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Exam 4: Dr. Mo

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a mold?

a)

Candida auris

b)

Rhizomucor pusillus

c)

Torulopsis glabrate

d)

Cryptococcus neoformans

e)

Trichosporon beigelii

2.

Which of the following is a Methotrexate analog that is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Liver cancer?

a)

Photrexate

b)

Pemetrexed

c)

Pralatrexate

d)

Nolatrexed

e)

Edatrexate

3.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting Leucyl-tRNA synthetase?

a)

Omoconazole

b)

Haloprogin

c)

Ciclopirox

d)

Griseofulvin

e)

Tavaborole (Kerydin)

4.

Which of the following Antifungals is an Antimitotic agent?

a)

Candidicin (Levorin)

b)

Griseofulvin (Gris-PEG, Grisactin, etc.)

c)

Ambisome (Amphotericin B)

d)

Posaconazole (Noxafil)

e)

Flucytosine (Ancobon)

5.

Which of the following statements about True Pathogenic Fungus Infections is FALSE?

a)

They have many portals of entry

b)

They are geographically restricted

c)

They are inoculum-driven

d)

They are mostly caused by Dimorphics

e)

They induce a strong specific immunity

6.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Dimorphic Fungus?

a)

Trichosporon beigelii

b)

Torulopsis glabrata

c)

Trichophytion tonsurans

d)

Histoplasma capsulatum

e)

Rhizopus Oryzae

7.

Which of the following statements about True Pathogenic Fungus Infection is FALSE?

a)

It is ubiquitous

b)

It does not require an alteration of the host defense mechanism

c)

It is caused mostly by Dimorphics

d)

It can induce specific immunity

e)

Its portal of entry is mostly pulmonary

8.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct mechanism of action?

a)

Griseofulvin → Inhibition of mitosis

b)

Tavaborole → Inhibition of Leucyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

Monistat → Inhibition of 14C-demethylase

d)

Mycostatin → Inhibition of beta (1,3)-D-glucan synthesis

e)

Loceril → Inhibition of delta 14-reductase

9.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting beta-(1,3)-D-glucan synthase?

a)

Ciclopirox

b)

Candidicin

c)

Eraxis

d)

Nizoral

e)

Nystatin

10.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Chromoblastomycosis?

a)

Noxafil (Pocaconazole)

b)

Vivjoa (Oteseconazole)

c)

Ancoban (Flucytosine; 5-FC)

d)

Mycelex (Clotrimazole)

e)

Exelderm (Sulconazole)

11.

Which of the following is a protein synthesis inhibitor that is used to treat fungal infection of the Toe Nails?

a)

Luzu

b)

Kerydin

c)

Monistat

d)

Spectazole

e)

Penlac

12.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a clinical indication of Flucytosine?

a)

Chromoblastomycosis

b)

Mucormycosis

c)

Cryptococcal meningitis

d)

Candidal septicemia

e)

Candidal UTI

13.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Nystatin?

a)

Esophageal Candidiasis

b)

Athlete's Foot

c)

Thrush

d)

Candidemia

e)

Vaginal Candidiasis

14.

A medical team wants to use a combination of Clotrimazole and Betamethasone to treat Ms. Dac’s tinea corporis; Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE product for the Pharmacist to recommend? SATA

a)
Tineacide
b)

Steri-Nail

c)

Mycolog

d)

Lotrisone

e)

Fungoid

15.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its appropriate maintenance dosage?

a)

Cancidas → 50 mg IV QD

b)

Mycamine → 150 mg IV QD

c)

Vijoa → 150 mg PO weekly

d)

Vfend → 200 mg PO Q12H

e)

Cresemba → 2 caps PO Q8H

16.

All of the following are inhibitors of fungal cell wall synthesis EXCEPT:

a)

Aculeacins

b)

Pneumocandins

c)

Nikkomycins

d)

Undecylenic acid

e)

Polyoxin-D

17.

Which of the following is a triazole antifungal drug that is used primarily for the management of onychomycosis?

a)

Miconazole

b)

Terconazole

c)

Efinaconazole

d)

Econazole

e)

Sertaconazole

18.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a triazole antifungal drug?

a)

Fenticonazole

b)

Terconazole

c)

Butoconazole

d)

Oxiconazole

e)

Luliconazole

19.

