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Worksheets2205 exam 1 pt.2
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
A client has cervical cancer with lower vaginal involvement and ureter obstruction with pelvic lymph node involvement. Which stage matches?
Stage 3
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 4
Which diagnostic procedure confirms cervical cancer after abnormal Pap/HPV screening?
Ultrasound only
Biopsy with histologic evaluation (often via colposcopy-directed biopsy)
Serum CA-125 only
Mammography
Vaginal cancer risk is most associated with which factor?
HPV infection and history of cervical cancer
Low BMI
High calcium intake
Use of condoms
A nurse suspects vulvar cancer. Which diagnostic approach is most appropriate?
Diagnose by symptoms only—no tissue needed
MRI brain with contrast
Biopsy of the visible lesion (or colposcopy if no visible lesion)
Semen analysis
A nurse is teaching vulvar cancer risk factors. Which is included?
Vulvar lichen sclerosus and smoking
Lactose intolerance
Seasonal allergies
High HDL
A client reports amenorrhea. What is the best definition?
Absence of menstrual flow
Painful menstruation
Heavy menstrual bleeding
Irregular breast tenderness
A nurse differentiates primary vs secondary amenorrhea. Which describes primary amenorrhea?
No menses by age 15 with normal breast development
No menses for 1 cycle only
Menses stop for 1 week
Menses occur every 10 days
Which manifestation may accompany amenorrhea per the notes?
Severe fishy odor
Low BMI and/or hirsutism
Bloody nipple discharge
Chancre
A nurse is evaluating secondary amenorrhea. What is the first priority test?
Pregnancy test (hCG)
CA-125
Pap test
Mammogram
Which endocrine labs are appropriate in an amenorrhea workup?
Troponin and BNP
TSH/free thyroxine, prolactin, testosterone, estradiol
ESR and CRP only
Sodium and chloride only
Dysmenorrhea is best defined as:
Painful menstruation
Absence of menses
Postmenopausal bleeding
Cervical tissue herniation
Which mechanism contributes to dysmenorrhea in the notes?
Low platelets
Excess insulin
Prostaglandin secretion leading to uterine contractions
HPV replication
Which manifestation is consistent with dysmenorrhea per the notes?
Dyspareunia only
Back/thigh pain, nausea/diarrhea, fatigue, headaches
Painless genital ulcer
Fever with cervical motion tenderness
A nurse is teaching pharmacologic management of dysmenorrhea. Which medication is most directly linked to prostaglandin inhibition?
Ibuprofen (NSAID)
Metformin
Valacyclovir
Fluconazole
Endometriosis risk factors include which finding?
Early menstruation and late menopause
High HDL and low LDL
Daily condom use
Low estrogen states
A nurse explains endometriosis. Which statement is accurate?
It is growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity and can cause infertility and chronic pelvic pain.
It is a bacterial infection of the vagina.
It is always painless.
It only occurs after menopause.
Which medication from the notes is used as a GnRH agonist option for endometriosis management?
Leuprolide
Ceftriaxone
Clindamycin
Penicillin G
A client with suspected endometriosis asks how diagnosis is confirmed. Which answer is most accurate?
Diagnosis requires Pap test only
History and evaluation may be supported by ultrasound; surgical evaluation may be used
CA-125 alone confirms diagnosis
Wet mount microscopy confirms diagnosis
A nurse is planning teaching for PMS. Which timing pattern supports PMS rather than a chronic mood disorder?
Symptoms occur cyclically before menses and resolve shortly after onset of cycle
Symptoms occur randomly without pattern
Symptoms worsen steadily all month
Symptoms begin only after menopause
PMDD is best described as:
A severe, cyclic mood disorder that interferes with ADLs
A fungal infection of the cervix
A benign breast tumor
A cancer staging term
Which medication is first-line for PMDD according to the notes?
SSRIs such as sertraline/fluoxetine/citalopram
Ceftriaxone
Penicillin G
Letrozole
A client with PMS has significant bloating and fluid retention. Which medication in the notes targets this symptom?
Metronidazole
Spironolactone
Zidovudine
Podofilox
A nurse is teaching about menopause. Which definition is correct?
Menopause is the first year of menstruation
Menopause is 6 months without menses after delivery
Menopause is 12 months of amenorrhea due to cessation of ovarian follicular activity
Menopause is any irregular cycle pattern
Which hormone pattern is expected post-menopause?
Increased estrogen, decreased FSH
Decreased estrogen/progesterone with increased FSH
Increased progesterone with decreased LDL
Increased prolactin with increased BBT
A perimenopausal client reports painful intercourse. Which term matches this manifestation?
