Maternal hypocapnia from hyperventilation causes uterine artery vasoconstriction, resulting in decreased blood flow.

3.

A 26-year-old G1P0 parturient at term delivers a 3,5003{,}500 -g boy vaginally. After 30 minutes the obstetrician is concerned that the placenta has not yet delivered. The patient is transferred to an operating room and positioned for manual extraction of the placenta. After the placenta is removed, the obstetrician notices brisk uterine bleeding. All of the following medications would be contraindicated in the specific condition identified EXCEPT

a)

Methylergonovine, 200200 micrograms IM: Severe preeclampsia

b)

Carboprost (15-methyl-PGF2α), 250250 micrograms IM: History of severe asthma

c)

Oxytocin, 1010 units IV: Uncorrected maternal hypovolemia

d)

Misoprostol, 1,0001{,}000 micrograms: Maternal fever

e)

All of the above are appropriate contraindications.

4.

A 20-year-old G1P0 parturient at 32 weeks gestation with no medical problems was in a high-speed motor vehicle accident. She was wearing a seatbelt and has only abrasions on her face and chest. On arrival to the emergency department she is awake and alert. Maternal vital signs are BP 100/60100/60 , HR 120120 , RR 2020 . Fetal heart rate evaluation shows a persistent fetal bradycardia in the 70-bpm range. A large-bore IV is placed and the patient is taken to the operating room. The most appropriate anesthetic choice would be

a)

Etomidate 0.20.2 mg/kg, succinylcholine 1.51.5 mg/kg, both IV

b)

Propofol 22 to 33 mg/kg, succinylcholine 1.51.5 mg/kg, both IV

c)

Spinal injection of bupivacaine, 1212 mg, and fentanyl, 2525 mcg

d)

Spinal injection of bupivacaine, 1212 mg, without fentanyl

e)

Inhalational mask induction with preserved spontaneous ventilation until anesthetized to avoid endotracheal intubation in a trauma patient

5.

A 32-year-old G3P2 parturient with no medical comorbidities with a 29-week twin gestation presents with regular contractions. She is stable and in no apparent distress. On exam she is found to have a closed cervix. The obstetrician decides to administer terbutaline to stop contractions. Side effects of this therapeutic regimen might include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Maternal supraventricular tachycardia

b)

Maternal hyperglycemia

c)

Maternal pulmonary edema

d)

Maternal hyperkalemia

e)

Fetal tachycardia

6.

An 18-year-old G1P0 parturient with a history of systemic lupus was diagnosed with mild preeclampsia at 27 weeks gestation. She remained stable on weekly evaluations. Now, at 32 weeks gestation, she experienced the start of contractions in the middle of the night. After evaluation, the obstetrician decides to initiate tocolysis with a 4-g bolus of magnesium sulfate, followed by an infusion of 2 g/hr. The following morning the patient is lethargic and has an oxygen saturation of 85%85\% . In addition to oxygen by facemask and discontinuing the magnesium infusion, appropriate initial therapy would include

a)

Ordering an echocardiogram to rule out peripartum cardiomyopathy

b)

Furosemide, 4040 mg IV

c)

Evaluation for evidence of myocardial ischemia, including EKG and serum troponin levels

d)

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets, until an infusion of nitroglycerin can be initiated

e)

Calcium gluconate, 500500 mg IV

7.

Risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The relative dilution of clotting factors due to plasma volume expansion during gestation

b)

Previous postpartum hemorrhage

c)

Protracted prolonged labor

d)

Retained products of conception

e)

Multiple previous uterine surgeries

8.

The chronological order of the stages of labor is as follows

a)

Latent phase, transition, active phase, second stage, fetal descent, neonatal delivery, third stage, placental delivery

b)

First stage, latent phase, active phase, second stage, transition, fetal descent, neonatal delivery, third stage, placental delivery

c)

Latent phase, transition, active phase, second stage, neonatal delivery, third stage, placental delivery

d)

Latent phase, active phase, transition, fetal descent, second stage, neonatal delivery, third stage, placental delivery

e)

None of the above

9.

Considerations in the management of the parturient with retained placenta after a vaginal delivery include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Anesthetics can be provided by epidural medications.

b)

Blood products may be required and should be requested early if bleeding appears significant.

c)

Retained placenta is always an emergency that requires neuraxial or general anesthesia as quickly and safely as possible.

d)

If significant blood loss has occurred and has not been corrected, epidural local anesthetics are contraindicated.

e)

Intravenous nitroglycerin, 5050 to 100100 micrograms, can be used to relax the cervical os if it has contracted after delivery of the neonate.

10.

A 23-year-old G1P0 with no major medical comorbidities presents with severe preeclampsia at 34 weeks gestation. On admission her blood pressure is 165/95165/95 mm Hg and reflexes are hyperactive with clonus. She is started on magnesium for seizure prophylaxis, which results in normalization of reflexes and reduction of blood pressure. Within 30 minutes, a persistent fetal bradycardia is identified and a stat cesarean delivery is called. The patient undergoes general anesthesia with propofol, 22 mg/kg; succinylcholine, 1.51.5 mg/kg; and endotracheal intubation. At the end of surgery, the patient has not had a return of twitches. The most likely cause for prolonged muscle paralysis is

a)

The patient has true cholinesterase deficiency

b)

Pregnancy induces production of atypical pseudocholinesterase

c)

Prolongation of neuromuscular blockade is due to the aminoglycoside antibiotic (gentamicin) she received for prophylaxis of group B streptococcus.

d)

The prolongation of neuromuscular blockade is due to the magnesium sulfate she received for seizure prophylaxis.

11.

Several issues must be assessed prior to placing neuraxial anesthesia or analgesia in a patient with severe preeclampsia. All of the following are correct EXCEPT

a)

The sympathetic neuraxial labor analgesia results in decreased uteroplacental blood flow, which always compromises the fetus.

b)

Severe preeclampsia is associated with thrombocytopenia.

c)

Severe preeclampsia is associated with the development of coagulopathy.

d)

Patients with preeclampsia are at risk for placental abruption.

e)

Spinal anesthesia results in an incidence and degree of hypotension less than that in women who do not have preeclampsia.

12.

A 24-year-old G3P2 with no medical history presents in normal labor with a vertex fetus at term. She started having painful contractions after breakfast but waited 6 hours before coming to the hospital. All of the following statements about her NPO status and the risk of aspiration are correct EXCEPT

a)

She would be at risk for aspiration of gastric contents if general anesthesia were required.

b)

She has remained NPO for greater than 6 hours after her last meal; therefore, her stomach is empty and she is not at increased risk of gastric aspiration.

c)

The risk of gastric aspiration is increased in the parturient regardless of NPO status.

d)

Rapid-sequence induction with cricoid pressure would be appropriate if this patient required general anesthesia.

e)

Gastric aspiration can occur at both induction and emergence of anesthesia.

13.

Preeclampsia is most often associated with all of the following physiologic characteristics EXCEPT

a)

Decreased uteroplacental blood flow

b)

Increased systemic vascular resistance

c)

Hyperdynamic cardiac function

d)

Increased central venous and pulmonary artery wedge pressures

e)

Increased systemic blood pressure

14.