Efinaconazole (Jublia) is MOST OFTEN used to treat which one of the following fungal infections?

a)

Invasive aspergillosis

b)

Invasive candidiasis

c)

Onychomycosis

d)

Sporothricosis

e)

Esophageal Candidiasis

20.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Tetrazole antifungal agent?

a)

Spectazole (Econazole)

b)

Femstat (Butoconazole)

c)

Oxistat (Oxiconazole)

d)

Vagistat (Tioconazole)

e)

Vijoa (Oteseconazole)

21.

Which of the following is an imidazole antifungal drug that is used primarily for the management of vaginal candidiasis?

a)

Butooconazole

b)

Terconazole

c)

Efinaconazole

d)

Luliconazole

e)

Sulaconazole

22.

Which of the following produces its antifungal effect by inhibiting the conversion of Lanosterol to 14-Demethyl lanosterol?

a)

Luzu (Luliconazole)

b)

Ertaczo (Sertaconazole)

c)

Travagen (Isoconazole Nitrate)

d)

Kerydin (Tavaborole)

e)

Monistat (Miconazole)

23.

Methotrexate has been found useful in which of the following conditions?

a)

Procuring an abortion

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

PCP

d)

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

e)

Psoriasis

24.

Which of the following statements about Methotrexate (MTX) is FALSE?

a)

It has a triphasic half-life

b)

Food increases its absorption rate

c)

It transforms to 7-hydroxyMTX by Aldehyde Oxidase

d)

It is metabolized by Folypolyglutamate Synthetase to MTX Polyglutamase

e)

It can be administered IV and IM

25.

Which of the following about Methotrexate is FALSE?

a)

It has a biphasic half-life

b)

It is biotransformed in the GI tract

c)

It is metabolized in the liver

d)

It can be administered PO and IV

e)

It can be administered Intrathecally and Intra-Arterially

26.

Which of the following statements about Methotrexate is INCORRECT?

a)

It is metabolized to 7-OH Methotrexate

b)

It is metabolized to Methotrexate polyglutamate

c)

Food decreases its rate of GI absorption

d)

It is advisable to administer it with food

e)

It penetrates the CSF readily

27.

All of the following are non-cancer indications of Methotrexate EXCEPT:

a)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

b)

Psoriasis

c)

Reiter’s Disease

d)

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

e)

Choriocarcinoma

28.

Which of the following is a non-cancer indication of Methotrexate? SATA

a)

Reiter's Disease

b)

Psoriasis

c)

PCP

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

e)

Procurement of Abortion

29.

Which of the following is the CORRECT maintenance dose of Rezzayo for the treatment of invasive candidiasis?

a)

400 mg PO QD

b)

200 mg PO BID

c)

200 mg IV weekly

d)

200 mg IV QD

e)

400 mg IV twice a week

30.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its CORRECT maintenance dose?

a)

Mycafungin → 150 mg IV QD

b)

Anidulafungin → 100 mg IV QD

c)

Caspofungin → 50 mg IV QD

d)

Rezafungin → 200 mg IV QD

e)

Brexafemme → 300 mg PO QAM and 300 mg PO QPM

31.

Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE maintenance dose of Rezafungin?

a)

400 mg IV QD

b)

200 mg IV QD

c)

100 mg IV QD

d)

400 mg IV Q Week

e)

200 mg IV Q Week

32.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Caspofungin?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Fever and Flushing

c)

Elevation of Serum Potassium Level

d)

Proteinuria

e)

Hypermagnesemia

33.

Mr. Zut, who has been diagnosed with a Chlamydia infection, presents with urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be used in managing his current presentation?

a)

Ancobon

b)

Adrucil

c)

Mexate

d)

Cytoxan

e)

Platinol

34.

All of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide are true EXCEPT: The drug is:

a)

An Alkylating agent

b)

An immunosuppressive agent

c)

An antiemetic agent

d)

An anti-inflammatory agent

e)

A teratogenic agent

35.

Which of the following is a cell cycle non-specific anticancer drug?

a)

Gemcitabine

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Capecitabine

e)

Etoposide

36.

Pulmonary fibrosis is the TLT for which of the following?

a)

Adriamycin

b)

Bleomycin

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Dactinomycin

e)

Etoposide

37.

Hemorrhagic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is an adverse effect of which of the following? SATA

a)

5-FU

b)

Gemcitabine (Gemzar)

c)

Bleomycin

d)

Quinine

e)

Cocaine

38.

