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TS ECET 2023

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

..................is used to scribing two parallel lines at a time on a wooden work surface

a)

Feeler gauge

b)

Mortise gauge

c)

Bevel gauge

d)

Marking gauge

2.

What is the name of the chisel used to chip-off excess metal of welded joints and castings?

a)

Cross cut chisel

b)

Half round nose chisel

c)

Flat chisel

d)

Diamond point chisel

3.

Which of the following process belong to forging operation

a)

Welding

b)

Drawing

c)

Piercing

d)

Fullering

4.

The following one is applied to improve the surface finish of the casting

a)

Saw dust

b)

Coal dust

c)

Facing sand

d)

Iron oxide

5.

The purpose of metallic chills used in casting is to

a)

Increase in strength of the casting

b)

Directional solidification

c)

Progressive solidification

d)

Avoid all the defects

6.

Investment casting is also called as

a)

Centrifugal casting

b)

Lost wax method

c)

Cold chamber die casting

d)

Shell moulding

7.

............pattern is used when the contour of the part is such that, withdrawing the pattern from the mould is not possible

a)

Match plate

b)

Sweep

c)

Follow board

d)

Loose piece

8.

In a broaching tool, the teeth which are responsible for heaviest cutting is called

a)

Smooth teeth

b)

Finishing teeth

c)

Semi finishing teeth

d)

Rough teeth

9.

Metal removal rate of a shaper with cutting speed of 40m min140\,\text{m min}^{-1} , feed rate 0.5mm0.5\,\text{mm} per stroke and depth of cut 5mm5\,\text{mm} is

a)

1000000mm3min11000000\,\text{mm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}

b)

1000000m3min11000000\,\text{m}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}

c)

1000mm3min11000\,\text{mm}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}

d)

10000m3min110000\,\text{m}^3\,\text{min}^{-1}

10.

In a slotting machine the part which houses complete driving mechanism is

a)

Ram

b)

Column

c)

Table

d)

Base

11.

Which driving mechanism of planing machine do not have speed reduction gear box

a)

Crank drive

b)

Direct reversible drive

c)

Belt drive

d)

Hydraulic drive

12.

Which one of the following is not a desirable property of a cutting fluid

a)

High heat absorption capacity

b)

Preventing adhesion of metal on tool point

c)

Good lubrication

d)

Low flash point stability

13.

A welding process in which a heavy electric current is passed through the metals to be joined over a limited area, causing them to be locally heated to plastic state and the weld is completed by application of pressure for a prescribed time is

a)

Flash welding

b)

Resistance welding

c)

Cold welding

d)

Forge welding

14.

The ingredient of electrode used in welding which provides a reducing gas shield and increases arc voltage is

a)

Potassium aluminum silicate

b)

Cellulose

c)

Ruitle

d)

Metal carbonate

15.

In a fluted milling cutter, the inclined angle between the land and the face of the tooth is called

a)

Clearance angle

b)

Radial rake angle

c)

Lip angle

d)

Relief angle

16.

A milling operation that uses a combination of more than two cutters mounted on a common arbor is called

a)

Gang milling

b)

Straddle milling

c)

Slab milling

d)

Angular milling

17.

The term that indicates the spacing between abrasive grains on a grinding wheel is

a)

Structure

b)

Grain

c)

Grit

d)

Grade

18.

The surface finishing operation performed after polishing to provide a high lustre to the polished surface is

a)

Superfinishing

b)

Honing

c)

Buffing

d)

Lapping

19.

The operation through which a metal is cut along a single line, usually a straight line, is

a)

Shearing

b)

Notching

c)

Trimming

d)

Parting

20.

The locators used to locate work from an external profile or outside edge are

a)

Diamond pin locators

b)

Pin locators

c)

Profile locators

d)

Vee locators

21.

The degree of closeness of the measured value of a quantity to its true value is called

a)

Accuracy

b)

Sensitivity

c)

Precision

22.

Limit gauges are used to:

a)

measure flatness of the component

b)

check if the component dimension lies within permissible limits

c)

measure surface roughness of the component

d)

measure exact size of the component

23.

The surface roughness can be measured with

a)

Sigma Comparator

b)

Autocollimator

c)

Sine bar

d)

Talysurf

24.

The tolerances of the dimension 55±0.0255^{\pm0.02} and 400.03+0.0240_{-0.03}^{+0.02_{ }} are

a)

0.09 and 0.02

b)

0.01 and 0.06

c)

0.03 and 0.07

d)

0.04 and 0.05

25.

The straight portion of the surface, on either side of screw is called

a)

Pitch

b)

Flank

c)

Root

d)

Crest

26.

