wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

HSI exam review #3 — Cover Page (No questions on this page)

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which muscle is located on the head?

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

external oblique

c)

diaphragm

d)

occipitalis

2.

Regular exercise and strength training will:

a)

reduce muscle contractability.

b)

cause a buildup of lactic acid.

c)

antagonize circulation.

d)

improve muscle tone.

3.

Mary has had muscle pain and fatigue for over three months. Her doctor prescribed treatment for her symptoms. Mary’s diagnosis is most likely:

a)

Muscular dystrophy.

b)

myasthenia gravis.

c)

muscle spasm.

d)

fibromyalgia.

4.

Anaerobic exercises performed over prolonged periods without adequate rest will cause a/an:

a)

increase in muscle atrophy.

b)

loss of minerals in bones.

c)

increase in blood sugar.

d)

buildup of lactic acid.

5.

Which large muscle is located on the back and is inferior to the trapezius?

a)

sternocleidomastoid

b)

gluteus maximus

c)

external oblique

d)

latissimus dorsi

6.

Preston was born with a genetic disorder that was undiagnosed until he was in preschool. His muscles began getting weaker and he lost his ability to walk at age 10. While his condition is incurable, treatments include: medications, assistive devices, and physical and respiratory therapy. What disorder does Preston have?

a)

muscular dystrophy

b)

myasthenia gravis

c)

fibromyalgia

d)

tendinitis

7.

Cory stretches every night after running. What is the desired outcome for his muscles?

a)

atrophy

b)

contractibility

c)

extensibility

d)

hypertrophy

8.

Which is a muscle on the posterior portion of the upper arm?

a)

deltoid

b)

trapezius

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

triceps brachii

9.

Circular muscles are found in areas of the body where the passage of substances must be controlled. These muscles are found in the openings between the esophagus and stomach as well as in the anus, urethra, and mouth. What is this type of muscle called?

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

sphincter

10.

Which muscle group is responsible for movement of the ribs in order to assist with respiration?

a)

external intercostals

b)

external obliques

c)

quadriceps

d)

pectorals

11.

It is very cold while Sam is waiting at the bus stop. His mom tells him to run in place or jump up and down until the bus arrives. Which function of the muscular system is being used?

a)

extensibility

b)

body heat

c)

support

d)

posture

12.

Susan complains of chronic muscle pain. This is the chief complaint for patients with which disorder?

a)

muscular dystrophy

b)

fibromyalgia

c)

tendinitis

d)

Hernia

13.

Jenna’s leg has been in a cast for four weeks due to a fracture. Her physician ordered physical therapy after the cast is removed to treat:

a)

muscle hypertrophy

b)

muscle atrophy

c)

poor posture

d)

sarcoplasm.

14.

During the first basketball practice of the season, Jake begins experiencing muscle cramps and has to stop and rest for a few minutes. Jake understands that he is having these cramps due to a build-up of lactic acid in the muscles caused by:

a)

glucose oxidation.

b)

muscle atrophy.

c)

muscle fatigue.

d)

muscle tone.

15.

Which condition involves tearing of muscle fibers and bleeding within the muscle belly?

a)

sprain

b)

strain

c)

tendonitis

d)

tetanus

16.

Joe notices bulging in the lower quadrant of his abdomen after lifting weights. What is the most likely diagnosis for Joe?

a)

muscular dystrophy

b)

fibromyalgia

c)

tendonitis

d)

hernia

17.

Muscles should always be slightly contracted and ready to pull in order to function properly. This is known as:

a)

muscle elasticity.

b)

muscle atrophy.

c)

muscle fatigue.

d)

muscle tone.

18.

The term atrophy means:

a)

enlargement.

b)

without pain.

c)

sensation.

d)

shrinking.

19.

Sitting erect in your desk chair and walking without hunching the shoulders demonstrates which muscular system function?

a)

body heat regulation

b)

movement

c)

posture

d)

support

20.

Which shoulder muscle is superior and proximal to the triceps brachii?

a)

pectoralis major

b)

biceps brachii

c)

trapezius

d)

deltoid

21.

The term algia means:

a)

fiber.

b)

muscle.

c)

nerve.

d)

pain.

22.

Which muscle only has an involuntary function?

a)

biceps brachii

b)

diaphragm

c)

trapezius

d)

cardiac

23.

Which muscle covers the lateral surface of the mandible and is responsible for closing the jaw?

a)

zygomaticus major

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

masseter

d)

frontalis

24.

The term myo means:

a)

fiber.

b)

muscle.

c)

nerve.

d)

pain.

25.