Which of the following is employed in the prevention or the management of the TLT of Cytoxan? SATA

a)

Soliris

b)

Hydration

c)

Ifosfamide

d)

Mesna

e)

Mucomyst

39.

Which of the following is NOT contained in the T2 Regimen that is used to treat Soft Tissue Sarcoma?

a)

Dactinomycin + Doxorubicin

b)

Doxorubicin + Oncovin + Cytoxan

c)

Vincristine + Cyclophosphamide

d)

Ifosfamide-Mesna + Etoposide

e)

Oncovin + Cytoxan

40.

Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide) is useful in the management of which of the following conditions?

a)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

b)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

c)

Wilm’s Tumor

d)

Cervical Cancer

e)

Testicular Cancer

41.

Which of the following statements about Cytoxan is FALSE?

a)

It can be administered intravenously, intraperitoneally, and intrathecally

b)

Its plasma protein binding capability is about 56%

c)

Its half-life is about 6-7 hours

d)

It is activated in the liver

e)

It is mainly excreted through the renal system

42.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Cytoxan?

a)

Sterility

b)

Diabetes Insipidus

c)

Hemorrhagic Cystitis

d)

Cancer

e)

SIADH

43.

Which of the following statements about Cyclophosphamide is FALSE?

a)

It has a half-life of 6-7 hours

b)

It is metabolized by cytochrome P450 3A4

c)

It can be administered IM and IV

d)

It is excreted primarily renally

e)

It can be administered intraperitoneally

44.

Which of the following is a non-cancer indication of Cytoxan? SATA

a)

Emesis

b)

Organ Rejection

c)

SIADH

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

e)

Diabetes Insipidus

45.

Which of the following is NOT a non-cancer indication of Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide)?

a)

Prevention of organ rejection

b)

SIADH

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Diabetes Insipidus

e)

Autoimmune disorder/Inflammation

46.

The alkylating action of Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide) is carried out by which of the following products of the drug?

a)

4-Ketocyclophosphamide

b)

4-Hydroxycyclophosphamide

c)

Acrolein

d)

Phosphoramide Mustard

e)

Carboxyphosphamide

47.

For the treatment of Multiple Myeloma, Dexamethasone is combined with which of the following? SATA

a)

Velcade

b)

Kyprolis

c)

Darzalex

d)

Oncovin and Adriamycin

e)

Enmplicitis

48.

Which of the following is a Proteasome Inhibitor that is combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma? SATA

a)

Velcade

b)

Pomalyst

c)

Emplicity

d)

Kyprolis

e)

Darzalex

49.

All of the following are classified as Poly-ASP ribose polymerase-1 inhibitors EXCEPT?

a)

Rubraca

b)

Talzenna

c)

Zejula

d)

Lynparza

e)

Pomalyst

50.

Which of the following is combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma? SATA

a)

Ninlaro

b)

Velcade

c)

Revlimid

d)

Kyprolis

e)

Empliciti

51.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Carfilzomib

b)

Daratumumab

c)

Ribociclib

d)

Lenalidomide

e)

Elotuzumab

52.

Which of the following is a histone deacetylase inhibitor that is used to treat Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Thalidomide

b)

Irinotecan

c)

Panobinostat

d)

Ixabepilone

e)

Rucaparib

53.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Thalidomide?

a)

Induction of caspase 8

b)

Increased apoptosis of myeloma cells

c)

Increased production of IL-6

d)

Inhibition of angiogenesis

e)

Decreased proliferation of myeloma cells

54.

Thalidomide is effective in the management of Multiple Myeloma because Thalidomide: SATA

a)

Inhibits Caspase 8

b)

Inhibits IL-6 Production

c)

Inhibits angiogenesis

d)

Stimulates Poly-ADP Ribose polymerase-1

e)

Stimulates Cyclin-dependent kinase-4

55.

Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody preparation that is combined with Dexamethasone for the treatment of Multiple Myeloma? SATA

a)

Velcade

b)

Reblimid

c)

Pomalyst

d)

Darzalex

e)

Empliciti

56.

Which of the following is NOT contained in the M2 Regimen that is used to treat Multiple Myeloma?

a)

CCNU

b)

Cytoxan

c)

Melphalan

d)

Carmustine

e)

Vincristine

57.