_______is an application technology that uses computer software and machinery to facilitate automate manufacturing processes

a)

Computer integrated manufacturing

b)

Computer aided engineering

c)

Computer aided manufacturing

d)

Computer aided design

27.

What happens to labour workforce when FMS concept is used

a)

Increases and then decreases

b)

Decreases

c)

Increases

d)

Gradually increases with time

28.

Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in

a)

Central Computer Numerical Control machine tool

b)

Computer Numerical Control machine tool

c)

Direct Numerical Control machine tool

d)

Numerical Control machine tool

29.

N001 G00 X07000 Y03000 M03 N002 Y06000. In this M03 represents

a)

Start spindle rotation

b)

Clockwise circular interpolation

c)

Absolute command

30.

The study of motion without regard to forces is known as

a)

Kinematics

b)

Dynamics

c)

Actuator

d)

Sensor

31.

In polytropic process equation where PVnPV^{n} is constant, if n=0n=0 , the process is termed as

a)

Isobaric

b)

Adiabatic

c)

Isothermal

d)

Isochoric

32.

In an internal combustion engine, during the compression stroke the heat rejected to the cooling water is 50 kJ/kg and the work input is 100 kJ/kg. The change in internal energy is

a)

-150 kJ/kg

b)

150 kJ/kg

c)

50 kJ/kg

d)

-50 kJ/kg

33.

The heat required to raise unit mass of a solid or liquid through one degree temperature rise is called as

a)

Enthalpy

b)

Entropy

c)

Specific heat

d)

Calorific value

34.

“The internal energy of a perfect gas is a function of the absolute temperature only” This statement is given by

a)

Gay-Lussac’s law

b)

Dalton’s law

c)

Avogadro’s law

d)

Joule’s law

35.

The first stage in the formation of a coal is

a)

Bituminous

b)

Anthracite

c)

Peat

d)

Semi-anthracite

36.

Stoichiometric mixture of air and the fuel is one that contains

a)

Just sufficient oxygen for complete combustion

b)

No air

c)

Deficiency of air

d)

Excess of air

37.

The energy liberated by the complete oxidation of a unit mass or volume of a fuel is called as

a)

Calorific value

b)

Enthalpy

c)

Entropy

d)

Specific heat

38.

An Otto cycle consists of the following processes

a)

Two adiabatic and two isothermal

b)

Two adiabatic and two polytropic

c)

Two adiabatic and two isochoric

d)

Two adiabatic and two isobaric

39.

A Carnot engine working between 227°C and 27°C produces 120 kJ of work. The heat added is

a)

300 kJ

b)

24 kJ

c)

240 kJ

d)

136 kJ

40.

In a four stroke cycle engine

a)

One power stroke is obtained in every two revolution of crank shaft

b)

One power stroke is obtained in each revolution of crank shaft

c)

Power stroke is not obtained in the cycle

d)

One power is obtained in every four revolution of crank shaft

41.

The total power developed by combustion of fuel in the combustion chamber is called as

a)

Friction power

b)

Brake power

c)

Indicated power

d)

Shaft power

42.

Brake thermal efficiency of an engine is given as

a)

Brake power / (Mass of fuel × Calorific value)

b)

(Mass of fuel × calorific value) / Brake power

c)

Mass of fuel / (Brake power × calorific value)

d)

(Brake power × Mass of fuel) / Calorific value

43.

A closed cycle constant pressure gas turbine works on

a)

Rankine cycle

b)

Carnot cycle

c)

Joule cycle

d)

Stirling cycle

44.

The main constructional feature of a ram jet engine is

a)

Having reduction gears

b)

Having Propeller

c)

Having oxidizer tank

d)

Absence of compressor and turbine

45.

The saturation temperature of steam at 6 bar is 158.8°C, temperature of steam was found to be 170°C. The steam will be

a)

Dry saturated steam

b)

Superheated steam

c)

Wet steam

d)

Compressed liquid water

46.

In which of the following boiler, hot gases flow inside the tubes surrounded by water.

a)

Lamont boiler

b)

Cochran boiler

c)

Babcock and Wilcox boiler

d)

Benson boiler

47.

The boiler draught in which a fan is installed near the base of the boiler to force the air through the furnace.

a)

Forced draught

b)

Balanced draught

c)

Induced draught

d)

Natural draught

48.

Superheated steam at 2 bar expands in a convergent–divergent nozzle. For maximum discharge, the critical pressure at throat will be

a)

0.578 bar

b)

0.546 bar

c)

1.156 bar

d)

1.092 bar

49.

During which of the following process does heat rejection take place in Carnot vapour cycle

a)

Isentropic expansion

b)

Isentropic compression

c)

Isothermal compression

d)

Isothermal expansion

50.

The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as

a)

Air

b)

Perfect gas

c)

Steam

d)

Vapour

51.