When a gymnast performs a head stand, what characteristic of muscles describes what is happening to his chest and shoulder muscles?

a)

contractibility

b)

elasticity

c)

excitability

d)

extensibility

26.

Which muscle covers the shoulder?

a)

zygomaticus major

b)

gluteus medius

c)

intercostal

d)

deltoid

27.

Which muscle is on the posterior aspect of the lower leg?

a)

gastrocnemius

b)

vastus medialis

c)

sartorius

d)

hamstring

28.

Mary has muscle pain, fatigue, sleeping difficulties, depression, and exercise intolerance. Her doctor has prescribed only symptomatic treatment and states that this disorder is most common in women. Mary's diagnosis is most likely:

a)

muscular dystrophy.

b)

myasthenia gravis.

c)

muscle spasm.

d)

fibromyalgia.

29.

Joe flexes his biceps. What characteristic of muscles describes what is happening to Joe's biceps when he flexes them?

a)

contractibility

b)

elasticity

c)

excitability

d)

extensibility

30.

The thick middle layer of the hair shaft that provides strength and color is the:

a)

cortex.

b)

follicle.

c)

medulla.

d)

shaft.

31.

Receptors for touch, cold, and pain present in the skin are responsible for which function of the integumentary system?

a)

regulation of body temperature

b)

protection from the sun

c)

production of vitamin D

d)

sensory perception

32.

Courtney works in the kitchen at her dad’s restaurant. She is preparing fries and drops the hot oil on her arm. Immediately a blister forms. She has a:

a)

decubitus ulcer.

b)

first degree burn.

c)

second degree burn.

d)

third degree burn.

33.

Hair follicles originate in which skin layer?

a)

adipose

b)

dermis

c)

epidermis

d)

subcutaneous

34.

Which glands are found in large numbers under the arms and on the palms, soles of the feet, and forehead?

a)

papilla

b)

sebaceous

c)

subcutaneous

d)

sudoriferous

35.

Sebaceous glands produce an increased amount of sebum during adolescence leading to which integumentary system disorder?

a)

acne

b)

alopecia

c)

eczema

d)

herpes

36.

The evaporation of perspiration enables which function of the integumentary system?

a)

regulation of body temperature

b)

production of vitamin D

c)

protection from the sun

d)

sensory perception

37.

Which skin condition is caused by a type of staphylococcus bacteria and has become resistant to many of the antibiotics used to treat ordinary staphylococcus infections?

a)

herpes simplex

b)

ringworm

c)

scabies

d)

MRSA

38.

Athlete’s foot, herpes simplex, and impetigo are similar because they are all:

a)

treated with antibiotics.

b)

caused by bacteria.

c)

caused by viruses.

d)

contagious.

39.

Melvin spent many years on the golf course. He has fair skin and a history of frequent sunburns on his ears, nose, and hands. He presents to the doctor with a lesion that fails to heal. Melvin may have which condition?

a)

dermatitis

b)

melanoma

c)

psoriasis

d)

scabies

40.

Which structure is an appendage of the skin?

a)

adipose fat

b)

epidermis

c)

dermis

d)

hair

41.

On a sunny day, Jessica went to the lake and forgot to apply sunscreen. She returned home with redness to her skin, but no blisters. She has a:

a)

minor burn.

b)

first degree burn.

c)

second degree burn.

d)

third degree burn.

42.

The innermost layer of the skin is the:

a)

stratum corneum.

b)

subcutaneous.

c)

epidermis.

d)

dermis.

43.

A viral skin lesion that can reoccur after removal is a:

a)

macule.

b)

pustule.

c)

wart.

d)

wheal.

44.

The nerves, blood vessels, and glands are located in which layer of the skin?

a)

subcutaneous tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

epidermis

d)

dermis

45.

What is the relationship of skin to muscle?

a)

distal

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

superficial

46.

The matrix is the nail:

a)

bed.

b)

body.

c)

keratin.

d)

root.

47.

Children often practice poor handwashing and touch open skin wounds around the nose and mouth. These behaviors increase a child’s risk for developing which skin condition?

a)

albinism

b)

eczema

c)

impetigo

d)

psoriasis

48.

Amanda is a teenage girl and shows signs of acne on her forehead and chin. It seems to be worse the day after playing sports. Which glands are working more at this time and most likely causing Amanda’s acne?

a)

sudoriferous glands

b)

sebaceous glands

c)

endocrine glands

d)

exocrine glands

49.

Skin conditions caused by contact with allergens, frequent handwashing, or exposure to chemicals are classified as:

a)

herpes simplex.

b)

athlete’s foot.

c)

dermatitis.

d)

acne.

50.

