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Introduction and Basic Terms

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In an agency relationship, who gives authority to another to act on their behalf?

a)

Principal

b)

Third party

c)

Agent of necessity

d)

Del credere agent

2.

Which statement best captures Section 182’s definition of an agent?

a)

A person who merely introduces contracting parties

b)

A person who guarantees third-party payment

c)

A person employed to represent another with third persons

d)

A person who supervises employees in a firm

3.

Who is the person for whom the act is done or who is represented, under Section 182?

a)

Broker

b)

Factor

c)

Principal

d)

Agent

4.

Match each role with its primary function in the agency triad.

a)

Principal authorizes the contract, agent pays consideration

b)

Third party grants authority to the agent

c)

Principal executes acts on behalf of the agent

d)

Agent uses authority, contracts with third party

5.

Which pair correctly identifies who delegates power and who receives it?

a)

Principal receives; third party delegates

b)

Principal delegates; agent receives

c)

Agent delegates; principal receives

d)

Third party delegates; agent receives

6.

According to the basic terms, what is the relationship created when authority is delegated?

a)

Estoppel

b)

Bailment

c)

Agency

d)

Partnership

7.

Which statement about obligations in the agency cycle is most accurate?

a)

The principal has no duty once authority is delegated

b)

The third party supervises the agent’s internal authority

c)

The principal is obligated to perform the contract made by the agent

d)

The agent must perform the principal’s contract personally

8.

Which of the following best distinguishes the third party in an agency arrangement?

a)

Receives representation from the agent’s principal

b)

Grants authority to the agent to act

c)

Controls the agent’s internal directions

d)

Enters the contract with the agent on the principal’s behalf

9.

Which statement best describes consideration in creating an agency under Section 185?

a)

Consideration is required for principal’s liability

b)

Consideration is required only for written agency

c)

No consideration is necessary to create agency

d)

Consideration is always required for valid agency

10.

Who must have contractual capacity in a contract of agency?

a)

Both principal and agent must be minors

b)

Neither party needs contractual capacity

c)

The principal must be competent to contract

d)

Only the agent must be competent to contract

11.

Which situation correctly states the agent’s capacity and effect on the principal?

a)

An unsound mind agent never binds the principal

b)

Only a major agent binds the principal to contracts

c)

A minor cannot act as agent in any circumstance

d)

A minor may act as agent and bind the principal

12.

Select all statements that are true about principal’s liability and agency capacity.

a)

Only a competent principal can appoint an agent

b)

Principal is answerable to third parties for agent acts

c)

Only paid agents can bind the principal legally

d)

A person of unsound mind can be an agent

13.

Which option best explains the distinction between capacity of principal and agent?

a)

Principal must be competent; agent may lack capacity

b)

Both must be competent to contract equally

c)

Agent must be competent; principal may lack capacity

d)

Neither needs capacity if consideration exists

14.

Which statement best distinguishes a special agent from a general agent?

a)

General agent performs one isolated transaction only

b)

Special agent manages all acts of a business

c)

Special agent handles one specific transaction only

d)

General agent acts with power of attorney for all acts

15.

A universal agent is characterized by which scope of authority?

a)

Authorized to do all acts the principal can legally do

b)

Authorized to perform one transaction in real estate

c)

Authorized to manage a single branch office only

d)

Authorized to sell goods at public auction events

16.

Identify the correct pairing of agent type and example of appointment.

a)

General agent – branch manager for company activities

b)

Special agent – manager for ongoing store operations

c)

Universal agent – hired to sell one vehicle only

d)

General agent – person with general power of attorney

17.

Which feature most clearly differentiates a factor from a broker?

a)

Factor usually has possession of goods entrusted

b)

Broker normally remits sale proceeds to principal

c)

Broker typically sells goods in own legal name

d)

Factor mainly connects buyers and sellers only

18.

Which statements are true about an auctioneer?

a)

Authorized to sell by public auction

b)

Sells privately without competitive bidding

c)

Usually has possession and lien for charges

d)

Always acts in the principal’s name when suing

19.

Which roles are listed under the types of mercantile agents in the structure diagram?

a)

Universal agent and special agent

b)

Factor and broker

c)

Commission agent and del credere agent

d)

Auctioneer and banker

20.