Which of the following end-organ dysfunction would be UNEXPECTED in a patient with severe preeclampsia?

a)

Splenomegaly

b)

Hepatic subcapsular hematoma

c)

Proteinuria

d)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

e)

Pulmonary edema

15.

Normal pulmonary function in the term parturient can be described most accurately by which one of the following statements?

a)

Minute ventilation is decreased due to the decreased excursion of the diaphragm from the impingement of the gravid uterus.

b)

Minute ventilation is similar to the normal, nonpregnant levels due to an increase in respiratory rate.

c)

There is evidence of a moderate to severe restrictive physiology as evidenced by flow-volume loop analysis and the ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity (FEV1:FVC).

d)

The increased minute ventilation results in decreased maternal arterial carbon dioxide concentration (PaCO2).

e)

Due to the impingement of the gravid uterus on the diaphragm, the term parturient is nearly 100%100\% dependent on intercostal and accessory muscles for ventilation.

16.

Which of the following medications does NOT significantly cross the placenta to accumulate in the fetal circulation?

a)

Etomidate

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Esmolol

d)

Succinylcholine

e)

Lidocaine

17.

Medications that produce neuromuscular blockade when administered to the parturient do not result in clinically significant paralysis of the fetus because

a)

The placental barrier reduces the serum concentration of these medications to only 1010 to 20%20\% of the maternal serum concentration.

b)

The fetal muscles are resistant to all neuromuscular blocking medications because the neuromuscular endplate of striated muscle is immature.

c)

The rapid metabolism of these medications in the fetal liver results in very low serum concentrations in the fetus.

d)

Succinylcholine does not cross the placenta, but the steroid-based nondepolarizing medications (vecuronium, pancuronium, etc.) do cross and result in clinically significant weakness.

e)

None of the above is correct.

18.

The factors that determine uteroplacental transfer of medications include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The ionic charge of the molecule

b)

The size of the uteroplacental surface area

c)

The concentration difference between the mother and the fetus

d)

The maternal blood pressure

e)

The size of the molecule

19.

Normal maternal physiologic changes at term can be most correctly described as

a)

A decrease in minute ventilation due to reduction of pulmonary functional residual capacity from the gravid uterus

b)

An increase in systemic vascular resistance in response to an increase in cardiac output

c)

Peripheral edema resulting from systolic ventricular dysfunction with a concomitant increase in central venous pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

d)

A decrease in serum hemoglobin concentration despite increased red cell production

e)

None of the above is correct.

20.

Potential complications of the long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications in the pregnant woman include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Fetal oligohydramnios

b)

Premature in utero closure of the ductus arteriosus

c)

Maternal peptic ulcers

d)

Gestational hypertension

e)

Maternal renal dysfunction

21.

The normal changes that support the fetal transition to neonatal physiology include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Expansion of the collapsed lungs with air

b)

Closure of the foramen ovale

c)

Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance

d)

Increased systemic vascular resistance

e)

Patent ductus arteriosus

22.

A healthy mother delivers a term fetus via uncomplicated normal vaginal delivery. At birth, the neonate is flaccid, cyanotic, and not responsive. After delivery to the warming table, the most appropriate initial step in resuscitation is

a)

Immediate laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation

b)

Umbilical vein catheterization and administration of epinephrine

c)

Intraosseous administration of isotonic crystalloid

d)

Vigorous stimulation by drying the neonate with towels followed by assessment of its status

e)

Oropharyngeal suction and mask ventilation with 100%100\% oxygen followed by chest compressions when a second person is available

23.

A term healthy parturient in active labor with lumbar epidural analgesia has recurrent decelerations. The obstetrician determines that the fetal heart rate pattern warrants conservative management at this time, but mentions his concern that a cesarean delivery may be required if the pattern does not improve. The most appropriate action by the anesthesia provider is to

a)

Assess the effectiveness of the epidural catheter, including quality of analgesia and dermatomal sensory blockade

b)

Administer ephedrine to improve uterine artery blood flow

c)

Remove the epidural catheter and convert to intramuscular analgesia with opioids

d)

Eliminate any opioid from the epidural solution to avoid fetal narcosis

e)

Administer 3% chloroprocaine, 15 to 20 mL, in anticipation of the cesarean delivery

24.

A full-term newborn boy delivered vaginally is limp and cyanotic; he has a heart rate of 80, gasping respirations, and no response to suctioning. His Apgar score at 1 minute of life would be

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

25.

Magnesium sulfate affects neuromuscular blockade and the neuromuscular junction in all of the following ways EXCEPT

a)

Inhibits the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

b)

Decreases the sensitivity of the neuromuscular junction to acetylcholine

c)

Depresses the excitability of the muscle fiber membrane

d)

Increases the potency and duration of vecuronium, rocuronium, and mivacurium

e)

Increases the duration of a single intubating dose of succinylcholine

26.

All of the following statements concerning lung volume changes in pregnancy are true EXCEPT

a)

Functional residual capacity (FRC) begins to fall at the fifth month of pregnancy and is decreased to 80% of that of prepregnancy capacity by term.

b)

Vital capacity is significantly decreased by term pregnancy.

c)

A 25% reduction in expiratory reserve volume and a 15% reduction in residual volume account for the change in FRC.

d)

Inspiratory capacity increases by 15% during the third trimester because of the increases in tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.

e)

The decrease in FRC is due to elevation of the diaphragm caused by the enlarging uterus.

27.

A 38-year-old G3P2 parturient with a history of cocaine abuse presents at 38 weeks gestation. The patient had bleeding in early pregnancy and elevated blood pressures at 28 weeks gestation. On admission she has vaginal bleeding and continuous abdominal pain even between contractions. Her cervix is dilated to 1 cm. The potential complications associated with this parturient’s underlying physiology include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Hemorrhagic shock

b)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

c)

Intrauterine growth retardation

d)

Placenta accreta

e)

Acute renal failure

28.

A 31-year-old G2P1 at 23 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with acute appendicitis. All of the following statements about the anesthetic management of an open appendectomy in the parturient are true EXCEPT

a)

The parturient should have uterine displacement in the operating room to prevent aortocaval compression.

b)

Medications with anticholinesterase effects are contraindicated because they may increase uterine tone and precipitate preterm labor.

c)

The decision to monitor the fetal heart rate continuously should be considered but is individualized depending on each case, the ease of monitoring, and the site of surgery.

d)

Induction could include thiopental, fentanyl, and succinylcholine.

e)

Pregnant women are at risk for acid aspiration after 18 to 20 weeks gestation; pharmacologic precautions may be warranted.

29.

Which of the following drugs has a rapid transfer across the placenta primarily due to its lipophilic characteristics?

a)

Heparin

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Thiopental

d)

Succinylcholine

e)

Rocuronium

30.

