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Pressure Testing and Leak Detection

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What pressure multiplier is specified for testing the high side of a refrigeration system at 55°C using OFDN?

a)

1.1 times saturation pressure

b)

0.9 times saturation pressure

c)

1.0 times saturation pressure

d)

1.2 times saturation pressure

2.

At what refrigerant temperature is the low side tested to 1.1 times the saturation pressure?

a)

25°C

b)

32°C

c)

45°C

d)

55°C

3.

Which gas must be used to carry out pressure testing for leak checks?

a)

Oxygen Free Dry Nitrogen

b)

Argon

c)

Compressed air

d)

Carbon dioxide

4.

During a bubble test, the system is pressurised with OFDN to which approximate pressure?

a)

300 kPa

b)

200 kPa

c)

150 kPa

d)

100 kPa

5.

Where should the foaming agent be sprayed when performing a bubble test?

a)

Across evaporator fins

b)

Inside the compressor sump

c)

Over brazed joints and flarings

d)

On filter driers only

6.

Which method uses a dye and ultraviolet light to reveal leak locations?

a)

Fluorescent dye trace

b)

Bubble test

c)

Ultrasound test

d)

Electronic test

7.

What indicates a leak during the bubble test?

a)

OFDN turns blue

b)

Temperature rises sharply

c)

Pressure gauge drops suddenly

d)

Foaming agent bubbles up

8.

Which pair correctly lists two alternative non-chemical leak detection methods?

a)

Vacuum decay and soap solution

b)

Electronic test and ultrasound test

c)

Fluorescent dye and bubble test

d)

UV light and tracer gas

9.

In the ATS logo build, what is the specified copper tube size indicated in the diagrams?

a)

1/4 inch tubing size

b)

3/8 inch tubing size

c)

5/16 inch tubing size

d)

1/2 inch tubing size

10.

For the first design, the slanted leg of the letter A forms an angle at the apex. What is that angle?

a)

60 degrees at the apex

b)

45 degrees at the apex

c)

48 degrees at the apex

d)

54 degrees at the apex

11.

Comparing the three variants, which total assembly length is shown for the first diagram labeled A?

a)

Total size equals 0.8 m

b)

Total size equals 1.2 m

c)

Total size equals 1.0 m

d)

Total size equals 1.5 m

12.

In the second design, what is the horizontal span across the top of the T section?

a)

139 millimeters span

b)

114 millimeters span

c)

170 millimeters span

d)

284 millimeters span

13.

Which dimension appears repeatedly in the third design’s S section bends?

a)

67 millimeters repeats

b)

70 millimeters repeats

c)

84 millimeters repeats

d)

230 millimeters repeats

14.

When purge brazing the assembly, what is the primary purpose of purging with inert gas?

a)

Reduce external heat loss

b)

Strengthen mechanical bends

c)

Prevent internal oxidation scale

d)

Increase filler metal flow rate

15.

Which measurement defines the vertical drop of the outlet tube at the far right of the first design?

a)

165 millimeters drop

b)

80 millimeters drop

c)

67 millimeters drop

d)

60 millimeters drop

16.

In the first diagram, which tube size is specified for the branch labeled capillary that drops vertically to the pressure gauge tee?

a)

1/4 inch copper tube

b)

3/8 inch copper tube

c)

1/2 inch copper tube

d)

5/16 inch copper tube

17.

Which component connects the smaller copper tube to the filter-drier body on both diagrams?

a)

Union coupling

b)

Threaded nipple

c)

Reducer fitting

d)

Elbow connector

18.

When preparing a flare joint for the 3/8 inch line shown, what is the correct first step before flaring?

a)

Fill the tube with nitrogen

b)

Deburr the cut tube end

c)

Tighten the flare nut fully

d)

Heat the tube end with a torch

19.

The pressure gauge is integrated via a vertical leg. What planning choice best ensures accurate pressure readings during testing?

a)

Mount gauge after brazing cools

b)

Locate gauge on a dead-end stub

c)

Place gauge upstream of reducer

d)

Install gauge on the capillary outlet

20.

Given the overall length of 245 mm in the first diagram and a straight segment of 76 mm on the right, which action maintains layout accuracy during bending?

a)

Select the smallest radius available

b)

Cut tubes longer than final size

c)

Add bend allowance to measured runs

d)

Ignore bend allowances entirely

21.

What micron level is the target for deep evacuation on new refrigeration systems?

a)

1000 microns target level

b)

100 microns target level

c)

200 microns target level

d)

500 microns target level

22.

Which component measures the vacuum level during evacuation?

a)

Refrigerant manifold gauge

b)

Oil sight glass indicator

c)

Nitrogen regulator unit

d)

Vacuum analyzer device

23.