A broker primarily performs which function in commerce?

a)

Manages all activities of a business branch

b)

Conducts public sales and sues buyers personally

c)

Holds goods and sells in own name with lien

d)

Brings buyers and sellers together and negotiates

21.

Which scenario best exemplifies a special agent?

a)

Granted power to do everything the principal can

b)

Engaged to run daily operations of a factory

c)

Given authority to manage all branch activities

d)

Appointed only to sell one house for the owner

22.

Which statement about a factor’s authority is accurate?

a)

Cannot extend credit or collect sale proceeds

b)

Never has possession or lien over the goods

c)

Can sell in own name and give valid discharge

d)

Must act only in the principal’s legal name

23.

Which combination correctly contrasts factor and broker regarding possession and name of acting?

a)

Factor has possession of goods

b)

Broker usually lacks possession of goods

c)

Broker typically acts in principal’s name

d)

Factor acts in own name in sales

24.

Which statement best distinguishes a commission agent from a broker in the agent structure diagram?

a)

Commission agent never possesses any goods

b)

Commission agent earns brokerage not commission

c)

Commission agent only brings parties together

d)

Commission agent buys or sells for principal

25.

A del credere agent most precisely adds which obligation beyond a standard commission agent?

a)

Arranges meetings between parties without risk

b)

Conducts sales strictly by public auction only

c)

Holds goods in possession for all transactions

d)

Guarantees buyer performance for extra remuneration

26.

In which scenario is a banker acting as an agent?

a)

Holding customer valuables in a safe locker

b)

Issuing new shares for a corporation

c)

Lending long-term capital for expansion

d)

Collecting a cheque and crediting a customer

27.

Which pair correctly matches agent type with possession of goods as indicated in the structure diagram?

a)

All three have possession; each stores goods

b)

Auctioneer has possession; factor has no possession

c)

Factor has possession; broker has no possession

d)

Broker has possession; auctioneer has possession

28.

Select all functions listed for a banker acting as agent in the diagram.

a)

Conducts public auctions of goods

b)

Grants credit on goods as security

c)

Transfers funds and remittances

d)

Makes payments on instructions

e)

Collects cheques for customers

29.

Which example best illustrates a commission agent’s role as described?

a)

Grain agent sells farmers’ wheat for a percentage

b)

Bank manager approves a mortgage loan for term

c)

Auctioneer sells assets to highest bidder publicly

d)

Retail broker only introduces buyer and seller

30.

Which method creates an agency through clear spoken or written words appointing an agent and conferring authority?

a)

Express agreement with explicit words

b)

Agency by necessity in emergencies

c)

Implied agreement from conduct

d)

Agency by estoppel through conduct

31.

A shop owner regularly lets a supervisor order stock and deal with suppliers without formal appointment. Which creation of agency best fits this scenario?

a)

Express agreement with clear terms

b)

Implied agreement from conduct

c)

Ratification after unauthorized act

d)

Necessity during urgent risk

32.

Agency by estoppel arises when a person, by words or conduct, causes a third party to reasonably believe another is his agent, and later cannot deny it. Which statement best captures this?

a)

Authority created after later approval

b)

Authority prevented from denial by representation

c)

Authority inferred from repeated dealings

d)

Authority granted in a power of attorney

33.

A friend stands behind the counter and completes a sale while the owner watches and does not intervene. Later, the owner cannot deny the friend’s authority against the customer. Which doctrine applies?

a)

Implied agreement due to custom

b)

Estoppel based on representation

c)

Holding out through long practice

d)

Ratification after the transaction

34.

Agency by holding out is best described as which situation?

a)

Principal later approves unauthorized act

b)

Principal expressly appoints an agent

c)

Principal’s ongoing conduct presents a person as agent

d)

Emergency compels action to prevent loss

35.

A allows his servant, over a long time, to buy goods on credit from a nearby shop in A’s name and regularly pays. The shop may treat the servant as A’s agent for future similar purchases. This illustrates:

a)

Implied agreement from isolated event

b)

Agency by holding out through course of conduct

c)

Agency by necessity due to perishable goods

d)

Express agreement with clear authorization

36.