During the second stage of labor at 38 weeks gestation, fetal heart late decelerations are noted. Meconium-stained fluid is identified upon delivery. The newborn is breathing spontaneously, is vigorous, and has a heart rate of 130. The most appropriate management would be

a)

Immediate intubation with endotracheal suctioning

b)

Expectant management with empiric antibiotics

c)

Steroids to treat pulmonary inflammation

d)

Routine oral/nasal suctioning with expectant management

e)

Endotracheal suctioning followed by radiographic films once suctioning is cleared

31.

During the electronic fetal heart rate monitoring of a 34-week-gestational-age fetus, decelerations beginning 10 to 30 seconds after the beginning of uterine contractions and ending 10 to 30 seconds after the end of uterine contractions are noted. Possible causes for this include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Aortocaval compression

b)

Maternal hypotension

c)

Excessive uterine tone

d)

Fetal hypoxemia

e)

Intermittent umbilical cord compression

32.

A term neonate is born by an emergency cesarean section performed for fetal bradycardia. At birth, a double nuchal cord is noted and the neonate has no spontaneous respirations. Following warming and nasopharyngeal suctioning, the neonate remains apneic with a heart rate of 80. Positive-pressure ventilation is then provided for 30 seconds, with no improvement in the oxygenation, heart rate, or spontaneous activity. The most appropriate next step would be

a)

Chest compressions at a rate of 90 compressions/minute

b)

Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg through an umbilical venous line

c)

100 mL of isotonic crystalloid solution through an umbilical venous line

d)

Observational care with blow-by oxygen

e)

Gentle endotracheal intubation with positive-pressure ventilation

33.

All of the following statements regarding fetal hemoglobin as compared with adult hemoglobin are true EXCEPT

a)

Hemoglobin F has a greater oxygen affinity than adult hemoglobin.

b)

The P50 of fetal blood is approximately 27 mm Hg.

c)

In fetal blood, hemoglobin F is approximately 75% to 84% of total hemoglobin.

d)

The shift in fetal blood oxygen affinity can be explained by a decreased interaction between hemoglobin F and 2,3-DPG.

e)

Fetal hemoglobin can be detected for up to 3 months after birth.

34.

All of the following statements are true concerning anesthesia for nonobstetric surgery in the parturient EXCEPT

a)

Beginning at 18 to 20 weeks gestation, left uterine displacement should be used to prevent aortocaval compression.

b)

Scientific evidence supports the avoidance of nitrous oxide during pregnancy, especially after the 6th week of pregnancy.

c)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may be used until the second half of pregnancy, at which time they should be used with caution.

d)

The second trimester is the optimal time to perform surgery because the risk of preterm labor is lowest during that time.

e)

Most structural abnormalities resulting from exposure to teratogenic agents occur between day 31 and day 71 after the first day of the last menstrual period.

35.

Risk factors for the development of preeclampsia in the parturient include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Vascular/connective tissue disease

c)

Nulliparity

d)

Obesity

e)

Smoking

36.

A 32-year-old G5P4 at 37 weeks presenting for a third repeat cesarean section is found on ultrasound to have placenta previa. The risk of placenta accreta in this patient is

a)

Similar to that in the general obstetric population

b)

Approximately 10%

c)

Increased only if an endometrial strip is visible on ultrasound

d)

Approximately 60%

e)

At least 95%; all placenta previa is associated with accreta

37.

A 36-year-old G3P2 is presenting for repeat cesarean section with a suspected placenta accreta. After a team discussion with the patient, it was agreed that if significant hemorrhage were to occur the obstetric team would perform a cesarean hysterectomy. All of the following statements regarding appropriate anesthetic management are true EXCEPT

a)

Two large-gauge intravenous catheters and cross-matched packed red blood cells should be available.

b)

The blood loss in an elective cesarean hysterectomy is comparable with an emergent cesarean hysterectomy.

c)

Anesthetic options include continuous spinal anesthesia, combined spinal-epidural anesthesia, continuous epidural anesthesia, and general anesthesia.

d)

In the event of conversion to general anesthesia from neuraxial anesthesia, the intravascular volume deficit may be underestimated and care should be taken in the selection and dosing of induction agents.

e)

The choice of anesthetic technique has little influence on the degree of blood loss.

38.

Pain during the first stage of labor

a)

Results from the stimulation of visceral afferents that innervate the lower uterine segment and cervix and enter the spinal cord at L4 and L5 segments

b)

Can lead to high concentrations of catecholamines. Labor analgesia reduces plasma concentrations of epinephrine and its associated effects on the myometrium.

c)

Can be reliably treated by a pudendal block

d)

Can be reliably treated by a paracervical block

e)

Is necessary for the course of labor to proceed efficiently

39.

During the course of an epidural placed for labor analgesia the parturient becomes agitated, is not able to speak, and loses consciousness. The patient is profoundly hypotensive. Possible causes for this clinical scenario include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Unrecognized placement of the catheter in the subarachnoid space

b)

Overdose of local anesthetic in the epidural space

c)

Migration of the epidural catheter into an epidural vein

d)

Subdural injection of local anesthetic

e)

Seizure from eclampsia

40.

All of the following symptoms and signs may be associated with a postdural puncture headache EXCEPT

a)

Tinnitus

b)

Cerebral edema

c)

Cranial nerve VI palsy

d)

Seizures

e)

Diplopia

41.

Which of the following statements about the use of volatile anesthetics during general anesthesia for cesarean section is INCORRECT?

a)

Volatile anesthetics reduce blood pressure, which may result in reduced uterine blood flow.

b)

Volatile agents cross the placenta and equilibrate rapidly with fetal tissues.

c)

High levels of volatile agents may build up in the neonatal fat and can redistribute to the neonatal circulation, causing a secondary depression of ventilation.

d)

End-tidal level of halogenated agents greater than 1 to 1.5 times the minimum alveolar concentration may reduce the effect of oxytocin on uterine tone.

e)

The minimum alveolar concentration in pregnancy is higher than in nonpregnant women.

42.

Pregnant patients have a higher aspiration risk due to all of the following EXCEPT

a)

The upward displacement of the stomach and esophagus results in a reduction of tone of the lower esophageal barrier.

b)

Gastric emptying of liquid and solid materials is slowed during pregnancy.

c)

Esophageal peristalsis is slowed during pregnancy.

d)

Gastric emptying is slowed during labor.

e)

Pregnancy is a risk factor for difficulty during intubation.

43.

A 32-year-old G1 at 33 weeks gestation has a platelet count of 80,000/mm³ at a routine doctor’s visit, with no prior platelet counts as comparison. Her vital signs are within normal limits and she currently denies signs of easy bruising or bleeding of her gums while brushing her teeth. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Idiopathic/autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP/ATP)

b)

Gestational thrombocytopenia

c)

Preeclampsia

d)

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

e)

Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

44.

A 25-year-old G1 presents in labor. During the anesthesia consult, it is found that she has von Willebrand disease (vWD) type I. Labs drawn 2 days ago show a factor VIII level of 20%. She is in pain and is requesting an epidural. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Initiate epidural placement because pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state and lessens the severity of vWD.

b)

Offer a remifentanil IV PCA.

c)

Offer a remifentanil IV PCA and initiate DDAVP infusion.

d)

Offer a remifentanil IV PCA and initiate cryoprecipitate.

e)

Offer a remifentanil IV PCA and initiate Humate-P.