Which of the following is absent from the CABO regimen that is employed in the management of Head & Neck Cancer?

a)

Bleomycin

b)

Adriamycin

c)

Oncovin

d)

Methotrexate

e)

Cytoxan

58.

The CFC Regimen is being used to treat Mr. Luce’s Head and Neck Cancer which expresses PD-L1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be included in Mr. Luce’s treatment regimen?

a)

5-FU

b)

Pembrolizumab

c)

Cetuximab

d)

Cyclophosphamide

e)

Carboplatin

59.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Alkyl Sulfonate?

a)

Alkeran

b)

Leukeran

c)

Myleran

d)

ThioTEPA

e)

Altretamine

60.

ThioTEPA is used to treat all of the following EXCEPT: SATA

a)

Breast cancer

b)

Chronic granulocytic leukemia

c)

Bladder cancer

d)

Malignant pancreatic insulinoma

e)

Ovarian Cancer

61.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Primary Macroglobulinemia?

a)

Alkera

b)

Leukeran

c)

Myleran

d)

Carmustine

e)

Novantrone

62.

Which of the following is an indication of 5-Fluorouracil?

a)

Superficial basal cell carcinoma

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Condylomata acuminata

d)

Pancreatic cancer

e)

Acute cerebellar syndrome

63.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of 5-FU (5-Fluorouracil)? SATA

a)

Photophobia and Lacrimation

b)

Epistaxis and GI Bleeding

c)

Photosensitivity and Nystagmus

d)

Acute Cerebellar Syndrome & Photosensitivity

e)

Inflammation of the Pharynx, Myocardial Infarction, Angina Pectoris

64.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of 5-FU?

a)

Hypertrichosis

b)

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

c)

Bone Marrow Depression

d)

Acute Cerebellar Syndrome

e)

Skin Rash and Dermatitis

65.

Which of the following statements about 5-FU are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Its average half-life is about 5-20 minutes

b)

Its ineffective metabolic product is mostly excreted through the pulmonary system as CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

c)

It is widely distributed in the body

d)

It can be given IV, Topically, and Interlesionally

e)

It is anabolized to Fluorouridine Monophosphate (fUMP) (= Activation inside the cell)

66.

Which of the following is an indication of 5-Fluorocytosine? SATA

a)

Chromoblastomycosis

b)

Sporotrichosis

c)

Coccidioidomycosis

d)

Cryptococcal meningitis

e)

Candida-induced septicemia

67.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of 5-Fluorocytosine?

a)

Candidal endocarditis

b)

Phialophora-induced chromoblastomycosis

c)

Cryptococcal meningitis

d)

Candidal septicemia

e)

Pityriasis versicolor

68.

Which of the following statements about Ibrexafungerp is FALSE?

a)

It is a substrate for CYP 3A4

b)

It inhibits CYP 2C8

c)

It is highly plasma protein bound

d)

It primarily undergoes renal excretion

e)

It has a half-life of about 20 hours

69.

Which of the following statements about Ibrexafungerp (Brexafemme) is FALSE?

a)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

b)

It inhibits cytochrome P450 3A4 and 2C8

c)

It is primarily excreted through the feces

d)

It is administered at a dosage of 2 tablets QAM and 2 tablets QPM x 5 days

e)

It has a half-life of 20 hours

70.

Which of the following statements about Brexafemme is FALSE?

a)

It is a triterpenoid antifungal agent

b)

It is an inhibitor of cell membrane synthesis

c)

It is employed in treating a Candida infection that is resistant to Echinocandins and Triazole antifungals

d)

It is employed in the treatment of vulvovaginal candidiasis

e)

It is administered on a BID basis

71.

Which of the following is a triterpenoid that is used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis?

a)

Ibrexafungerp

b)

Omoconazole

c)

Candidicidin

d)

Sertaconazole

e)

Butafine

72.

Which of the following is involved in the mechanism of action of Methotrexate in neoplasms?

a)

Alkylation of nucleic acids

b)

Inhibition of Thymidylate synthase

c)

Inhibition of de novo synthesis of nucleic acids

d)

Inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase

e)

Inhibition of Aldehyde oxidase

73.

Which of the following is an inhibitor of the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of Deoxyuridylate to Thymidylate? SATA

a)

5-Fluorodeoxyuridine monophosphate (5-FU)

b)

Methotrexate polyglutamate

c)

Nolatrexed

d)

Raltitrexed

e)

Pemetrexed

74.

