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APES Units 1-5 Review (Extra Credit)

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which biome is characterized by permafrost and low-growing vegetation?

a)

Taiga

b)

Tundra

c)

Savanna

d)

Temperate Rainforest

2.

Which reservoir contains the largest amount of phosphorus?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Ocean sediments

c)

Terrestrial plants

d)

Soil microorganisms

3.

A species that has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance is called a:

a)

Specialist species

b)

Indicator species

c)

Keystone species

d)

Invasive species

4.

Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is calculated as:

a)

GPP - Respiration

b)

GPP + Respiration

c)

Solar Energy / Area

d)

Respiration - GPP

5.

Which transition describes "secondary succession"?

a)

Lichens growing on bare rock after a glacier retreats.

b)

Grasses growing in a field after a forest fire.

c)

The formation of an island from volcanic activity.

d)

The initial colonization of a sand dune.

6.

The "Island Biogeography" model predicts that the highest species richness will be found on islands that are:

a)

Small and far from the mainland

b)

Large and far from the mainland

c)

Small and close to the mainland

d)

Large and close to the mainland

7.

In a food web, which trophic level generally has the least available energy?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Tertiary Consumers

8.

Which cycle does NOT have a significant gaseous phase?

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

Nitrogen cycle

c)

Phosphorus cycle

d)

Water cycle

9.

The range of abiotic conditions under which a species can survive, grow, and reproduce is called its:

a)

Fundamental niche

b)

Realized niche

c)

Habitat limit

d)

Biotic potential

10.

A species that produces many offspring, provides little parental care, and matures quickly is:

a)

K-selected

b)

r-selected

c)

Type I survivorship

d)

Iteroparous

11.

Which survivorship curve is characteristic of humans in developed nations?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

12.

The maximum population size an environment can support is known as:

a)

Biotic potential

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Environmental resistance

13.

If a population of 1,000 has a growth rate of 2%, how many years will it take to double (Rule of 70)?

a)

14 years

b)

35 years

c)

70 years

d)

140 years

14.

In the Demographic Transition Model, which stage is characterized by high birth rates and rapidly falling death rates?

a)

Stage 1 (Pre-industrial)

b)

Stage 2 (Transitional)

c)

Stage 3 (Industrial)

d)

Stage 4 (Post-industrial)

15.

Which of the following is a density-independent factor?

a)

Competition for food

b)

Disease outbreak

c)

A catastrophic flood

d)

Predation

16.

A population pyramid with a very wide base indicates:

a)

Negative growth

b)

Rapid future growth

c)

Zero growth

d)

High elderly population

17.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is defined as:

a)

The number of births per 1,000 people.

b)

The average number of children a woman will have in her lifetime.

c)

The rate at which a population replaces itself.

d)

The percentage of women of childbearing age.

18.

Which factor most significantly leads to a decrease in TFR?

a)

Increased industrialization

b)

Decreased infant mortality

c)

Increased education for women

d)

Decreased cost of living

19.

Resource partitioning is a strategy used by species to:

a)

Increase their carrying capacity

b)

Eliminate their predators

c)

Reduce competition for similar resources

d)

Expand their fundamental niche

20.

At which type of plate boundary is new seafloor created?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Subduction

21.

The most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere is:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Argon

22.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

23.

Which soil horizon is known as "topsoil" and contains the most organic matter?

a)

O Horizon

b)

A Horizon

c)

B Horizon

d)

C Horizon

24.

The rain shadow effect causes:

a)

Heavy rain on the leeward side of a mountain.

b)

Dry conditions on the windward side of a mountain.

c)

Dry conditions on the leeward side of a mountain.

d)

Constant fog at the mountain peak.

25.

During an El Niño event, what happens to the trade winds in the Pacific?

a)

They strengthen.

b)

They weaken or reverse.

c)

They move from North to South.

d)

They cause increased upwelling in South America.

26.

Earth's seasons are caused by:

a)

The distance between Earth and the Sun.

b)

The tilt of Earth's axis.

c)

Fluctuations in solar flare activity.

d)

Changes in the speed of Earth's rotation.