Using a nitroglycerine patch to treat heart disease is an example of which function of the integumentary system?

a)

absorption

b)

excretion

c)

protection

d)

storage

51.

Melissa’s skin lesion has irregular borders, multiple colors, and is increasing in size. She visits a tanning bed frequently. She should be evaluated for:

a)

dermatitis.

b)

melanoma.

c)

psoriasis.

d)

scabies.

52.

The integumentary system is the body’s first line of defense against harmful substances. This is an example of which function of the integumentary system?

a)

absorption

b)

excretion

c)

protection

d)

storage

53.

Sally enjoys sunbathing and rarely uses sunscreen. The dermatologist removes a small raised area from her nose, that was later determined to be a slow-growing form of skin cancer which rarely spreads to other areas of the body. What skin disorder was Sally diagnosed with?

a)

basal cell carcinoma

b)

melanoma

c)

papilloma

d)

lipoma

54.

Which skin condition is commonly transmitted through sexual contact?

a)

herpes simplex type 2

b)

acne vulgaris

c)

plantar warts

d)

eczema

55.

Which disorder can be prevented by refraining from sharing towels and wearing shoes in the locker room?

a)

herpes simplex

b)

athlete’s foot

c)

alopecia

d)

acne

56.

Sally walks outside on a cold day and feels goose bumps form on her arms and legs. Which structure is attached to the hair follicle and causes the skin to pucker around the hair?

a)

arrector pili muscle

b)

medulla

c)

cortex

d)

root

57.

Eating a diet high in calcium will improve the health of one's bones, teeth, and nervous system as well as:

a)

heal damaged tissue.

b)

aid in blood clotting.

c)

produce energy.

d)

store fat.

58.

Runners who eat pancakes and pasta before a race choose these foods because these foods provide extra energy from:

a)

carbohydrates.

b)

folic acid.

c)

proteins.

d)

iron.

59.

What role do saliva and digestive enzymes play in breaking down food?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

absorption of nutrients

c)

chemical digestion

d)

physical digestion

60.

The digestive organ responsible for absorption of nutrients is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

61.

Which structure is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a)

esophagus

b)

gallbladder

c)

mouth

d)

rectum

62.

Weston presented in the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea after eating a meal that was high in fat. His symptoms indicate which most likely diagnosis?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

63.

Which are the primary structures of the gastrointestinal tract that food passes through during the digestion process?

a)

larynx, stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, rectum

b)

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon

c)

esophagus, stomach, liver, small intestine, rectum

d)

pharynx, trachea, stomach, small intestine, colon

64.

Which is a primary structure of the digestive system?

a)

salivary gland

b)

gall bladder

c)

esophagus

d)

tongue

65.

People who contract this viral infection are often unaware of symptoms and may become chronic carriers. What is the name of this asymptomatic disorder?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

66.

Weston feels an increase in stress related to completing graduation requirements and preparing for final exams. He could be at risk for developing:

a)

a peptic ulcer.

b)

constipation.

c)

cirrhosis.

d)

diarrhea.

67.

How is chyme different from a bolus?

a)

A bolus moves through the digestive tract by peristalsis.

b)

A bolus is produced by chemical digestion.

c)

Chyme is acted on by enzymes.

d)

Chyme is a liquid.

68.

The term hepat means:

a)

bile.

b)

blood.

c)

liver.

d)

yellow.

69.

The digestive prefix chole- means:

a)

bile.

b)

colon.

c)

cyst.

d)

green.

70.

The term gastro means:

a)

esophagus.

b)

gums.

c)

stomach.

d)

tongue.

71.

The teeth and tongue contribute to which function of the digestive system?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

physical breakdown of food

c)

chemical digestion of food

d)

absorption of nutrients

72.

Which structure is located within the large intestine?

a)

descending colon

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

d)

ileum

73.

Ashton experiences pain and burning in the epigastric region when laying flat in bed after eating a meal. Ashton’s condition improves when the head of the bed is raised. Ashton’s most likely diagnosis is:

a)

gastroesophageal reflux.

b)

gastroenteritis.

c)

cholelithiasis.

d)

hepatitis B.

74.

Faith routinely takes ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication for minor aches and pains. She begins experiencing epigastric pain between meals and early in the morning. Her doctor explains that she has developed a sore in the lining of her stomach. What is Faith’s most likely diagnosis?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

hiatal hernia

d)

peptic ulcer

75.

The digestive organ responsible for elimination of waste is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

76.

The digestive disorder that may occur if a person abuses alcohol or Tylenol is:

a)

cirrhosis.

b)

constipation.

c)

diarrhea.

d)

ulcers.