Which element most distinguishes agency by necessity from other types?

a)

Existence of emergency requiring action

b)

Prior express appointment by principal

c)

Payment of commission to the agent

d)

Public notice of agency relationship

37.

A carrier transporting perishable goods cannot reach the owner due to disruption and sells the goods quickly to minimize loss. What type of agency is most applicable?

a)

Implied agreement from course

b)

Agency by ratification after approval

c)

Agency by necessity to prevent loss

d)

Agency by estoppel through conduct

38.

Agency by ratification requires which key feature?

a)

Unauthorized act later approved by principal

b)

Authority existed at the time of act

c)

Public representation to a third party

d)

Emergency preventing contact with owner

39.

A, without B’s authority, contracts with C on behalf of B. B later, knowing all material facts, accepts the contract. Which statement is accurate?

a)

An implied agency existed from outset

b)

Agency by necessity validates the contract

c)

Estoppel prevents B from denying authority

d)

Ratification creates binding authority retrospectively

40.

Which of the following are ways an agency relationship may be created?

a)

Agency by estoppel or by holding out

b)

Agency by necessity or ratification

c)

Implied agreement from conduct

d)

Express agreement by clear words

41.

Which scenarios would NOT typically create agency by estoppel?

a)

Principal’s repeated conduct presenting an agent

b)

Principal’s silence while a friend makes a sale

c)

Principal clearly denies authority to a third party

d)

Principal issues a registered power of attorney

42.

Which agency type is formed through spoken or written words between the parties?

a)

Implied agency formed by conduct

b)

Estoppel agency arising by representation

c)

Operation of law agency automatically

d)

Express agency formed by explicit words

e)

Necessity agency during emergencies

43.

An agency that arises because the principal cannot later deny an apparent agency once a representation was made is called what?

a)

Express agency using clear words

b)

Estoppel agency due to representation

c)

Implied agency based on circumstances

d)

Operation of law agency automatic

e)

Ratification after unauthorized act

44.

Select all agency types that are created without explicit words between principal and agent.

a)

Implied agency created by conduct

b)

Necessity agency in emergencies

c)

Estoppel agency after representation

d)

Express agency by spoken words

e)

Operation of law agency automatic

45.

Cohabitation in agency law most commonly refers to which relationship for necessities?

a)

Husband acts as agent for wife

b)

Wife acts as agent for husband

c)

Friend acts as agent for friend

d)

Parent acts as agent for child

e)

Sibling acts as agent for sibling

46.

For ratification to be valid, the act must have been done how?

a)

By an agent for an identifiable principal

b)

By any person acting in their own name

c)

By promoters forming a future company

d)

By law without any human decision

e)

By an agent for an unknown future party

47.

Why did the court in Keighley, Maxsted & Co. v. Durant hold that ratification was not possible when X bought wheat in his own name?

a)

X lacked capacity to enter any contract

b)

X did not profess to act as Y’s agent

c)

Y refused to pay the higher market price

d)

Z disclosed Y’s identity to the market

e)

The wheat quality failed inspection standards

48.

Which scenario fails the second essential for valid ratification regarding the principal’s existence?

a)

Promoters contract for a company to be formed later

b)

A spouse buys essentials while cohabiting

c)

A manager purchases supplies for current employer

d)

An agent buys goods for a disclosed principal

e)

An agent signs on behalf of an existing principal

49.

Which statement best explains contractual capacity in ratification?

a)

Principal must be competent at ratification only

b)

Agent must be competent at act and ratification

c)

Principal must be competent at act hazard only

d)

Principal must be competent at act and ratification

50.

A minor becomes a major and tries to ratify a contract made for him during minority. What is the correct legal outcome?

a)

Ratification binds if consideration was adequate

b)

Ratification binds if the agent had good faith

c)

Ratification binds because he is now major

d)

Ratification fails because contract was during minority

51.

Ratification based on ignorance of an excessive price paid by the agent is generally

a)

Valid because price is commercial risk

b)

Invalid because material facts were unknown

c)

Valid if the market later increases

d)

Valid if the agent intended no fraud

52.