Dyspareunia
Dysuria
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
A nurse evaluates irregular bleeding in a perimenopausal client. Which tests are appropriate per the notes to rule out other causes?
CA-125 and AFP
ABG and lactate
ESR and CRP only
Pregnancy test, TSH, prolactin
A nurse is teaching HRT. Why is progesterone included when the client has a uterus?
To offset uterine cancer risk associated with estrogen stimulation of the endometrium
To treat BV
To cure HPV
To treat ovarian torsion
Which complication is emphasized as a menopause-related risk?
Osteoporosis and increased fracture risk due to decreased bone mass
Immediate infertility reversal
Decreased LDL
Increased ovarian cyst rupture in all clients
A client on hormone therapy develops unilateral leg swelling and chest pain. Which complication is most concerning?
Venous thrombosis/embolism
Fibrocystic changes
Trichomoniasis
Cervicitis
A nurse teaches osteoporosis prevention. Which plan is best supported by the notes?
Avoid weight-bearing activity
Restrict calcium intake
Weight-bearing exercise plus calcium-rich foods (yogurt, cheese, leafy greens, salmon)
Increase alcohol intake
Which osteoporosis medication class delays bone loss and has significant GI teaching (upright after dosing, water, empty stomach)?
Parathyroid hormone
Bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate, risedronate)
SSRIs
Antivirals
A client taking alendronate reports severe heartburn and difficulty swallowing. What is the best nurse action?
Reassure this is expected and continue
Hold the dose and notify the provider (possible esophagitis)
Add a high-fat meal with the medication
Crush the tablet and take at bedtime
Raloxifene is best described as:
Preserves beneficial estrogen effects for bone without stimulating breast/uterine tissues in the same way
Treats chlamydia
Treats BV
A GnRH agonist for IVF cycle timing
A client has severe osteoporosis with high fracture risk. Which medication type from the notes is used for high fracture risk cases?
Fluconazole
Penicillin G
Parathyroid hormone (e.g., teriparatide)
Metronidazole
A nurse is teaching infertility definitions. Which is correct for a woman under 35?
Infertility = inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse
Infertility = inability to conceive after 1 month
Infertility = inability to conceive after 24 months only
Infertility = any irregular cycle
Which emotional impact is specifically noted as associated with infertility?
Mild boredom only
Mania only
No mental health effect
Depression, anxiety, and possible PTSD
Male infertility: which cause is highlighted as common in the notes?
Spermatogenesis defect
Excess progesterone sensitivity
HPV infection
Low LDL
Semen analysis teaching: which instruction is correct?
Use saliva as lubricant to aid collection
Abstain from ejaculation for 2–7 days prior to sample
Collect only the first half of ejaculate
Delay transport for 6 hours
Female infertility evaluation: which test assesses fallopian tube patency?
Hysterosalpingogram
Mammogram
Pap test
Wet mount
Ovulation assessment: which lab is checked midluteal to confirm ovulation?
Prolactin
Progesterone
Troponin
CA-125
A nurse teaches ovulation induction. Which medication is a SERM used to induce ovulation?
Clomiphene citrate
Metronidazole
Penicillin G
Acyclovir
Which medication is an aromatase inhibitor used as an alternative to clomiphene for ovulation induction?
Bromocriptine
Letrozole
Sertraline
Valacyclovir
A client with infertility has elevated prolactin suppressing ovulation. Which medication from the notes reduces prolactin?
Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)
Ceftriaxone
Fluconazole
Clindamycin
Gonadotropin therapy risks include:
Only mild headache
Guaranteed single fetus
Increased risk of multiple gestation
Permanent uterine prolapse
A client undergoing IVF is prescribed leuprolide in the protocol. What is the main purpose noted?
Control/suppress cycle timing and reduce OHSS risk in IVF protocols
Treat yeast infection
Treat BV
Treat HSV
Which ART procedure involves placing washed sperm into the uterus near ovulation, with fertilization occurring in vivo?
IVF
ICSI
ZIFT
IUI
Which ART procedure involves fertilization outside the body in a lab dish with embryo transfer to the uterus?
IVF
GIFT
IUI
ZIFT
ICSI is best described as:
Egg and sperm placed into fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization
Zygote placed into tube after in vitro fertilization
A single sperm injected into an egg, then embryo transferred
A sperm sample inserted into cervix with no timing needed
GIFT differs from IVF primarily because:
Fertilization occurs in vivo in the fallopian tube after placing sperm + eggs into the tube
It uses donor eggs only
It requires no ovulation induction
It is used only for male infertility
ZIFT is best described as:
Washed sperm inserted into uterus only
Fertilized egg (zygote) created in vitro then placed into fallopian tube
Fertilization occurs in cervix
A pessary is inserted into vagina
