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Chapter 7 & 8 Quiz MED 203

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best reflects mental health prevalence in the United States each year?

a)

About 1 in 10 Americans diagnosed annually

b)

About 1 in 5 Americans diagnosed annually

c)

About 1 in 8 Americans diagnosed annually

d)

About 1 in 3 Americans diagnosed annually

2.

Which resource is primarily used by clinicians to classify and diagnose mental disorders?

a)

MMPI personality inventory

b)

DSM-V diagnostic manual

c)

PHQ-9 depression screener

d)

ICD-11 international coding system

3.

During a Mental Status Examination, which domain would include assessing hallucinations as false perceptions?

a)

Appearance and motor activity domain

b)

Mood and affect domain

c)

Thought content and judgment domain

d)

Perceptions domain within mood

4.

Which factor pairing best captures the nature vs. nurture distinction in mental health?

a)

Biology versus social stigma impacts

b)

Brain structure versus life expectancy trends

c)

Genetics versus environmental influences

d)

Heritability versus diagnostic criteria lists

5.

Which statement aligns with global impact projections for mental disorders by 2030?

a)

Expected to be most prevalent disease worldwide

b)

Expected to be least prevalent worldwide

c)

Expected to decline due to better insurance

d)

Expected to remain regionally limited

6.

Which consideration reflects how culture, race, age, and gender influence mental health?

a)

Symptoms present uniformly across groups

b)

Symptom presentation varies; stigma higher for men

c)

Insurance access is equal across populations

d)

Lifespan is unaffected by mental disorders

7.

Which feature best differentiates Major Depressive Disorder from Persistent Depressive Disorder (dysthymia)?

a)

Episodes with profound impairment and vegetative changes

b)

Chronic low mood lasting years with milder symptoms

c)

Alternating sadness and elevated energy across weeks

d)

Mood reactivity to positive events with brief relief

8.

A patient alternates between episodes of depression and mania. Which diagnosis fits this pattern?

a)

Major depressive disorder with mixed features

b)

Cyclothymic spectrum disorder with hypomania only

c)

Persistent depressive disorder with mood variability

d)

Bipolar disorder with mood state alternation

9.

Which symptom cluster is most consistent with schizophrenia?

a)

Expansive mood, decreased need for sleep

b)

Catatonia, alogia, echolalia, avolition

c)

Compulsions, obsessions, checking rituals

d)

Hypervigilance, flashbacks, avoidance

10.

In Generalized Anxiety Disorder, the core clinical feature is best described as:

a)

Intrusive thoughts followed by repetitive behaviors

b)

Sudden terror with autonomic surges and fear of dying

c)

Persistent and excessive worry about multiple domains

d)

Fear of specific objects or situations causing avoidance

11.

Which statement about OCD is most accurate?

a)

Panic attacks arise unexpectedly with intense fear

b)

Avoidance is limited to circumscribed phobic stimuli

c)

Excessive worry occurs without clear triggers or rituals

d)

Persistent thoughts drive ritualized actions reducing distress

12.

PTSD is most closely linked to dysfunction in which brain region?

a)

Hippocampus with spatial memory encoding

b)

Amygdala with altered threat processing

c)

Basal ganglia with motor habit formation

d)

Prefrontal cortex with executive control

13.

Which personality disorder is primarily characterized by disregard for others?

a)

Borderline with affective instability and impulsivity

b)

Antisocial with rule violations and callousness

c)

Narcissistic with grandiosity and fragile self-esteem

d)

Avoidant with hypersensitivity to rejection and shame

14.

Psychological addiction is best defined as:

a)

Withdrawal symptoms after abrupt cessation

b)

Acute intoxication causing impaired judgment

c)

Physiologic tolerance requiring higher doses

d)

Compulsive drug seeking driven by learned reward

15.

Which statement best describes the epidermis within the skin’s layered structure?

a)

Deep fat layer offering insulation and cushioning

b)

Middle layer giving strength with nerves and vessels

c)

Outer layer providing keratin and melanocytes

d)

Accessory region containing hair and nail matrices

16.

