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2205 exam 1 pt.2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client has cervical cancer with lower vaginal involvement and ureter obstruction with pelvic lymph node involvement. Which stage matches?

a)

Stage 3

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 2

d)

Stage 4

2.

Which diagnostic procedure confirms cervical cancer after abnormal Pap/HPV screening?

a)

Ultrasound only

b)

Biopsy with histologic evaluation (often via colposcopy-directed biopsy)

c)

Serum CA-125 only

d)

Mammography

3.

Vaginal cancer risk is most associated with which factor?

a)

HPV infection and history of cervical cancer

b)

Low BMI

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Use of condoms

4.

A nurse suspects vulvar cancer. Which diagnostic approach is most appropriate?

a)

Diagnose by symptoms only—no tissue needed

b)

MRI brain with contrast

c)

Biopsy of the visible lesion (or colposcopy if no visible lesion)

d)

Semen analysis

5.

A nurse is teaching vulvar cancer risk factors. Which is included?

a)

Vulvar lichen sclerosus and smoking

b)

Lactose intolerance

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

High HDL

6.

A client reports amenorrhea. What is the best definition?

a)

Absence of menstrual flow

b)

Painful menstruation

c)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

d)

Irregular breast tenderness

7.

A nurse differentiates primary vs secondary amenorrhea. Which describes primary amenorrhea?

a)

No menses by age 15 with normal breast development

b)

No menses for 1 cycle only

c)

Menses stop for 1 week

d)

Menses occur every 10 days

8.

Which manifestation may accompany amenorrhea per the notes?

a)

Severe fishy odor

b)

Low BMI and/or hirsutism

c)

Bloody nipple discharge

d)

Chancre

9.

A nurse is evaluating secondary amenorrhea. What is the first priority test?

a)

Pregnancy test (hCG)

b)

CA-125

c)

Pap test

d)

Mammogram

10.

Which endocrine labs are appropriate in an amenorrhea workup?

a)

Troponin and BNP

b)

TSH/free thyroxine, prolactin, testosterone, estradiol

c)

ESR and CRP only

d)

Sodium and chloride only

11.

Dysmenorrhea is best defined as:

a)

Painful menstruation

b)

Absence of menses

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding

d)

Cervical tissue herniation

12.

Which mechanism contributes to dysmenorrhea in the notes?

a)

Low platelets

b)

Excess insulin

c)

Prostaglandin secretion leading to uterine contractions

d)

HPV replication

13.

Which manifestation is consistent with dysmenorrhea per the notes?

a)

Dyspareunia only

b)

Back/thigh pain, nausea/diarrhea, fatigue, headaches

c)

Painless genital ulcer

d)

Fever with cervical motion tenderness

14.

A nurse is teaching pharmacologic management of dysmenorrhea. Which medication is most directly linked to prostaglandin inhibition?

a)

Ibuprofen (NSAID)

b)

Metformin

c)

Valacyclovir

d)

Fluconazole

15.

Endometriosis risk factors include which finding?

a)

Early menstruation and late menopause

b)

High HDL and low LDL

c)

Daily condom use

d)

Low estrogen states

16.

A nurse explains endometriosis. Which statement is accurate?

a)

It is growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity and can cause infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

b)

It is a bacterial infection of the vagina.

c)

It is always painless.

d)

It only occurs after menopause.

17.

Which medication from the notes is used as a GnRH agonist option for endometriosis management?

a)

Leuprolide

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Penicillin G

18.

A client with suspected endometriosis asks how diagnosis is confirmed. Which answer is most accurate?

a)

Diagnosis requires Pap test only

b)

History and evaluation may be supported by ultrasound; surgical evaluation may be used

c)

CA-125 alone confirms diagnosis

d)

Wet mount microscopy confirms diagnosis

19.

A nurse is planning teaching for PMS. Which timing pattern supports PMS rather than a chronic mood disorder?

a)

Symptoms occur cyclically before menses and resolve shortly after onset of cycle

b)

Symptoms occur randomly without pattern

c)

Symptoms worsen steadily all month

d)

Symptoms begin only after menopause

20.

PMDD is best described as:

a)

A severe, cyclic mood disorder that interferes with ADLs

b)

A fungal infection of the cervix

c)

A benign breast tumor

d)

A cancer staging term

21.

Which medication is first-line for PMDD according to the notes?

a)

SSRIs such as sertraline/fluoxetine/citalopram

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Penicillin G

d)

Letrozole

22.

A client with PMS has significant bloating and fluid retention. Which medication in the notes targets this symptom?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Zidovudine

d)

Podofilox

23.

A nurse is teaching about menopause. Which definition is correct?

a)

Menopause is the first year of menstruation

b)

Menopause is 6 months without menses after delivery

c)

Menopause is 12 months of amenorrhea due to cessation of ovarian follicular activity

d)

Menopause is any irregular cycle pattern

24.

Which hormone pattern is expected post-menopause?

a)

Increased estrogen, decreased FSH

b)

Decreased estrogen/progesterone with increased FSH

c)

Increased progesterone with decreased LDL

d)

Increased prolactin with increased BBT

25.

A perimenopausal client reports painful intercourse. Which term matches this manifestation?

a)

Dyspareunia

b)

Dysuria

c)

Dysmenorrhea

d)

Amenorrhea

26.