45.

Infants born to mothers with myasthenia gravis (MG)

a)

Are unaffected, as maternal antibodies to the acetylcholine receptor are IgM antibodies and do not cross the placenta.

b)

Are affected approximately 75% of the time.

c)

May need to take immunosuppressant therapy for a minimum of 2 to 3 weeks.

d)

May need to take anticholinesterase therapy for 2 to 3 weeks.

e)

Are unaffected immediately after birth but become symptomatic after 4 to 6 weeks.

46.

While sitting a parturient up in preparation to place an epidural for labor analgesia, you notice a skin dimple in the patient’s lumbar area. Which of the following diagnoses would make you most comfortable to proceed with the epidural placement?

a)

Meningocele

b)

Spina bifida occulta

c)

Occult spinal dysraphism

d)

Myelomeningocele

47.

Which of the following choices correctly identifies the level at which the spinal cord and the dural sac end for adults and for children?

a)

L1/S3—L3/S2

b)

L3/S3—L1/S2

c)

L1/L1—L3/L3

d)

L1/S2—L3/S3

e)

L3/L3—L1/L1

48.

Which of the following statements about cardiovascular changes during pregnancy is INCORRECT?

a)

Stroke volume increases by 20% to 50%.

b)

Cardiac output increases by 30% to 50%.

c)

Central venous pressure increases by 3 to 5 mm H2O.

d)

There is a 20% decrease of systemic vascular resistance.

e)

There is a 30% decrease of pulmonary vascular resistance.

49.

Compared to opiate-only epidural infusion, use of a combination of local anesthetic and opioid epidural infusion leads to:

a)

Increased incidence of motor blockade

b)

Increased incidence of pruritus

c)

Increased incidence of breakthrough pain

d)

Increased incidence of hypotension

e)

Increased incidence of respiratory depression

50.

The perioperative use of a thoracic epidural with a local anesthetic solution is associated with

a)

The spinal reflex inhibition of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract remaining unaffected

b)

Similar pulmonary complications as intrapleural and intercostal block

c)

Attenuating spinal reflex inhibition of diaphragmatic function

d)

No effect in size of myocardial infarction compared to lumbar epidural

e)

No change in coronary blood flow

51.

A 58-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of end-stage renal disease is scheduled for creation of an upper-extremity fistula just proximal to the elbow. Her medical history includes insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, and an 80 pack-year history of smoking. Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

An axillary block would be the best option since it has least likelihood of complications, including pneumothorax.

b)

An interscalene block would be best to cover all sensory nerves to the upper arm, including the intercostobrachial nerve.

c)

A supraclavicular block is performed at the level of the cords and can effectively block the brachial plexus for the upper arm.

d)

An infraclavicular block is performed at the distal trunks and can be used to provide adequate sensory block for the surgery.

e)

The surgery can be performed with sedation and local infiltration of anesthesia provided by the surgeon.

52.

All of the following nerves at the ankle are terminal branches of the sciatic nerve EXCEPT

a)

Posterior tibial nerve

b)

Sural nerve

c)

Saphenous nerve

d)

Deep peroneal nerve

e)

Superficial peroneal nerve

53.

A 32-year-old G1P0 parturient at 36 weeks with a history of complete spinal cord transaction that occurred 6 months ago resulting in paraplegia presents to labor and delivery. Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

A labor epidural is not indicated if patient has a T5-level transaction if she has no motor or sensory function below T5.

b)

Autonomic hyperreflexia does not develop if the lesion is below spinal dermatome T7.

c)

Use of succinylcholine is contraindicated.

d)

Hypertension, flushing, and headaches are likely signs of preeclampsia in this patient.

e)

Because of lack of sensory connection to the cortex, a full bladder is well tolerated in this patient.

54.

All of the following nerves can be blocked in the axilla EXCEPT

a)

Axillary nerve

b)

Musculocutaneous nerve

c)

Median nerve

d)

Ulnar nerve

e)

Intercostal brachial nerve

55.

An axillary block is performed for a surgical procedure involving the hand. Which of the following is INCORRECT when evaluating the adequacy of the block for surgery?

a)

Median nerve block can be evaluated by testing the lateral aspect of the ring finger.

b)

Radial nerve block can be evaluated by testing the posterolateral aspect of the hand.

c)

Ulnar nerve block can be evaluated by testing the medial aspect of the ring finger.

d)

Median nerve block can be evaluated by testing the medial aspect of the palm.

e)

Radial nerve block can be evaluated by testing the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the hand.

56.

With respect to bupivacaine toxicity, which of the following is TRUE?

a)

CNS stimulation is often followed by CNS depression via blockade of inhibitory pathways.

b)

The ratio of dose required to induce cardiovascular collapse (CC) to the dose required for CNS effects [CC/CNS] is higher for bupivacaine than for lidocaine.

c)

Succinylcholine administration to a patient with a tonic clonic seizure may contribute to metabolic acidosis.

d)

Hyperventilation may lead to more CNS toxicity.

e)

Combined metabolic and respiratory acidosis may further exacerbate CNS toxicity.

57.

Given equal-volume infiltrations for local anesthesia, which of the following would be associated with a higher risk for inducing cardiac arrhythmias?

a)

0.5% racemic bupivacaine

b)

0.5% R(+) bupivacaine

c)

0.5% S(−) bupivacaine

d)

0.5% levo-bupivacaine

e)

0.5% ropivacaine

58.

After receiving a local anesthetic injection for a sciatic nerve block, a patient develops tinnitus, circumoral paresthesia, and dizziness. Assuming equal-volume amounts, which of the following is MOST likely to have caused these symptoms?

a)

0.75% bupivacaine

b)

2% lidocaine

c)

0.75% levobupivacaine

d)

0.75% ropivacaine

e)

2% mepivacaine

59.

Which of the following statements regarding the cardiotoxicity of lidocaine is INCORRECT?

a)

Lidocaine has a negative inotropic action on cardiac muscle in a dose-dependent fashion.

b)

Lidocaine has antiarrhythmic properties while bupivacaine exhibits arrhythmogenic properties.

c)

Bupivacaine depresses rapid depolarization in Purkinje fibers but lidocaine speeds up rapid depolarization.

d)

High local anesthetic concentrations can lead to an increased PR interval and width of the QRS complex.

e)

Lidocaine cardiac toxicity may be observed in cases involving tumescent anesthesia.

60.

A 58-year-old man with advanced-stage pancreatic cancer is requesting evaluation in the pain clinic for palliation. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

a)

The celiac plexus contains afferent and efferent fibers from T5–T12 roots.

b)

The plexus is blocked just anterior to the T8 vertebral body.

c)

The celiac plexus innervates most of the abdominal viscera.

d)

A celiac plexus block perioperatively can decrease body stress and endocrine response to surgery.

e)

Complications include aspiration of blood, urine, or CSF from the needle.