27.

Which soil particle is the smallest and has the lowest permeability?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Gravel

28.

Hadley Cells circulate air between:

a)

0° and 30° latitude.

b)

30° and 60° latitude.

c)

60° and 90° latitude.

d)

The North and South Poles.

29.

Waters that are nutrient-poor but high in oxygen are described as:

a)

Eutrophic

b)

Mesotrophic

c)

Oligotrophic

d)

Hypoxic

30.

The "Tragedy of the Commons" usually occurs when:

a)

A resource is privately owned.

b)

A resource is shared and unregulated.

c)

A resource is abundant and renewable.

d)

Government taxes the use of a resource.

31.

What is the primary purpose of "The Green Revolution"?

a)

To increase forest conservation.

b)

To increase agricultural yields through technology and fertilizers.

c)

To promote organic farming.

d)

To decrease the use of GMOs.

32.

Which irrigation method is the most efficient (loses the least water)?

a)

Furrow irrigation

b)

Flood irrigation

c)

Drip irrigation

d)

Spray irrigation

33.

A major environmental disadvantage of "Clear-Cutting" forests is:

a)

Increased biodiversity.

b)

Soil erosion and increased water temperature in nearby streams.

c)

Decreased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

d)

Reduced runoff.

34.

"Integrated Pest Management" (IPM) focuses on:

a)

Using only chemical pesticides.

b)

Eliminating all insects in a field.

c)

Minimizing crop damage using a mix of biological, physical, and chemical tools.

d)

Growing only one type of crop (monoculture).

35.

Which of the following is an effect of overgrazing?

a)

Soil compaction and desertification.

b)

Increased soil fertility.

c)

Increased water infiltration.

d)

Reduced methane emissions.

36.

"Tailing" in the context of mining refers to:

a)

The desired mineral being extracted.

b)

Waste material left over after processing ore.

c)

The process of restoring a mine site.

d)

The explosive used to clear rock.

37.

Urban sprawl often results in:

a)

Increased reliance on public transit.

b)

Increased "heat island" effect and runoff.

c)

Higher population density in city centers.

d)

Decreased use of fossil fuels.

38.

Sustainable forestry practices include:

a)

Large-scale clear-cutting.

b)

Prescribed burns to reduce undergrowth and prevent massive wildfires.

c)

Removing all dead trees to keep the forest "clean."

d)

Planting only one species of tree.

39.

Which of the following defines "Aquaculture"?

a)

Filtering ocean water for drinking.

b)

Breeding and harvesting fish in controlled environments.

c)

Deep-sea mining for minerals.

d)

Capturing wild fish using drift nets.

40.

Which of the following is a non-renewable energy source?

a)

Wind

b)

Solar

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Biomass

41.

The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is:

a)

Carbon-14

b)

Uranium-235

c)

Plutonium-239

d)

Uranium-238

42.

Which type of coal has the highest energy density and lowest sulfur content?

a)

Lignite

b)

Bituminous

c)

Anthracite

d)

Sub-bituminous

43.

Fractional distillation is used to:

a)

Extract coal from the ground.

b)

Separate crude oil into components like gasoline and heating oil.

c)

Create steam in a nuclear reactor.

d)

Refine natural gas into methane.

44.

Passive solar heating involves:

a)

Using photovoltaic cells to create electricity.

b)

Using pumps to circulate hot water through a house.

c)

Designing a house with south-facing windows and dark floors to absorb heat.

d)

Mirrors that focus sunlight on a central tower.

45.

Which energy source produces the most particulate matter and indoor air pollution in developing nations?

a)

Natural Gas

b)

Biomass (wood/dung)

c)

Nuclear

d)

Wind

46.

A "Cogeneration" system is one where:

a)

Two different power plants share a grid.

b)

Waste heat from electricity generation is used for heating buildings.

c)

Wind and solar are used together.

d)

Fossil fuels are mixed with biofuels.