Which scenario demonstrates full knowledge of material facts?

a)

Principal ratifies after learning all essential terms

b)

Principal approves without reading terms fully

c)

Principal approves because agent is trustworthy

d)

Principal ratifies only after market improves

53.

The whole transaction rule requires the principal to

a)

Adopt the entire act with both sides

b)

Adopt only cash terms if favorable

c)

Adopt burdens but reject benefits

d)

Adopt benefits but reject burdens

54.

An agent sells goods on credit at a low price without authority. The principal wants only the low price term. Under the whole transaction rule, the principal

a)

May ratify price but refuse credit

b)

Must ratify both price and credit

c)

Must refuse both price and credit

d)

May renegotiate and then ratify

55.

Reasonable time for ratification primarily depends on

a)

Agent’s convenience and schedule

b)

Length of the written contract

c)

Nature of transaction and market conditions

d)

Court calendar and filing dates

56.

If the principal delays ratification for many months and prices change drastically, the ratification is most likely

a)

Ineffective because time was unreasonable

b)

Effective because delay shows caution

c)

Effective because market shifts are normal

d)

Effective if agent confirms again

57.

Which act cannot be made valid by ratification?

a)

Void or illegal agreement by law

b)

Ultra vires but lawful contract

c)

Unauthorized but beneficial sale

d)

Excessively priced purchase

58.

An agent without authority enters an illegal contract for the principal. The principal later approves in writing. The legal effect is

a)

Ratification makes contract enforceable

b)

Ratification keeps contract still void

c)

Ratification binds the agent personally

d)

Ratification validates only lawful parts

59.

To complete ratification, the principal must

a)

Keep approval private for records

b)

Communicate adoption to agent or third party

c)

Record approval with a notary public

d)

Wait for agent to inform counterpart

60.

Which communication most clearly completes ratification?

a)

Internal memo noting tentative approval

b)

Silence implying acceptance after delivery

c)

Verbal praise to the legal department

d)

Email to third party adopting the contract

61.

Which duty requires an agent to follow instructions or, if none are given, to act according to prevailing customs?

a)

Avoid conflicts with the principal’s interests

b)

Act according to the principal’s directions

c)

Return all documents and property promptly

d)

Reasonable care and skill in performance

62.

An agent deciding to take an undisclosed margin on a purchase made for the principal violates which duty?

a)

Duty not to delegate authority

b)

Duty to communicate during emergencies

c)

Duty not to make secret profits

d)

Duty to render proper accounts

63.

Which actions together best demonstrate the duty of reasonable care and skill?

a)

Checking market rates before contracting

b)

Relying solely on intuition for pricing

c)

Following practices a prudent person would use

d)

Ignoring known risks to expedite closing

64.

When must an agent seek instructions from the principal under the communication duty?

a)

During ordinary routine transactions

b)

Whenever a better commission is possible

c)

In case of difficulty or emergency

d)

When accounts are already reconciled

65.

Maintaining and submitting accurate records of all transactions primarily fulfills which duty?

a)

Avoid conflict of interest

b)

Act with reasonable skill

c)

Protect the principal’s interests

d)

Render proper accounts

66.

Which scenario most clearly illustrates a conflict of interest?

a)

Agent documenting each expense accurately

b)

Agent buying stock for principal’s portfolio

c)

Agent declining to act beyond instructions

d)

Agent steering business to a company they own

67.

Under what circumstances may an agent delegate authority without breaching their duty?

a)

When the task is minor and routine

b)

Only when contract or necessity permits

c)

Whenever delegation increases efficiency

d)

If the principal does not object later

68.

Which behaviors fulfill the duty to protect and preserve the principal’s interests?

a)

Acting honestly and in good faith

b)

Safeguarding property from foreseeable loss

c)

Withholding material information from the principal

d)

Speculating with funds for higher returns

69.

After agency termination, what is the correct handling of the principal’s materials?

a)

Return all documents, money, and goods

b)

Keep funds until final audit occurs

c)

Dispose of duplicates after notice

d)

Retain originals for future reference

70.

Which pair of duties most directly prevents self-dealing by an agent?

a)

Reasonable care and protect interests

b)

Render accounts and communicate promptly

c)

Follow directions and avoid delegation

d)

Avoid conflicts and no secret profits