61.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding cervical plexus block?

a)

Phrenic nerve blockade is a rare complication of deep cervical plexus block.

b)

The superficial cervical plexus innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

c)

A deep cervical plexus block is performed at the level of the C4, C5, and C6 levels.

d)

A superficial cervical plexus block is performed at the anteromedial aspect of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

e)

The only major blood vessels at risk during a deep cervical plexus block are the carotid artery and the jugular vein, and both can easily be avoided.

62.

All of the following statements are TRUE regarding cocaine EXCEPT

a)

Cocaine acts as a sodium channel blocker.

b)

Cocaine causes release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension and tachycardia.

c)

Cocaine is an aminoester.

d)

Cocaine blocks reuptake of catecholamines, leading to cerebrovascular accidents, myocardial infarctions, and arrhythmias.

e)

Cocaine is metabolized by hepatic carboxylesterases.

63.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding differential nerve sensitivity to local anesthetics?

a)

Small nonmyelinated C fibers are most susceptible to local anesthetic blockade.

b)

Large myelinated Aα and Aβ are most susceptible to local anesthetic blockade.

c)

Small myelinated B fibers are most susceptible to local anesthetic blockade.

d)

Fibers carrying proprioception are more susceptible than fibers carrying cold sensation.

e)

Small nerve fibers are more susceptible than larger fibers.

64.

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of neuraxial opioids in the obstetric patient?

a)

Neurotoxicity

b)

Pruritus

c)

Hypotension

d)

Respiratory depression

e)

Reactivation of oral HSV infection

65.

All of following statements are TRUE regarding plica mediana dorsalis EXCEPT

a)

It is a midline connective tissue band visualized on epiduroscopy.

b)

It extends from the dura mater toward the ligamentum flavum.

c)

It may lead to difficult catheter insertion.

d)

It may lead to unilateral epidural block.

e)

It may lead to unilateral spinal block.

66.

The subdural space

a)

Exists between the dura mater and arachnoid mater

b)

Contains CSF

c)

Exists between the dura mater and ligamentum flavum

d)

Can be easily found in all patients

e)

Will produce reliable anesthesia and analgesia

67.

Which of the following cardiopulmonary changes is NOT TRUE of a T8 epidural level produced by a local anesthetic-only epidural solution?

a)

Decreased stroke volume and cardiac output

b)

Decreased mean arterial pressure

c)

Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

d)

Decreased resting minute ventilation

e)

Unchanged dead space

68.

Which of the following is FALSE for the effects of neuraxial block on thermoregulation?

a)

Spinal anesthesia increases temperature threshold for sweating.

b)

Spinal anesthesia decreases temperature threshold for vasoconstriction.

c)

Spinal anesthesia decreases temperature threshold for shivering.

d)

Intravenous administration of lidocaine, with equivalent plasma levels, alters thresholds for vasoconstriction and shivering similar to epidural administration of lidocaine.

e)

The intensity of shivering is decreased by neuraxial anesthesia.

69.

Epidural blockade with 0.25% bupivacaine at mid- to high thoracic levels would be expected to

a)

Reduce minute ventilation

b)

Increase the respiratory rate

c)

Increase the work of breathing

d)

Lower PaO2

e)

Reduce expiratory reserve volume

70.

A 56-year-old man is receiving epidural analgesia after a laparotomy and resection of a pancreatic lesion. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of opiates in the epidural solution?

a)

Use of opiates in the epidural solution leads to a higher incidence of respiratory depression compared to a patient-controlled intravenous administration of opiates.

b)

Both fentanyl and hydromorphone infusion in equipment doses provide the same analgesic potency in a lumbar epidural for this patient.

c)

The analgesic site of action for continuous infusion of a hydrophilic opiate is systemic.

d)

A bolus of hydrophilic opiate will provide a more rapid onset of analgesia than a bolus of a lipophilic opiate.

e)

A single bolus of fentanyl 100 mcg in the epidural space is an appropriate step in treating breakthrough pain in this patient.

71.

All of the following are TRUE regarding an epinephrine-containing test dose EXCEPT

a)

Hemodynamic changes that occur after an epinephrine-containing test dose solution lead to decreased uteroplacental perfusion in an obstetric patient.

b)

Injection of 15 mcg of epinephrine should yield a 15- to 20-bpm rise in heart rate if the catheter is intravascular.

c)

Injection of 1 mL of air and hearing a mill-wheel murmur over the right heart with a Doppler is an appropriate test for intravascular injection.

d)

Aspiration from a single-orifice catheter is more sensitive in detecting an intravascular epidural catheter compared to a multi-orifice catheter.

e)

Injection of lidocaine 100 mg without epinephrine is an appropriate test dose to detect intravascular and/or intrathecal catheter placement.

72.

All of the following are TRUE regarding neuraxial anesthesia EXCEPT

a)

Neuraxial anesthesia blunts the body’s stress response to surgery.

b)

Neuraxial anesthesia leads to increased bleeding due to vasodilation.

c)

Neuraxial anesthesia decreases the incidence of postoperative thromboembolic events.

d)

Neuraxial anesthesia decreases perioperative morbidity and mortality in high-risk patients.

e)

Neuraxial anesthesia can be used to extend analgesia into the postoperative period.

73.

A 22-year-old athlete is scheduled for an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction in an ambulatory surgery center. He would like to avoid general anesthesia. Which of the following will lead to most complete analgesia and speedy recovery and discharge?

a)

Spinal anesthesia with bupivacaine and morphine sulfate (Duramorph)

b)

Femoral and obturator nerve block

c)

Femoral and popliteal nerve block

d)

Fascia iliaca block

74.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a femoral nerve block?

a)

The femoral nerve is located below both the fascia lata and fascia iliaca.

b)

Stimulation of the sartorius muscle will lead to reliable anesthesia in the femoral nerve distribution.

c)

The femoral nerve is approximately 1 cm medial to the femoral artery.

d)

A femoral nerve block can provide complete anesthesia for a femoral fracture.

e)

The needle entry point for a fascia iliaca block is at the intersection of the lateral two-thirds and the medial one-third of the line connecting the pubic tubercle and anterior superior iliac spine (inguinal ligament).

75.

Which of the following is NOT a branch coming off from the T5 intercostal nerve?

a)

Posterior cutaneous branch

b)

Anterior cutaneous branch

c)

Medial cutaneous branch

d)

Lateral cutaneous branch

e)

Gray ramus communicans

76.

Which of the following will provide the most reliable analgesia for a chest tube placed in the midaxillary region?

a)

Walking off cephalad from the rib and injecting 3 to 5 mL of local anesthetic at the angle of the rib posteriorly

b)

Walking off cephalad from the rib and injecting 3 to 5 mL of local anesthetic 3 to 5 cm anterior to the insertion site

c)

Walking off caudad from the rib and injecting 3 to 5 mL of local anesthetic just lateral to the sternum

d)

Walking off caudad from the rib and injecting 3 to 5 mL of local anesthetic at the angle of the rib posteriorly

e)

Walking off caudad from the rib and injecting 3 to 5 mL of local anesthetic just anterior to the insertion site

77.