The reheat cycle in steam power plant is mainly adopted to

a)

Decrease the capacity of condenser

b)

Recover the waste heat of boiler

c)

Improve thermal efficiency

d)

Decrease the moisture content in low pressure stages to a safe value

52.

Boiler rating is usually defined in terms of

a)

Heat transfer rate in kJ/hr

b)

Steam output in kg/hr

c)

Maximum temperature of steam in Kelvin

d)

Heat transfer area in square meter

53.

A surface condenser used in a steam power station, under cooling of condensate is undesirable due to

a)

Reduce efficiency of the plant

b)

Increase thermal stresses in the condenser

c)

Non absorption of gases in steam

d)

Increase the cooling water requirements

54.

Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine to practical limits

a)

Large flywheel

b)

Gear box

c)

Centrifugal governor

d)

Compounding of the turbine

55.

Lami’s theorem states that if a point is in equilibrium under the action of three concurrent forces, then each force is proportional to the α of the angle between the other two forces, where α stands for

a)

Tan

b)

Cosec

c)

Sin

d)

Sec

56.

Turning of steering wheel of the car is an example of

a)

Couple

b)

Torque

c)

Force

d)

Impulse

57.

The moment of inertia (I) of a triangular section of height h and base b about an axis passing through the centroid and parallel to the base is given by

a)

bh3/12bh^3/12

b)

bh3/2bh^3/2

c)

bh3/16bh^3/16

d)

bh3/36bh^3/36

58.

The centre of gravity of semi-circle of radius R is

a)

2R/π2R/\pi from the base

b)

R/3πR/3\pi from the base

c)

4R/3π4R/3\pi from the base

d)

4R/π4R/\pi from the base

59.

_____ materials are capable of absorbing little elastic deformation and negligible plastic deformation before fracture

a)

Plastic

b)

Ductile

c)

Elastic

d)

Brittle

60.

Poisson’s ratio for Rubber varies from

a)

0.45 to 0.50

b)

0.2 to 0.50

c)

0.25 to 0.33

d)

0.1 to 0.40

61.

The point of contra flexure in a loaded beam is one where

a)

The bending moment changes sign

b)

The bending moment is maximum

c)

The shear force is maximum

d)

The shear forces change sign

62.

A uniformly distributed load w (kN/m) is acting over the entire length of 8 m long cantilever beam. If the bending moment at the fixed end is 64 kN-m, what is the value of w?

a)

8

b)

3

c)

2

d)

6

63.

A beam of 200 mm wide and 200 mm deep is simply supported over a span of 5 meters. If the beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 4 kN/m, find the section modulus of the beam

a)

6.75×1066.75 \times 10^6 mm^3

b)

1.33×1061.33 \times 10^6 mm^3

c)

5.33×1065.33 \times 10^6 mm^3

d)

4.16×1064.16 \times 10^6 mm^3

64.

A beam 3 m long simply supported at its ends is carrying a point load of 16 kN at its centre. The moment of inertia of the beam is given as equal to 6×1076 \times 10^7 mm^4. If E for the material of the beam is 3×1053 \times 10^5 N/mm^2, what is the deflection at the centre of the beam?

a)

5 mm

b)

0.5 mm

c)

8 mm

d)

0.8 mm

65.

A solid shaft under torsion, shear stress at the outer surface is

a)

Average

b)

Maximum

c)

Zero

d)

Minimum

66.

Which of the following assumption is not true for theory of torsion

a)

The twist along the shaft is uniform

b)

The material of the shaft is uniform throughout

c)

The shaft is uniform circular cross section throughout

d)

Cross section of the shaft, is not plane before and after twist

67.

The distance measured parallel to the axis between corresponding points on adjacent thread forms in the same axial plane section and on the same side of the axis is called as

a)

Lead

b)

Depth of thread

c)

Pitch

d)

Lead angle

68.

The types of gears used to connect two intersecting coplanar shafts is

a)

Bevel gear

b)

Spur gear

c)

Spiral gear

d)

Helical gear

69.

V-belts are suitable for transmission of power between two shafts having

a)

Long centre distance

b)

Angular alignment

c)

Shorter distance

d)

Not used in power transmission

70.

The key that transmits power through frictional resistance only is

a)

Woodruff key

b)

Sunk key

c)

Saddle key

d)

Tangent key

71.

Stud is a machine element that has

a)

Threads on both the ends

b)

Threads on only one end

c)

No threads

d)

Threads on one end with head on the other end

72.

Fluids for which the rate of deformation is proportional to the shear stress are called

a)

Newtonian fluids

b)

Bingham plastic

c)

Dilantant

d)

Pseudo plastic

73.