Before connecting the vacuum pump, what must be ensured about the system sections?

a)

Not connected to pressurised sections

b)

Filled with dry refrigerant

c)

Closed with service caps

d)

Heated to operating temperature

24.

What initial nitrogen test pressure should be released to just above atmospheric?

a)

60 kPa or 10 psi

b)

200 kPa or 30 psi

c)

30 kPa or 5 psi

d)

10 kPa or 2 psi

25.

Which action is performed immediately after starting the vacuum pump?

a)

Break vacuum with nitrogen

b)

Isolate vacuum analyzer

c)

Charge system with OFDN

d)

Open ballast valve slowly

26.

At 1000 microns, what is the next step in triple evacuation?

a)

Isolate analyzer and charge OFDN

b)

Open analyzer to the system

c)

Continue pumping to 200 microns

d)

Break vacuum with refrigerant

27.

How much Oxygen Free Dry Nitrogen is charged at 1000 microns and 500 microns?

a)

50 kPa or 8 psi

b)

300 kPa or 45 psi

c)

100 kPa or 15 psi

d)

200 kPa or 30 psi

28.

Which sequence is repeated during triple evacuation?

a)

Repeat steps 1 through 5

b)

Repeat steps 2 through 9

c)

Repeat steps 6 through 8

d)

Repeat steps 3 through 10

29.

When 200 microns or less is achieved, what should be done?

a)

Charge OFDN once more

b)

Start ballast valve again

c)

Connect to pressurised sections

d)

Isolate pump and analyzer

30.

After isolating at ≤200 microns, how is the system prepared for refrigerant?

a)

Pressurize with compressor oil

b)

Flush with clean refrigerant

c)

Purge with dry air stream

d)

Break vacuum with nitrogen

31.

Which procedure focuses on safely removing liquid refrigerant from a system using a recovery unit and cylinder?

a)

Vapour recovery using suction side only

b)

Liquid recovery with cylinder and manifold

c)

Push-pull recovery without gauges

d)

Pressure testing using nitrogen only

32.

Before starting liquid recovery, what should be done with the recovery cylinder to track the amount recovered?

a)

Record ambient temperature nearby

b)

Place cylinder on scale and zero

c)

Purge manifold set with dry air

d)

Close all service valves firmly

33.

Which port on the recovery cylinder valve assembly should the discharge hose from the recovery equipment connect to for liquid recovery?

a)

The liquid port on cylinder

b)

The service plug on cylinder

c)

The relief port on cylinder

d)

The vapour port on cylinder

34.

Where should the hose from the refrigeration system high-side service port connect during liquid recovery setup?

a)

To high-side port of manifold set

b)

To cylinder vapour port fitting

c)

Directly to recovery machine suction

d)

To low-side gauge on manifold

35.

Which manifold valve positions initiate liquid transfer through the manifold during the process?

a)

Open high-side, close low-side

b)

Close both sides completely

c)

Open low-side, close high-side

d)

Open both sides simultaneously

36.

What is the purpose of connecting a hose from the cylinder vapour port to the high-side gauge on the manifold?

a)

Monitor cylinder pressure safely

b)

Allow purging of recovery unit

c)

Measure ambient humidity

d)

Balance suction and discharge

37.

When all liquid has been removed from the system, which recovery mode should be used next to clear remaining refrigerant?

a)

Start push-pull circulation mode

b)

Begin deep vacuum evacuation

c)

Switch to vapour recovery mode

d)

Continue liquid mode indefinitely

38.

Which connection is made to the suction side of the recovery machine during liquid recovery?

a)

The hose from manifold high-side

b)

The hose from system discharge port

c)

The hose from cylinder liquid port

d)

The hose from manifold low-side

39.

To prevent refrigerant loss at connections, which fitting type is specified on hoses used with recovery equipment?

a)

Compression ferrule coupling

b)

High-flow quick connect

c)

Low loss fitting on each end

d)

Standard barbed adapter

40.

Which step ensures you can calculate how much refrigerant can be stored in the recovery cylinder?

a)

Warm cylinder to room temperature

b)

Weigh cylinder and compute capacity

c)

Purge cylinder with dry nitrogen

d)

Measure cylinder internal volume

41.

During liquid recovery, which valves on the recovery cylinder must be opened before starting the recovery system?

a)

Neither valve until purged

b)

Both liquid and vapour valves

c)

Only vapour valve opened

d)

Only liquid valve opened

42.

Which selector setting on the recovery unit should be chosen to begin transferring liquid refrigerant?

a)

Selector set to liquid

b)

Selector set to vapour

c)

Selector set to vacuum

d)

Selector set to purge

43.

What is the correct connection path for liquid refrigerant leaving the refrigeration system during recovery?

a)

System low-side to cylinder vapour

b)

System high-side through manifold to recovery equipment discharge

c)

System suction to recovery equipment suction

d)

System discharge directly to cylinder relief

44.