Which of the following is absent from the Hyper-CVAD A regimen when it is employed in managing Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia? SATA

a)

Adriamycin

b)

Cytarabine

c)

Cyclophosphamide

d)

Dactinomycin

e)

Dexamethasone

75.

Which of the following statements about Hyper-CVAD B is FALSE?

a)

It is employed in managing Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

b)

It contains Methotrexate

c)

It consists of ara-A

d)

It is given for 21 days in each cycle

e)

Its administration commences after giving the Hyper-CVAD A regimen for 21 days

76.

Which of the following combination regimens used to treat Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma contains ara-C? SATA

a)

ASHAP

b)

ESHAP

c)

DHAP

d)

MCOP

e)

Hyper-CVAD B

77.

Mr. Ju’s Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is being treated with the DHAP Regimen. Considering the contents of that regimen, which of the following is Mr. Ju receiving?

a)

Hexamethylmelamine

b)

ara-C

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Adriamycin

e)

Dexamethasone

78.

Which of the following is effective in the treatment of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma? SATA

a)

ESHAP

b)

D-HAP

c)

CNOP

d)

mBACOD

e)

R-CHOP

79.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a component of the mBACOS regimen that is used to treat Non-Hogkin’s Lymphoma?

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Bleomycin

d)

Vincristine

e)

Cytoxan

80.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the combination regimen that is used to treat it?

a)

Pancreatic Cancer → FOLFIRINOX; SDF; FMis

b)

Colorectal Cancer → FOLFIRI + Cetuximab; FMV; ILF

c)

Gastric Cancer → FAME; Irinotecan + Capecitabine

d)

Multiple Myeloma → MP; Dexamethasone + Pomalidomide

e)

Breast Cancer → Cooper’s Regimen; CHOP

81.

With concurrent administration, Fluconazole will elevate the AUC of which of the following? SATA

a)

Antidepressants

b)

Antiepileptics

c)

Plavix

d)

Proton Pump Inhibitors

e)

Oral Hypoglycemics

82.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine is INCORRECT?

a)

It decreases the mechanism of SSRI

b)

It accentuates the hepatotoxicity of alcohol

c)

It decreases the duration of action of Caffeine

d)

It decreases the metabolism of Tricyclic antidepressants

e)

Its absorption is impaired by acidic food

83.

Which of the following is unnecessary to be done during long-term therapy with Terbinafine (Lamisil)?

a)

Complete Blood Count

b)

Avoid Concurrent ingestion of caffeine and acidic food

c)

Liver function test

d)

Avoid concomitant ingestion of alcohol

e)

Renal Function Test

84.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine (Lamisil) is INCORRECT?

a)

A liver function test should be performed during a long-term therapy with the drug

b)

A complete blood count should be done during a long-term therapy with the drug

c)

It should not be ingested concomitantly with caffeine-containing food or drink

d)

Food increases its AUC slightly and reverses its taste disturbance adverse effect

e)

It can produce pruritus and Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

85.

Which of the following statements about Terbinafine is INCORRECT? SATA

a)

It is metabolized by cytochrome P450, 3A4, and 2C9

b)

Its terminal half-life is 36 hours

c)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

d)

Food slightly decreases its AUC

e)

About 40% of the administered dose is eliminated in the urine

86.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce its antifungal effect by inhibiting Squalene epoxidase?

a)

Naftin

b)

Afate

c)

Tinactin

d)

Loceryl

e)

Terbinafine

87.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Its Lipid Complex formulation consists of a 7:3 ratio of Dimyristoylphosphatidyl glycerol to Dimyristoylphosphatidyl choline

b)

Its deoxycholate preparation can be administered with Intralipid

c)

It can be administered intravitreally, subconjunctivally, and intra-articularly

d)

It is well distributed into the pleural, peritoneal, and synovial compartments

e)

Its terminal half-life is 15 hours

88.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Amphotericin B that is LEAST LIKELY to suggest the occurrence of a hemorrhagic episode?

a)

Melena

b)

Epistaxis

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Hematuria

e)

Dyspepsia

89.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

Respiratory Failure & Dyspnea

b)

Bradycardia & Hypotension

c)

Hypomagnesemia & Hypocalcemia

d)

Azotemia and Anuria

e)

Insomnia and Vertigo

90.