After successful placement of a brachial plexus block at the interscalene level for shoulder surgery, the surgeon informs you that he will need to operate on the hand also. An additional injection of local anesthetic at which of the following locations will most likely ensure adequate analgesia for the entire operation?

a)

Adjacent to the brachial artery at the level of the elbow

b)

At the groove formed by the olecranon and medial condyle of the humerus

c)

At the level of the wrist, lateral to the radial artery near the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus

d)

At the upper arm, into the body of the coracobrachialis muscle

e)

At the elbow level, 2 cm lateral to the biceps tendon

78.

Which of the following factors and its effect on postoperative gastrointestinal (GI) motility are paired INCORRECTLY?

a)

Use of epidural analgesia — Increased motility

b)

Nitrous oxide — Decreased motility

c)

Volatile anesthetics — Increased motility

d)

Intravenous local anesthetics — Increased motility

e)

Splanchnic nerve blockade — Increased motility

79.

A 68-year-old, 80-kg man presents for surgery to release trigger fingers of the third and fourth digits of his right hand. The surgeon’s time estimate for the surgery is 60 to 90 minutes. In performing IV regional anesthesia, injection of which of the following will provide safe and reliable surgical anesthesia for the hand?

a)

10 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine

b)

10 mL of 1% lidocaine

c)

10 mL of 0.25% bupivacaine

d)

20 mL of 0.125% bupivacaine

e)

50 mL of 0.5% lidocaine

80.

Five minutes after intravascular injection of local anesthetic for an IV regional technique for hand surgery, the surgeon is notified that the equipment he needs is not available. It will take approximately 1 hour to get the instruments in the operating room. Which of the following options is appropriate for tourniquet management of this patient?

a)

Deflate the tourniquet and perform an axillary block.

b)

Deflate the tourniquet after 30 minutes and perform general anesthesia.

c)

Deflate the tourniquet and perform general anesthesia.

d)

Maintain the tourniquet and wait for the instruments.

e)

Inject more lidocaine into the anesthetized hand to allow the block to last longer.

81.

According to the guidelines for neuraxial anesthesia published by the American Society of Regional Anesthesia and Pain Medicine, which of the following statements concerning neuraxial anesthesia and anticoagulation is FALSE?

a)

Patients receiving fractionated low–molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) preoperatively at thromboprophylactic doses should have the drug held for 12 hours before performing a neuraxial block.

b)

There is no significant added risk of spinal hematomas for patients taking aspirin to undergo a neuraxial block.

c)

Clopidogrel should be discontinued for 1 week, and ticlopidine for 2 weeks, prior to placing a neuraxial block.

d)

Patients receiving thrombolytic therapy should wait 12 hours before receiving a neuraxial block.

e)

There is no contraindication to performing a neuraxial block for patients on unfractionated heparin dosed at 5,000 units twice a day.

82.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of local anesthetics from least potent for peripheral nerve blockade?

a)

Procaine < lidocaine ≈ mepivacaine < bupivacaine

b)

Mepivacaine < lidocaine ≈ bupivacaine < ropivacaine

c)

Mepivacaine < lidocaine < ropivacaine < bupivacaine

d)

Lidocaine < mepivacaine < prilocaine < bupivacaine

e)

Procaine < mepivacaine < lidocaine < bupivacaine

83.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding regional anesthesia in pediatrics?

a)

Pediatric patients have an increased volume of distribution.

b)

Pediatric patients have increased protein binding of local anesthetics.

c)

Pediatric patients have increased enzymatic activity and breakdown of local anesthetics.

d)

Pediatric patients have decreased systemic absorption of local anesthetics.

e)

Adding epinephrine to local anesthetics is not as effective in prolonging blocks compared to adults.

84.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

Commercially available premixed solutions of local anesthetics with epinephrine are more basic in order to preserve the potency of epinephrine.

b)

Epinephrine added to ropivacaine will intensify blockade but not prolong the duration of an epidural block.

c)

Epinephrine can more effectively prolong the effects of lidocaine and 2‑chloroprocaine than bupivacaine.

d)

The addition of epinephrine can more effectively decrease plasma lidocaine and 2‑chloroprocaine levels than plasma bupivacaine levels.

e)

Epinephrine contributes to analgesia in the neuraxis due to its presynaptic adrenergic receptor activity.

85.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

Addition of 1 mL of 8.4% NaHCO₃ (sodium bicarbonate) to 9 mL of 2% lidocaine will increase the speed of onset of a neuraxial block.

b)

Alkalinization of bupivacaine will decrease the time of onset of an epidural block.

c)

Alkalinization of ropivacaine does not result in a faster onset of block.

d)

Alkalinization of ropivacaine is less likely to result in precipitation than alkalinization of bupivacaine.

e)

Alkalinization of a local anesthetic solution increases the un‑ionized fraction of anesthetic.

86.

A patient who previously developed profound hypotension, tachycardia, and bronchospasm after receiving procaine could develop a similar reaction if he were to receive which local anesthetic?

a)

2‑chloroprocaine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Ropivacaine

d)

Mepivacaine

e)

Any other local anesthetic

87.

Blockade of all of the following combinations of nerves EXCEPT which one will provide adequate anesthesia for surgery of the entire foot?

a)

Femoral, sciatic

b)

Popliteal, saphenous

c)

Sural, saphenous, deep peroneal, superficial peroneal, posterior tibial

d)

Obturator, sciatic, sural, posterior tibial

e)

Common peroneal, tibial, femoral

88.

Extravasation of a large amount of intravenous fluid was noticed at a peripherally placed IV catheter at the antecubital fossa. An hour later, the patient complains of tingling in his thumb and index and middle fingers, as well as weakness on thumb opposition. Which nerve is most likely injured?

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Musculocutaneous nerve

d)

Recurrent branch of the median nerve

e)

Median nerve

89.

A patient in the intensive care unit is to undergo a bedside bronchoscopic procedure. His nasopharynx was lubricated with viscous lidocaine and the oropharynx was sprayed twice with 20% benzocaine solution. Fifteen minutes into the procedure, the patient becomes cyanotic and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry has dropped from 97% to 70%. His blood pressure has been unchanged but he has become slightly tachycardic. Soon the patient develops tachypnea and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. His trachea is immediately intubated, and an inspired oxygen fraction of 1.0 is delivered. His oxygen saturation improves to 85%, but an arterial blood gas analysis shows an arterial oxygen tension of 390 mm Hg. Which of the following would most likely confirm your diagnosis?

a)

A stat portable chest x‑ray

b)

Co‑oximetry analysis of an arterial blood gas

c)

CT of his chest

d)

Continued bronchoscopy will reveal the etiology of his respiratory failure.

e)

A transesophageal echocardiogram

90.

Which statement regarding methylparaben is FALSE?

a)

Most allergic reactions to methylparaben are IgE‑mediated.

b)

Cross‑sensitivity between methylparaben and ester‑type local anesthetics does occur.

c)

Antimicrobial activity from methylparaben and similar preservatives is temperature‑dependent.

d)

Methylparaben in combination with lidocaine has greater bactericidal activity than lidocaine alone.

e)

Methylparaben alone is a less effective antimicrobial agent than when combined with a local anesthetic.