Why is the high-side valve on the manifold closed while the low-side valve is opened during liquid recovery?

a)

To prevent cylinder scale drift

b)

To increase ambient airflow

c)

To measure superheat precisely

d)

To direct flow through low-side path

45.

What action should be taken with the recovery unit after setup to avoid cross-contamination before actual recovery?

a)

Cool the cylinder with ice

b)

Run a purge of the recovery unit

c)

Adjust manifold gauges to zero

d)

Bleed air into the cylinder

46.

Which step should be done first in vapour recovery to determine capacity?

a)

Open liquid and vapour valves on cylinder

b)

Connect hose to discharge side of recovery unit

c)

Calculate how much refrigerant can be recovered

d)

Place recovery cylinder on scale and zero

47.

Why is the recovery cylinder placed on a scale and zeroed?

a)

To close the high-side valve on the manifold

b)

To monitor cylinder pressure during operation

c)

To measure refrigerant mass added accurately

d)

To set the manifold selector to vapour mode

48.

Which port on the recovery cylinder receives the hose from the discharge side of the recovery equipment?

a)

Centre port of manifold

b)

Cylinder vapour port on cylinder

c)

Cylinder liquid port on cylinder

d)

Low-side service port of system

49.

Where should the hose from the system’s suction service port be connected?

a)

Low-side port of the manifold

b)

High-side valve of the manifold

c)

Cylinder liquid port

d)

Discharge side of recovery equipment

50.

Which connection allows monitoring of cylinder pressure during vapour recovery?

a)

Hose from suction port to low-side manifold

b)

Hose from discharge side to cylinder liquid port

c)

Hose from cylinder vapour port to high-side valve

d)

Hose from manifold center to system high-side

51.

Before starting the recovery system, which valves on the manifold should be set?

a)

Close both low-side and high-side valves

b)

Open both low-side and high-side valves

c)

Open low-side and close high-side valves

d)

Open high-side and close low-side valves

52.

Which valves must be opened on the recovery cylinder when ready to recover vapour?

a)

Neither liquid nor vapour valves

b)

Both liquid and vapour valves

c)

Vapour valve only

d)

Liquid valve only

53.

What does setting the valve selector to “vapour” achieve?

a)

Configures unit to recover refrigerant as vapour

b)

Routes flow through high-side manifold line

c)

Enables purging between recovery methods

d)

Starts closing all valves after recovery

54.

The recovery unit should pull to an appropriate vacuum based on which factor?

a)

Type of refrigerant being recovered

b)

Length of hoses connected

c)

Age of recovery cylinder

d)

Ambient temperature near equipment

55.

When should recovery be stopped relative to cylinder capacity?

a)

When both manifold valves are closed

b)

When the manifold selector is on liquid

c)

When maximum allowable weight is reached

d)

When cylinder internal pressure equals system

56.

Switching from vapour to liquid recovery may require which action?

a)

Increasing cylinder pressure with nitrogen

b)

Opening only the high-side manifold valve

c)

Changing hose connections and unit purging

d)

Removing the cylinder from the scale

57.

After recovery is complete, what is the correct next step?

a)

Close all valves and disconnect or purge

b)

Open all valves and begin purge cycle

c)

Leave valves open to equalize pressures

d)

Switch the selector to liquid and continue

58.

What is the first step before beginning push-pull refrigerant recovery?

a)

Place cylinder on a scale and zero

b)

Weigh cylinder and calculate recovery

c)

Connect manifold center port to vapor

d)

Open the recovery unit valves

59.

Why should the recovery cylinder be placed on a scale and zeroed?

a)

To prevent hose vibration during flow

b)

To test the sight glass for leaks

c)

To measure net refrigerant transferred

d)

To balance pressures in the manifold

60.

Which manifold port connects to the cylinder vapor port during setup?

a)

Low-side manifold port

b)

High-side manifold port

c)

Center manifold port

d)

Discharge recovery port

61.

If the manifold lacks a sight glass, what is recommended?

a)

Use a larger diameter hoses

b)

Switch to vapor-only recovery

c)

Fit a sight glass to the recovery line

d)

Install a filter drier on suction

62.

Where should a hose from the manifold low-side be connected?

a)

Recovery unit discharge side

b)

Recovery cylinder vapor valve

c)

Recovery unit suction side

d)

System high-side service port

63.

Which connection uses low loss fittings on both ends from the recovery unit discharge?

a)

To recovery cylinder liquid valve

b)

To manifold center port

c)

To recovery unit suction side

d)

To system high-side service port

64.

Before moving refrigerant, what must be done to the recovery cylinder valves?

a)

Throttle valves to half open

b)

Close all valves on manifold set

c)

Purge air using the sight glass

d)

Open the valves on recovery cylinder

65.