The continuity equation is the result of application of the following law for the flow field

a)

Conservation of energy

b)

First law of thermodynamics

c)

Conservation of mass

d)

Newton second law of motion

74.

The difference between the energy line and hydraulic gradient line is called

a)

Static head

b)

Pressure head

c)

Potential head

d)

Velocity head

75.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 Euler’s equation of motion

a)

Is applicable to any fluid

b)

Considers only the pressure forces acting on a real fluid

c)

Considers gravity and viscous forces acting on a real fluid

d)

Considers only gravity and pressure forces acting on an in-viscous fluid

76.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 Loss of head at the exit of pipe is

a)

V2/gV^2/g

b)

V2/2gV^2/2g

c)

0.5V2/2g0.5V^2/2g

d)

2V2/g2V^2/g

77.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 Under most practical conditions, the flow in a circular pipe is laminar if

a)

Re4000Re \ge 4000

b)

Reynolds number is not applicable

c)

Re2300Re \le 2300

d)

Re=10000Re = 10000

78.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 When a steady jet of water impinges on a stationary inclined plane surface and if the fluid friction is neglected, the resultant force on the plane

a)

Is in the direction of the jet flow

b)

Flow direction cannot be determined

c)

Is tangential to the surface

d)

Is normal to the surface

79.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 To avoid cavitation, we must ensure that the local pressure everywhere inside the pump should be

a)

Below the vapour pressure

b)

Above the vapour pressure

c)

Gauge pressure

d)

Equal to atmospheric pressure

80.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 High specific speed (300rpm to 800rpm) and low heads (below 30 m) indicate that the turbine is

a)

Francis

b)

Pelton wheel

c)

Propeller

d)

Kaplan

81.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 A pump is defined as a device which converts

a)

Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy

b)

Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy

c)

Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy

d)

Mechanical energy into Kinetic energy

82.

Correct Marks: 1 Wrong Marks: 0 Centrifugal pumps with forward-inclined blades generally have

a)

A lower maximum efficiency than straight-bladed pumps

b)

A higher maximum efficiency than straight-bladed pumps

c)

The same efficiency as straight-bladed pumps

d)

Efficiency independent of blade inclination

83.

Which of the following is not a turbomachine

a)

Kaplan turbine

b)

Reciprocating pump

c)

Fans

d)

Centrifugal pump

84.

The ability of a material to resist indentation or penetration is called as

a)

Resistance

b)

Strength

c)

Hardness

d)

Toughness

85.

The slow and progressive deformation of a material with time at constant stress is called as

a)

Brittleness

b)

Creep

c)

Fracture

d)

Fatigue

86.

In grey cast iron the carbon is in the form of

a)

Cementite

b)

Spheroids

c)

Iron carbide

d)

Graphite flakes

87.

18:4:1 High speed steel contains the following metals respectively

a)

Tungsten, Vanadium, Chromium

b)

Tungsten, Chromium, Vanadium

c)

Chromium, Tungsten, Vanadium

d)

Vanadium, Chromium, Tungsten

88.

Babbit metal is an alloy of the following

a)

Copper, Antimony, Bismuth

b)

Copper, Tin, Chromium

c)

Copper, Tin, Bismuth

d)

Copper, Antimony, Tin

89.

Solid solution of carbon in α- iron is called

a)

Austenite

b)

Pearlite

c)

Ferrite

d)

Martensite

90.

The product from blast furnace is

a)

Pig iron

b)

Wrought iron

c)

Mild steel

d)

Cast iron

91.

The chemical formula for Cementite is

a)

Fe2C3

b)

FeC3

c)

Fe3C

d)

FeC

92.

Cupola is used to make

a)

Wrought iron

b)

Pig iron

c)

Cast iron

d)

Steel

93.

During normalizing operation, the steel castings are cooled in

a)

A water bath

b)

Vegetable oil

c)

An oil bath

d)

Air

94.

Line organization is used in

a)

Banking sector

b)

Civil engineering constructions

c)

Marketing sector

d)

Hospital management

95.

Which of the following layouts is suited to job production

a)

Product layout

b)

Process layout

c)

Functional layout

d)

Plant layout

96.

Which of the following represents India in ISO

a)

FSSAI

b)

BCCI

c)

BIS

d)

PFRDA

97.

The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is

a)

High/Supreme court

b)

Management

c)

Labour court

d)

President

98.

In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the

a)

Lot corresponding to break-even point

b)

Highest level of inventory

c)

Capability of a plant to produce

d)

Optimum lot size

99.

The grouping of activities into organizational units is called

a)

Centralization

b)

Corporate plans

c)

Company policy

d)

Departmentation

100.

ISO 9000 stands for

a)

Qualification management standards

b)

Quality marketing system

c)

Quantity management standards

d)

Quality management standards