Which accessory structure primarily aids in thermoregulation by secreting sweat?

a)

Subcutaneous adipose tissues

b)

Keratinocytes in the epidermis

c)

Sebaceous glands near follicles

d)

Sudoriferous glands in the dermis

17.

A patient presents with thick, flaky plaques and pruritus. Which condition is most consistent with these features?

a)

Dermatophytosis causing tinea pedis

b)

Psoriasis with rapid epidermal turnover

c)

Rosacea with facial flushing episodes

d)

Acne vulgaris with comedonal lesions

18.

Which treatment approach aligns with first-line management for acne vulgaris?

a)

Laser therapy targeting telangiectasia

b)

Systemic biologics for autoimmune control

c)

UV phototherapy and coal tar agents

d)

Topical antibacterials with hygiene guidance

19.

Which pattern best differentiates rosacea from acne vulgaris in adults?

a)

Pruritic vesicles from fungal organisms

b)

Facial erythema with flushing and rhinophyma

c)

Extensor plaques with silvery scaling

d)

Comedones with papules and pustules

20.

A bedbound patient develops pressure injury. Which prevention strategy is most appropriate?

a)

UV therapy to reduce inflammation

b)

Oral antibiotics and hygiene education

c)

Coal tar application to affected areas

d)

Frequent repositioning with pressure relief

21.

Which description correctly matches a carbuncle?

a)

Cluster of boils with multiple drainage sites

b)

Single boil centered on a hair follicle

c)

Diffuse cellulitis without focal lesions

d)

Small comedone obstructing a sebaceous pore

22.

Which fungal infection term correctly pairs with the affected site?

a)

Tinea corporis affecting the groin

b)

Tinea cruris affecting the scalp

c)

Tinea capitis affecting the nails

d)

Tinea pedis affecting the feet

23.

Which feature most likely indicates impetigo rather than eczema on a child’s face?

a)

Depigmented patches with absent melanocytes

b)

Painful vesicles tracking along a nerve line

c)

Honey-colored crusted pustules with contagion risk

d)

Dry scaling plaques with chronic pruritus

24.

A nurse suspects contact dermatitis after a patient develops a red itchy rash under a new watchband. What is the most appropriate first step?

a)

Start systemic antibiotics for bacterial eradication

b)

Administer epinephrine for airway protection

c)

Remove the irritant and apply corticosteroid cream

d)

Begin antivirals to reduce viral replication

25.

Herpes zoster typically presents as which pattern of skin findings?

a)

Painful vesicular rash following a dermatomal line

b)

Diffuse depigmentation from melanocyte destruction

c)

Greasy scales due to sebaceous gland disorder

d)

Nodular lesions unrelated to nerve tracts

26.

Which preventive advice most directly lowers malignant melanoma risk?

a)

Consistent sun protection with early skin checks

b)

Avoid latex products in healthcare settings

c)

Topical antibiotics after minor abrasions

d)

Daily humidifiers to reduce skin dryness

27.
Comorbidity is when
a)
a person is likely to die from the symptoms of the disorder
b)
two or more disorders occur in the same person
c)
two related people experience the same disorder
d)
disorders are not able to be treated by standard procedures
28.
Which of the following is an example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
a)
Hallucinations
b)
Flat affect
c)
Catatonia
d)
Social withdrawal
29.
Obsessive-compulsive behavior, panic, and phobias are formally classified as __________ disorders.
a)
Psychotic 
b)
Manic
c)
Personality 
d)
Anxiety 
30.

Vic has unpredictable and repeated attacks of overwhelming anxiety that frequently leave him dizzy, nauseous, short of breath, and in tears. A psychologist is likely to view Vic's behavior as indicative of

a)

a panic disorder

b)

a psychotic breakdown

c)

a dissociative reaction

d)

a phobia

e)

an obsession