91.

Which combination of nerves, when blocked, will provide adequate anesthesia for knee surgery?

a)

Lumbar plexus

b)

Femoral nerve, lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, sciatic nerve

c)

Lumbar plexus, obturator nerve, lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

d)

Femoral nerve, sciatic nerve, obturator nerve

e)

Femoral nerve, lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, popliteal fossa

92.

Which of the following solutions, given through a L3–4 epidural catheter, will result in a block of longest duration?

a)

10 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine

b)

10 mL of 3% 2‑chloroprocaine with epinephrine

c)

10 mL of 0.5% ropivacaine

d)

10 mL of 2% lidocaine

e)

10 mL of 2% mepivacaine with epinephrine

93.

In regards to the oculocardiac reflex (OCR), which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

The afferent pathway involves the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the efferent pathway is mediated by the vagus nerve.

b)

The ciliary and gasserian ganglions are involved in the pathway.

c)

Deep anesthesia potentiates this pathway and should be avoided.

d)

The OCR can occur during placement of a retrobulbar block.

e)

The OCR can result in ventricular fibrillation and nodal rhythms.

94.

All of the following are complications of pediatric caudal anesthesia EXCEPT

a)

Infections with the use of a caudal catheter

b)

A postdural puncture headache

c)

Seizures

d)

Total spinal anesthesia

e)

Profound hypotension with a caudal injection to the T6 level

95.

Compared to adults, in the pediatric patient

a)

The dural sac ends at a lower level

b)

The CSF volume per kilogram of body weight is less

c)

“Loss of resistance” is usually more prominent during placement of an epidural

d)

The upper limit to local anesthetic dosing is greater than in adults

e)

Volume of distribution of local anesthetic is smaller than in adults

96.

Which of the following combinations of nerves, when blocked, will facilitate an awake fiberoptic nasotracheal intubation?

a)

Trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, superior laryngeal

b)

Facial, glossopharyngeal, superior laryngeal, recurrent laryngeal

c)

Trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, recurrent laryngeal

d)

Lingual, glossopharyngeal, superior laryngeal

e)

Maxillary, glossopharyngeal, superior laryngeal

97.

In regards to phenol and alcohol as neurolytic agents, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Injection with phenol is more painful than injection with alcohol.

b)

Peripheral neurolysis with alcohol, but not phenol, can lead to denervation pain.

c)

Alcohol neurolysis is more intense.

d)

Alcohol has a biphasic action as a local anesthetic and a neurolytic.

e)

Neurolysis with phenol is usually permanent.

98.

Which of the following statements about peripheral nociceptors is INCORRECT?

a)

Nociceptors are present at the free nerve endings of C and Aδ fibers.

b)

The amount of neural activity in nociceptive effects does not depend on intensity and duration; it is an all‑or‑none response.

c)

Skin rubbing and vibration may decrease the nociceptive neuronal activity.

d)

Sensitization of nociceptors occurs by repeated noxious stimuli.

e)

Primary hyperalgesia is associated with a lowered pain threshold and spontaneous pain.

99.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a)

A prodrome of dermatomal pain usually precedes the appearance of a rash.

b)

The majority of patients with herpes zoster will develop postherpetic neuralgia (PHN).

c)

Sympathetic nerve blocks can reliably reduce pain in patients with herpes zoster and PHN.

100.

Regional anesthesia at which of the following locations would provide adequate analgesia for surgery at the ankle?

a)

Injection lateral to the femoral artery, and injection inferolateral to the pubic symphysis

b)

Injection in the fascial plane between the vastus medialis and sartorius, and injection at the popliteal fossa

c)

Injections in the intermuscular fascial planes between the adductor brevis and adductor longus, and between the adductor brevis and adductor magnus

d)

Injection medial to the femoral artery, and injection at the popliteal fossa

e)

Injection in the psoas compartment, and injection between the vastus medialis and sartorius

101.

Regional anesthesia at which of the following locations would provide adequate analgesia for surgery at the elbow?

a)

Injection lateral to the subclavian artery above the first rib

b)

Injection medial to the subclavian artery above the first rib

c)

Injection between the sternocleidomastoid and anterior scalene at the level of the cricoid cartilage

d)

Injection beneath the middle scalene muscle at the level of the cricoid cartilage

e)

Injection around the axillary vein and beneath the pectoralis major and minor muscles using the infraclavicular approach

102.

Which of the following blocks would NOT be expected to provide adequate analgesia during the first stage of labor?

a)

Paracervical block

b)

Pudendal block

c)

Caudal block

d)

Paravertebral lumbar sympathetic block

e)

Continuous spinal block

103.

After placement of a retrobulbar block by an ophthalmologist, you notice that the patient has lost consciousness, is unarousable, and is not making any respiratory effort. Which of the following is most likely to account for this situation?

a)

Inadvertent intra-arterial injection

b)

Stimulation of the oculocardiac reflex (OCR)

c)

Retrobulbar hemorrhage

d)

Brainstem anesthesia

e)

Too much intravenous sedation was administered prior to block placement

104.

To perform a sciatic nerve block via a posterior approach, which of the following structures need to be identified?

a)

Greater trochanter, sacral hiatus, posterior superior iliac spine

b)

Greater trochanter, sacral hiatus, iliac crest

c)

Greater trochanter, sacral hiatus, anterior superior iliac spine

d)

Greater trochanter, ischial tuberosity, sacral hiatus

e)

Anterior superior iliac spine, pubic tubercle

105.

Which of the following nerves provides sensory innervation to the lateral forearm?

a)

The radial nerve

b)

The median nerve

c)

The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm

d)

The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm

e)

The intercostobrachial nerve

106.

Which cord(s) of the brachial plexus is responsible for sensory innervation of the skin over the extensor surface of the forearm to the wrist?

a)

Anterior cord

b)

Lateral cord

c)

Medial cord

d)

Posterior cord

e)

Lateral and posterior cords

107.

Spinal anesthesia can have all of the following expected effects on cardiovascular physiology EXCEPT

a)

Hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Decreased right-sided filling pressures

d)

Decrease in total peripheral resistance

e)

An increase in preload

108.

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning postdural puncture headaches (PDPH)?

a)

It happens more commonly in patients with increased age.

b)

It usually resolves spontaneously for most patients.

c)

Bedrest, analgesics, and caffeine can produce relief of symptoms.

d)

It is more common in parturients.

e)

The headache is usually worsened by head elevation and occurs in a fronto-occipital distribution.

109.

Spinal anesthesia to a T4 level would be expected to cause

a)

A decrease in dead space

b)

An increase in PaCO_2

c)

Dyspnea due to hypoxemia

d)

A decrement in active exhalation

e)

Impairment in diaphragmatic function

110.