A nurse evaluates irregular bleeding in a perimenopausal client. Which tests are appropriate per the notes to rule out other causes?

a)

CA-125 and AFP

b)

ABG and lactate

c)

ESR and CRP only

d)

Pregnancy test, TSH, prolactin

27.

A nurse is teaching HRT. Why is progesterone included when the client has a uterus?

a)

To offset uterine cancer risk associated with estrogen stimulation of the endometrium

b)

To treat BV

c)

To cure HPV

d)

To treat ovarian torsion

28.

Which complication is emphasized as a menopause-related risk?

a)

Osteoporosis and increased fracture risk due to decreased bone mass

b)

Immediate infertility reversal

c)

Decreased LDL

d)

Increased ovarian cyst rupture in all clients

29.

A client on hormone therapy develops unilateral leg swelling and chest pain. Which complication is most concerning?

a)

Venous thrombosis/embolism

b)

Fibrocystic changes

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Cervicitis

30.

A nurse teaches osteoporosis prevention. Which plan is best supported by the notes?

a)

Avoid weight-bearing activity

b)

Restrict calcium intake

c)

Weight-bearing exercise plus calcium-rich foods (yogurt, cheese, leafy greens, salmon)

d)

Increase alcohol intake

31.

Which osteoporosis medication class delays bone loss and has significant GI teaching (upright after dosing, water, empty stomach)?

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate, risedronate)

c)

SSRIs

d)

Antivirals

32.

A client taking alendronate reports severe heartburn and difficulty swallowing. What is the best nurse action?

a)

Reassure this is expected and continue

b)

Hold the dose and notify the provider (possible esophagitis)

c)

Add a high-fat meal with the medication

d)

Crush the tablet and take at bedtime

33.

Raloxifene is best described as:

a)

Preserves beneficial estrogen effects for bone without stimulating breast/uterine tissues in the same way

b)

Treats chlamydia

c)

Treats BV

d)

A GnRH agonist for IVF cycle timing

34.

A client has severe osteoporosis with high fracture risk. Which medication type from the notes is used for high fracture risk cases?

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Parathyroid hormone (e.g., teriparatide)

d)

Metronidazole

35.

A nurse is teaching infertility definitions. Which is correct for a woman under 35?

a)

Infertility = inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse

b)

Infertility = inability to conceive after 1 month

c)

Infertility = inability to conceive after 24 months only

d)

Infertility = any irregular cycle

36.

Which emotional impact is specifically noted as associated with infertility?

a)

Mild boredom only

b)

Mania only

c)

No mental health effect

d)

Depression, anxiety, and possible PTSD

37.

Male infertility: which cause is highlighted as common in the notes?

a)

Spermatogenesis defect

b)

Excess progesterone sensitivity

c)

HPV infection

d)

Low LDL

38.

Semen analysis teaching: which instruction is correct?

a)

Use saliva as lubricant to aid collection

b)

Abstain from ejaculation for 2–7 days prior to sample

c)

Collect only the first half of ejaculate

d)

Delay transport for 6 hours

39.

Female infertility evaluation: which test assesses fallopian tube patency?

a)

Hysterosalpingogram

b)

Mammogram

c)

Pap test

d)

Wet mount

40.

Ovulation assessment: which lab is checked midluteal to confirm ovulation?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Troponin

d)

CA-125

41.

A nurse teaches ovulation induction. Which medication is a SERM used to induce ovulation?

a)

Clomiphene citrate

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Penicillin G

d)

Acyclovir

42.

Which medication is an aromatase inhibitor used as an alternative to clomiphene for ovulation induction?

a)

Bromocriptine

b)

Letrozole

c)

Sertraline

d)

Valacyclovir

43.

A client with infertility has elevated prolactin suppressing ovulation. Which medication from the notes reduces prolactin?

a)

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Clindamycin

44.

Gonadotropin therapy risks include:

a)

Only mild headache

b)

Guaranteed single fetus

c)

Increased risk of multiple gestation

d)

Permanent uterine prolapse

45.

A client undergoing IVF is prescribed leuprolide in the protocol. What is the main purpose noted?

a)

Control/suppress cycle timing and reduce OHSS risk in IVF protocols

b)

Treat yeast infection

c)

Treat BV

d)

Treat HSV

46.

Which ART procedure involves placing washed sperm into the uterus near ovulation, with fertilization occurring in vivo?

a)

IVF

b)

ICSI

c)

ZIFT

d)

IUI

47.

Which ART procedure involves fertilization outside the body in a lab dish with embryo transfer to the uterus?

a)

IVF

b)

GIFT

c)

IUI

d)

ZIFT

48.

ICSI is best described as:

a)

Egg and sperm placed into fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization

b)

Zygote placed into tube after in vitro fertilization

c)

A single sperm injected into an egg, then embryo transferred

d)

A sperm sample inserted into cervix with no timing needed

49.

GIFT differs from IVF primarily because:

a)

Fertilization occurs in vivo in the fallopian tube after placing sperm + eggs into the tube

b)

It uses donor eggs only

c)

It requires no ovulation induction

d)

It is used only for male infertility

50.

ZIFT is best described as:

a)

Washed sperm inserted into uterus only

b)

Fertilized egg (zygote) created in vitro then placed into fallopian tube

c)

Fertilization occurs in cervix

d)

A pessary is inserted into vagina