When should the refrigerant recovery unit be started?

a)

After the scale shows weight gain

b)

After opening recovery cylinder valves

c)

Before any hoses are connected

d)

After switching to vapor recovery mode

66.

Which manifold valve is opened after starting the recovery unit?

a)

Cylinder liquid valve

b)

High-side manifold valve

c)

Center port isolation valve

d)

Low-side manifold valve

67.

What parameter must be monitored throughout push-pull recovery?

a)

System superheat value

b)

Ambient temperature near unit

c)

Sight glass color indicator

d)

Scale reading on cylinder

68.

What indicates it is time to switch the unit to vapor recovery?

a)

Cylinder temperature rises slightly

b)

Scale stops picking up weight

c)

Manifold pressure exceeds setpoint

d)

Sight glass shows bubbles persist

69.

Switching to vapor recovery requires what change?

a)

Cylinder must be swapped out

b)

Manifold gauges must be replaced

c)

Scale must be recalibrated again

d)

Hose connections must be changed

70.

What is the purpose of using low loss fittings in this method?

a)

Reduce scale measurement error

b)

Improve sight glass visibility

c)

Increase cylinder internal pressure

d)

Prevent refrigerant leakage at hoses

71.

Which item must appear on a system data plate to uniquely identify a unit?

a)

Refrigerant class notation

b)

Model or type designation

c)

Manufacturer’s name and logo

d)

Serial number identifier

72.

What information on the data plate specifies the working fluid used in the system?

a)

R.P.M. and oil type

b)

Refrigerant type indicated

c)

Test pressure rating

d)

Open drive or pump type

73.

Which data plate entry defines the quantity of refrigerant mixture components?

a)

Mass of refrigerants listed

b)

Model or type number

c)

Manufacturer’s name printed

d)

Serial number sequence

74.

Which parameter on the data plate relates to mechanical speed and lubricant specification?

a)

Open drive or pump type

b)

Refrigerant category

c)

R.P.M. and oil type

d)

Test pressure limit

75.

Before charging, what must be ensured about the service valves on the receiver and metering device?

a)

Fully open to purge air

b)

Shut to block trapped air

c)

Set to mid-position

d)

Bypassed using a tee

76.

Where does the HP (red) pressure gauge connect during charging setup?

a)

Discharge line of compressor

b)

Service port on refrigerant receiver

c)

Service port on service valve

d)

Liquid valve on cylinder

77.

The LP (blue) gauge connects to which point in the system during setup?

a)

Service port on service valve

b)

Outlet of receiver tank

c)

Cylinder vapor valve

d)

Liquid line solenoid body

78.

Why is a magnet placed on the solenoid valve during charging preparation?

a)

To calibrate pressure gauges

b)

To seal the LP gauge port

c)

To keep the solenoid valve open

d)

To mark liquid line direction

79.

For first-time charging, which hose connects to the cylinder’s liquid (red) valve?

a)

Blue hose from LP gauge

b)

Yellow hose from manifold

c)

Red hose from HP gauge

d)

Green hose from recovery

80.

When removing trapped air from hoses during initial charge, which valve is opened first?

a)

HP gauge then LP gauge

b)

Cylinder red liquid valve

c)

LP gauge then HP gauge

d)

Service valve by receiver

81.

After pressurizing the hoses, what is the correct sequence with the gauges to bleed air?

a)

Open HP and LP simultaneously

b)

Close both, open service valve

c)

Open LP, close LP, open HP

d)

Open HP, close HP, open LP

82.

During recharge after recovery, which components remain sealed indicating no air in those lines?

a)

Receiver outlet sealed

b)

HP and LP gauges sealed

c)

Yellow hose sealed

d)

Service valve sealed

83.

In a recharge after recovery, where is trapped air likely present and needs bleeding?

a)

In the yellow service hose

b)

Inside the receiver tank

c)

At the solenoid coil body

d)

Within the compressor head

84.

How do you pressurize the yellow hose to purge air during recharge?

a)

Open service valve port

b)

Open compressor discharge

c)

Open LP gauge valve

d)

Open cylinder red valve

85.

Which data plate detail informs whether the machine uses open drive or pump configuration?

a)

Open drive or pump type

b)

Serial number code

c)

Test pressure label

d)

Refrigerant listing

86.

What does the test pressure entry on a data plate primarily indicate?

a)

Maximum allowable working pressure

b)

Operating temperature limits

c)

Electrical supply requirements

d)

Compressor displacement value

87.

Which visual indicator in a sight glass suggests proper liquid charging flow during operation?

a)

Clear liquid without bubbles

b)

Continuous bubbles present

c)

Foam forming at outlet

d)

Milky appearance in glass