Which of the following is employed in the management of the “shaking chills” that is associated with the administration of Amphotericin B?

a)

Heparin

b)

Benadryl

c)

Meperidine

d)

Hydrocortisone

e)

Phenergan

91.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE?

a)

It can be administered intravenously, intraventricularly, and intraarticularly

b)

It is not metabolized and it is slowly excreted through the renal system

c)

It is well distributed into the peritoneum, synovium, and vitreous humor

d)

It can be complexed with DMPC: DMPG

e)

It can be complexed with Deoxycholate

92.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE?

a)

Its initial half-life is 24 hours while its terminal half-life is 15 days

b)

It is biotransformed by Cytochrome P450 3A4

c)

It is slowly excreted through the kidneys

d)

It is distributed into the peritoneum, synovium, and the aqueous humor

e)

It can be administered intravitreally, intraventricularly, and intravenously

93.

Heparin is used to prevent or manage which of the following Immediate Adverse Effects of Amphotericin B?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Nausea and Vomiting

c)

Anorexia

d)

Myalgia

e)

Phlebitis

94.

Which of the following is an immediate adverse effect of Amphotericin B? SATA

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Anorexia

c)

Fever

d)

Myalgia

e)

Rigor

95.

All of the following are suggestive of a hemorrhagic adverse effect of Amphotericin B EXCEPT:

a)

Epistaxis

b)

Anuria

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Hematuria

e)

Melena

96.

Itraconazole is effective in the treatment of which of the following conditions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Pseudallescheriasis

b)

Protothecosis

c)

Leishmaniasis

d)

Sporotrichosis

e)

Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri

97.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist recommend for the treatment of Protothecosis?

a)

Rimocidin

b)

Abasol

c)

Fungizone

d)

Noxafil

e)

Grisactin

98.

Which of the following is an indication of Sporanox (Itraconazole)? SATA

a)

Sporotrichosis

b)

Cryptococcosis

c)

Aspergillosis

d)

Blastomycosis

e)

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

99.

Which of the following statements about Vfend is FALSE?

a)

It is a strong inhibitor of CYP 3A4

b)

It is a substrate for CYP 2C9 and 2C19

c)

Its initial dosing regimen, when given IV for Aspergillosis treatment, is 6 mg/kg Q12H x 2 doses

d)

It can impair night vision and also cause chromatopsia

e)

It is effective against the sexual form of Pseudallescheria boydii

100.

Which of the following statements about Voriconazole (Vfend) is TRUE? SATA

a)

It is effective against Aspergillus species

b)

Its maintenance dose is 4 mg/kg IV Q12H

c)

It is effective against Fusarium solani

d)

Its maintenance dose is 200 mg PO Q12H

e)

It is effective against Scedosporium species

101.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct usual dosing?

a)

Brexafemme → 300 mg PO QAM and 300 mg PO QPM x 1 day

b)

Voriconazole → 6 mg IV Q12H x 2 doses then 4 mg IV Q12H

c)

Posaconazole → 300 mg IV BID x 1 day then 300 mg IV QD

d)

Rezafungin → 400 mg IV x 1 day then 200 mg IV QWeek

e)

Isavuconazole → 2 x 186mg PO Q8H x 6 doses then 2 x 186 mg PO QD

102.

Which of the following statements about Vfend is FALSE?

a)

It is a strong inhibitor of cytochrome P450 3A4

b)

It can be administered enterally and parenterally

c)

Food decreases its bioavailability

d)

It is biotransformed by Cytochrome P450 3A4

e)

Its plasma concentration is decreased when it undergoes zero-order kinetics

103.

Which of the following is consistent with a long-term adverse effect of Amphotericin B? SATA

a)

A serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL

b)

Hypomagnesemia, Hypokalemia, Hypercalcemia

c)

Hemoptysis, Epistaxis, Melena

d)

A BUN of 27 mg/dL

e)

Bradycardia and Normocytic, Normochromic Anemia

104.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Amphotericin B? SATA

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypomagnesemia

e)

Hypophosphatemia

105.

Which of the following is NOT present in the EMA-CO combination regimen?

a)

Vincristine

b)

Adriamycin

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Etoposide

e)

Cyclophosphamide

106.