A patient receives a spinal dose of 2 cc of 0.75% bupivacaine in dextrose at the L3–4 level then lies supine. 5 minutes later, his heart rate decreases from 80 bpm to 45 bpm, and his BP decreases from 120/80 to 70/45. Appropriate therapeutic maneuvers at this point would include any of the following EXCEPT

a)

Ephedrine 10 mg IV

b)

Phenylephrine 100 mcg IV

c)

Intravenous fluid bolus and Trendelenburg position

d)

Epinephrine 5 mcg IV

e)

Epinephrine 10 mcg IV

111.

While performing a stellate ganglion block, which of the following potential complications is most likely to happen?

a)

Injection into the basilar artery

b)

Injection into the vertebral artery

c)

Injection into the carotid artery

d)

Injection into the internal jugular vein

e)

Injection into the subclavian artery

112.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a paramedian approach to neuraxial block?

a)

A paramedian approach is generally less painful compared to a midline approach.

b)

The needle insertion point is approximately 3 to 5 cm lateral to midline.

c)

A paramedian approach requires less patient cooperation to reduce lumbar lordosis.

d)

The L4–5 has the largest interlaminar space in the lumbosacral region and is used in the Taylor variation of the paramedian technique.

e)

The paramedian approach is generally more difficult because a smaller opening is available to access the epidural and intrathecal space.

113.

A 67-year-old man is 4 hours status post bilateral hip replacement. The procedure was done with a combined spinal and epidural technique. The epidural catheter remains in place and was bolused with 15 mL of bupivacaine 0.25%. Within 2 minutes the patient becomes hypotensive and becomes unresponsive. Which of the following maneuver is NOT appropriate in this setting?

a)

Place patient in Trendelenburg position.

b)

Administer Intralipid.

c)

Administer ephedrine.

d)

Endotracheal intubation.

e)

Administer epinephrine.

114.

After administration of an uneventful spinal anesthetic for a total knee replacement, the patient is positioned and draped. The patient denies pain with the surgical test but expresses pain upon surgical incision. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

a)

Administration of 60% nitrous oxide with oxygen through a mask

b)

Administration of incremental intravenous ketamine 0.1 to 0.25 mg/kg

c)

Conversion to general anesthesia

d)

Reassurance of the patient that analgesia is adequate since it was tested before the incision

e)

Small boluses of intravenous fentanyl

115.

An intrathecal injection of bupivacaine 15 mg in dextrose is likely to result in a higher-than-expected level of anesthesia for all of the following patients EXCEPT

a)

A 30-year-old term parturient

b)

A 24-year-old woman with a BMI of 40

c)

A 50-year-old man with a large abdominal tumor

d)

A 45-year-old woman with significant abdominal ascites

e)

A 35-year-old man with myasthenia gravis

116.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

The adult subarachnoid space extends from the foramen magnum to S2.

b)

Injection of local anesthetic below the L1 level in adults should avoid direct trauma to the cord.

c)

Injection of local anesthetic below the L2 level in children should avoid direct trauma to the cord.

d)

Injection of local anesthetic below the L3 level in children should avoid direct trauma to the cord.

e)

The subarachnoid space extends from the foramen magnum to S3 in children.

117.

You are performing a spinal for a cesarean delivery through a midline approach. The needle should pass through all of the following structures prior to visualizing CSF EXCEPT

a)

Posterior longitudinal ligament

b)

Ligamentum flavum

c)

Supraspinous ligament

d)

Intraspinous ligament

e)

Dura mater

118.

When performing a subarachnoid block using the midline technique, which of the following is the most correct sequence of structures encountered with the spinal needle before finding CSF?

a)

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, intraspinous ligament, epidural space, ligamentum flavum, dura

b)

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, intraspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, dura, pia

c)

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, intraspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, ligamentum flavum, dura, pia

d)

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, intraspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, dura, arachnoid

e)

Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, intraspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, dura, pia, arachnoid

119.

A patient undergoes transurethral surgery of the prostate under spinal anesthesia with lidocaine. The patient recovers well in the postoperative period, with return of sensory and motor responses, and is then discharged home 3 hours after his surgery. The next morning, he notices significant pain in his buttocks and bilateral legs down to the knee. Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?

a)

Meralgia paresthetica

b)

An intrathecal hematoma

c)

Cauda equina syndrome

d)

Transient neurologic symptoms

e)

An abscess is developing near the subarachnoid space due to inadequate sterile precautions prior to block placement.

120.

While you are performing an awake fiberoptic intubation, the patient starts coughing when your bronchoscope contacts the posterior side of the epiglottis. Which of the following maneuvers will most likely correct this problem?

a)

Bilateral injections of 2 mL of 1% lidocaine into the base of the anterior tonsillar pillar

b)

An injection of 4 mL of 4% lidocaine through the cricothyroid membrane into the trachea

c)

Bilateral injections of 2 mL of 1% lidocaine at the level of the thyrohyoid membrane just below the greater cornu of the thyroid cartilage

d)

Placing local anesthetic-soaked swabs against the inferior aspects of the palatoglossal folds

e)

Bilateral injections of 10 mL of 1% lidocaine at the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid at and near the level of C4

121.

Tourniquet use during total knee arthroplasty can result in which of the following?

a)

A decreased incidence of wound complications

b)

Decreased pain in the postoperative period

c)

Acute pulmonary edema upon tourniquet release

d)

Quicker recovery of muscle power postoperatively

e)

Lack of electromyographic changes postoperatively

122.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding ultrasound and resolution of the image?

a)

Increasing the gain will lead to improved resolution.

b)

Increasing the frequency will lead to improved resolution.

c)

Decreasing the frequency will lead to improved resolution.

d)

Decreasing the gain will lead to improved resolution.

e)

Neither gain nor frequency has any effect on the resolution of the image.

123.

Which of the following statements is FALSE when comparing ultrasound-guided nerve block with the nerve stimulation technique?

a)

Identification of the nerves and other anatomic structures provides an advantage for using ultrasound.

b)

Observation of the needle and the spread of local anesthetic is possible using ultrasound.

c)

Studies have shown that a decreased volume of injected local anesthetic is needed if using an ultrasound technique compared to a nerve stimulator technique.

d)

Randomized clinical trials have shown that complication rates are lower with the use of an ultrasound technique.

e)

Performing a nerve block with a nerve stimulator can be more painful for patients compared to an ultrasound technique.

124.

When performing an interscalene block with an ultrasound and with an in-plane posterior approach, the needle can be visualized going through which of the following structures?

a)

Middle scalene muscle

b)

Anterior scalene muscle

c)

Adjacent to the phrenic nerve

d)

Sternocleidomastoid muscle

e)

Adjacent to the internal jugular vein

125.

A 23-year-old woman just had a stat cesarean section under general anesthesia for fetal bradycardia. She is having severe incisional pain despite intravenous opiates and she is concerned about opiates and breastfeeding. Injection of a local anesthetic in which of the following spaces will lead to reliable analgesia for this patient?

a)

Transversus abdominis plane between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles

b)

Rectus sheath posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle

c)

Ilioinguinal/iliohypogastric plane at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine

d)

Thoracic paravertebral space at T8–T10

e)

Subcutaneous infiltration along the incision