47.

What is a major drawback of hydrogen fuel cells?

a)

They emit large amounts of sulfur dioxide.

b)

It currently takes more energy to produce the hydrogen than it provides.

c)

They only work during the daytime.

d)

They produce radioactive waste.

48.

Hydraulic fracturing (fracking) is primarily used to extract:

a)

Coal

b)

Uranium

c)

Natural Gas and Oil from shale rock

d)

Geothermal heat

49.

What is the term for the movement of individuals into a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Immigration

c)

Migration

d)

Translocation

50.

High levels of nitrates and phosphates in a lake usually lead to:

a)

Higher dissolved oxygen.

b)

Increased biodiversity.

c)

Algal blooms and subsequent hypoxia.

d)

Clearer water.

51.

Which of the following is a "Carbon Sink"?

a)

Animal respiration

b)

Volcanic eruptions

c)

The Ocean

d)

Deforestation

52.

The pH of normal rainfall is approximately:

a)

7.0

b)

5.6

c)

4.2

d)

8.5

53.

"Salinization" of soil is most often caused by:

a)

Over-application of pesticides.

b)

Repeated irrigation in arid climates.

c)

Planting cover crops.

d)

Acid rain.

54.

Which atmospheric cell is located between 30 and 60 degrees?

a)

Hadley Cell

b)

Ferrel Cell

c)

Polar Cell

d)

Coriolis Cell

55.

Which of the following best describes "Point Source Pollution"?

a)

Runoff from agricultural fields.

b)

Discharge from a specific factory pipe.

c)

Urban smog.

d)

Acid rain over a forest.

56.

The primary cause of the "Dead Zone" in the Gulf of Mexico is:

a)

Oil spills.

b)

Overfishing.

c)

Nutrient runoff from the Mississippi River.

d)

Warming ocean temperatures.

57.

Which type of mining is most common for reaching deep mineral deposits?

a)

Strip mining

b)

Open-pit mining

c)

Subsurface mining

d)

Mountaintop removal

58.

A "Specialist" species is most likely to:

a)

Survive in a rapidly changing environment.

b)

Have a broad range of food sources.

c)

Be outcompeted by generalists if the environment is stable.

d)

Become extinct if its specific habitat is destroyed.

59.

Which biome has the highest decomposition rate due to heat and moisture?

a)

Desert

b)

Boreal Forest

c)

Tropical Rainforest

d)

Tundra

60.

"Albedo" is a measure of:

a)

How much heat a gas traps.

b)

The reflectivity of a surface.

c)

The acidity of soil.

d)

The amount of salt in water.

61.

Which of the following is a byproduct of anaerobic decomposition in landfills?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Methane

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Ozone

62.

The "10% Rule" in ecology states that:

a)

10% of toxins are lost at each level.

b)

10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level.

c)

10% of species go extinct every century.

d)

10% of water is stored in plants.

63.

Which of the following is a biotic factor?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Soil pH

c)

Bacteria

d)

Temperature

64.

What happens during a "Thermal Inversion"?

a)

Warm air traps cold, polluted air near the ground.

b)

Cold air rises rapidly into the stratosphere.

c)

The ocean floor warms up.

d)

Carbon dioxide levels drop.

65.

Which fuel source is often associated with "Acid Mine Drainage"?

a)

Oil

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Coal

d)

Uranium

66.

The "O" horizon of soil is mainly composed of:

a)

Parent material

b)

Leaf litter and organic debris

c)

Leached minerals

d)

Solid bedrock

67.

Which curve shows a population that has reached carrying capacity?

a)

J-curve

b)

S-curve

c)

Diagonal line

d)

Vertical line

68.

"Genetically Modified Organisms" (GMOs) are often used in agriculture to:

a)

Increase the need for water.

b)

Reduce the need for chemical pesticides.

c)

Make crops more susceptible to disease.

d)

Decrease the shelf life of food.

69.

Which of the following is a "Generalist" species?

a)

Giant Panda

b)

Koala

c)

Raccoon

d)

Spotted Owl

70.

Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) is a measure used for:

a)

Air quality

b)

Water quality

c)

Soil texture

d)

Wind speed

71.

Photovoltaic cells convert:

a)

Wind into electricity

b)

Sunlight directly into electricity

c)

Heat into steam

d)

Water into hydrogen

72.

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Methane

d)

Argon

73.

Coriolis Effect causes winds in the Northern Hemisphere to deflect to the:

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

North

d)

South

74.

Replacement Level Fertility for most human populations is approximately:

a)

1.0

b)

2.1

c)

3.5

d)

5.0

75.

Monoculture farming leads to:

a)

Increased biodiversity

b)

Reduced risk of crop-specific pests

c)

Increased vulnerability to disease

d)

Improved soil nutrients

76.

Permeability refers to:

a)

The amount of space between soil particles

b)

The speed at which water flows through soil

c)

The color of the soil

d)

The amount of nitrogen in the soil

77.

Which type of light is absorbed by the ozone layer?

a)

Infrared

b)

Visible

c)

Ultraviolet (UV)

d)

Microwave

78.

Upwelling is important to fisheries because:

a)

It brings warm water to the surface

b)

It brings nutrient-rich cold water to the surface

c)

It carries pollution away from the coast

d)

It decreases the salt content of the water

79.

Gully erosion is a severe form of:

a)

Wind erosion

b)

Water erosion

c)

Glacial erosion

d)

Tectonic movement

80.

Crude death rate is the number of deaths per:

a)

100 people

b)

1,000 people

c)

10,000 people

d)

100,000 people

81.

Which is a benefit of intercropping?

a)

It uses more fertilizer

b)

It reduces the need for pesticides by confusing insects

c)

It makes harvesting easier with machines

d)

It requires only one type of soil

82.

Half-life is a term used to describe the decay of:

a)

Biomass

b)

Radioactive isotopes

c)

Solar panels

d)

Batteries

83.

CAFE Standards refer to:

a)

Food safety in cafeterias

b)

Fuel economy standards for vehicles

c)

Carbon emission limits for factories

d)

Clean water standards for rivers

84.

A convergent plate boundary where an oceanic plate meets a continental plate usually forms:

a)

Mid-ocean ridges

b)

Rift valleys

c)

Subduction zones and volcanic arcs

d)

Fault lines like the San Andreas

85.

Tilling the soil can lead to:

a)

Higher moisture retention

b)

Increased soil erosion and loss of organic matter

c)

Deeper root systems

d)

Increased carbon sequestration

86.

The B horizon is also known as the zone of:

a)

Leaching

b)

Accumulation (Illuviation)

c)

Decomposition

d)

Weathering

87.

Sustainability means:

a)

Using all resources now to ensure economic growth

b)

Meeting needs of the present without compromising future generations

c)

Stopping all industrial activity

d)

Moving all human populations to cities

88.

Which energy source is considered carbon neutral if managed correctly?

a)

Coal

b)

Nuclear

c)

Biomass

d)

Natural gas

89.

Commensalism is a relationship where:

a)

Both species benefit

b)

One benefits and the other is harmed

c)

One benefits and the other is unaffected

d)

Both species are harmed

90.

Denitrification occurs mostly in:

a)

Dry, sandy soils

b)

Anaerobic (waterlogged) soils

c)

The stratosphere

d)

Glaciers

91.

Porosity is defined as:

a)

The speed of water flow

b)

The percentage of pore space in a soil or rock

c)

The acidity of the soil

d)

The weight of the soil

92.

Which of the following is a density-dependent factor?

a)

Forest fire

b)

Hurricane

c)

Competition for nesting sites

d)

Volcanic eruption

93.

The age of marriage is inversely correlated with:

a)

Literacy rates

b)

Total Fertility Rate

c)

Life expectancy

d)

GDP

94.

Geothermal energy comes from:

a)

The Sun

b)

The wind

c)

Heat within the Earth

d)

Decaying plants