Select the INCORRECT statement about the EP-EMA combination anticancer regimen: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

It consists of a Topoisomerase Inhibitor

b)

It is used to treat Hydatidiform mole

c)

It is used to treat Choriocarcinoma

d)

It consists of an Anthracycline antibiotic

e)

It consists of a Taxane

107.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Edatrexate?

a)

Breast Cancer

b)

Head and Neck Cancer

c)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

d)

Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

e)

Pancreatic Cancer

108.

Which of the following combination anticancer regimens is NOT matched with the correct type of cancer that it is used to treat?

a)

CYVADIC → Osteosarcoma

b)

OFF → Pancreatic Cancer

c)

MBC → Colorectal Cancer

d)

  1. ELF → Stomach Cancer

e)

MACOA → Burkitt’s Lymphoma

109.

Which of the following combination regimens is used for the treatment of Pancreatic Cancer? What are their contents? SATA

a)

GEMOX

b)

SDF

c)

FMiS

d)

OFF

e)

FOLFIRINOX

110.

Which of the following combination regimens is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Pancreatic Cancer?

a)

FMiS

b)

OFF

c)

ILF

d)

FOLFIRINOX

e)

SDF

111.

Which of the following combination anticancer regimens that are employed in managing Breast cancer consists of an Anabolic steroid and an Ethylenimine Alkylating agent?

a)

FECD

b)

VATH

c)

TCHP

d)

ACTH

e)

IMF

112.

Since Ms. Rul is severely allergic to Cisplatin, which of the following should be employed in treating her Ovarian Cancer? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

CHAD

b)

Olaparib

c)

Irinotecan

d)

CISCA

e)

CAP

113.

Which of the following combination regimens is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of Breast Cancer?

a)

VATH

b)

FECD

c)

ACTH

d)

CISCA

e)

IMF

114.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the CHAD regimen that is used to treat Ovarian Cancer?

a)

Altretamine

b)

Adriamycin

c)

Cisplatin

d)

Cytoxan

e)

Dactinomycin

115.

Which of the following combination regimens that are being used to treat Mrs. Luq’s breast cancer accurately suggests that Mrs. Luq is receiving two Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor Inhibitors? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

NFL

b)

TCP

c)

TDP

d)

ACD

e)

ACTH

116.


Which of the following is used to treat Colorectal Cancer? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

CAPOX

b)

FOLFIRI + Cetuximab

c)

XELOX

d)

Dostarlumab

e)

CMV

117.


Which of the following combination regimens is used to treat Colorectal Cancer? SATA

a)

CAPOX

b)

XELOX

c)

FOLFIRI

d)

XELOX + Cetuximab

e)

ILF

118.

Which of the following has been shown to produce the highest cure rate in Colorectal Cancer?

a)

Edculizumab

b)

Bevacizumab

c)

Dostarlimab

d)

Pembrolizumab

e)

Rituximab

119.

Which of the following Alkylating Agents is BEST classified as a Nitrogen Mustard? SATA

a)

Alkeran

b)

Leukeran (Chlorambucil)

c)

Mylera

d)

Yondelis (Trabectedin)

e)

Semustine

120.

Which of the following is an indication of Yondelis (Trabectedin)? SATA

a)

Liposarcoma

b)

Ovarian Cancer

c)

Pancreatic Cancer

d)

Gastric Cancer

e)

Leiomyosarcoma

121.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Nitrosourea Alkylating Agent?

a)

Ifosfamide

b)

Melphalan

c)

Busulfan

d)

DTIC

e)

Streptozotocin

122.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Capecitabine (Xeloda)?

a)

Palmer-Plantar Erythrodysesthesia

b)

Capillary Leak Syndrome

c)

Rash and Desquamation

d)

Angina and Myocardial Infarction

e)

Increased AST, ALT, and Bilirubin

123.

Triethylenethiophosphoramide (TEPA) is used to treat which of the following? SATA

a)

Pancreatic Cancer

b)

Ovarian Cancer

c)

Head and Neck Cancer

d)

Breast Cancer

e)

Bladder Cancer

124.

Which of the following is a warning sign of Cancer? SATA

a)

A sore that does not heal

b)

Noticeable changes in bladder and bowel habits

c)

A new lump, dimpling, or changes around the nipple

d)

A mole that changes in size and color

e)

Chronic coughing and difficulty in swallowing

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