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GPM Exam 1 Review (part 2)

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the normal range for potassium? *WITH UNITS*

a)

0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL

b)

3.5 - 5 mg/dL

c)

0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L

d)

3.5 - 5 mEq/L

e)

8 - 23 mEq/L

2.

Which of the following are roles of potassium?

a)

maintaining ICF osmolality and volume

b)

maintaining ECF osmolality and volume

c)

transmitting nerve and other chemical impulses

d)

skeletal and smooth muscle function

e)

hormone secretion

3.

Which of the following are regulators of the sodium-potassium ATPase?

a)

insulin

b)

catecholamines

c)

vasopressin

d)

aldosterone

e)

glucagon

4.

What is important to remember about hypokalemia?

a)

decreased neuromuscular excitability

b)

peak T waves

c)

inverted T waves

d)

caused by diuretics via renal loss

e)

hyperreflexia

5.

What is important to remember about hyperkalemia?

a)

increased neuromuscular excitability

b)

peak T waves

c)

inverted T waves

d)

bradycardia

e)

hyperreflexia

6.

What is the normal range for potassium? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

7.

What is the normal range for calcium? *WITH UNITS*

a)

0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL

b)

8.5 - 10.5 mg/dL

c)

22 - 26 mEq/L

d)

8.5 - 10.5 mEq/L

e)

8 - 23 mEq/L

8.

Calcium functions include which of the following:

a)

blood clotting

b)

hormone secretion

c)

bone structure and teeth

d)

muscle contraction

e)

cell metabolism

9.

What are the main causes of hypocalcemia? *BASED ON WHAT WAS DISCUSSED IN CLASS*

a)

inadequate dairy

b)

excessive dietary phosphorous

c)

hyperparathyroidism

d)

intestinal malabsorption

e)

vitamin A deficiency

10.

Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia include:

a)

glaucoma

b)

prolonged QT

c)

spasms and cramps

d)

fatigue and irritability

e)

nausea/vomiting

11.

What are the main causes of hypercalcemia?

a)

hyperparathyroidism

b)

cancer

c)

metabolic acidosis

d)

oliguria

e)

hypoaldosteronism

12.

Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia include:

a)

altered mental status

b)

shortened QT

c)

spasms and cramps

d)

polyuria and polydipsia

e)

nausea/vomiting

13.

What is the normal range for calcium? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

14.

What is the normal range for phosphate? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

15.

What is the main cause of hypophosphatemia?

a)

hyperrreflexia

b)

cerebral edema

c)

refeeding syndrome

d)

osmotic demyelination

e)

rhabdomyolysis

16.

Signs and symptoms of hypophosphatemia include:

a)

irritability

b)

rhabdomyolysis

c)

hypoxia

d)

bradycardia

e)

hyperreflexia

17.

Hyperphosphatemia occurs less frequently than hypophosphatemia but causes of hyperphosphatemia include:

a)

refeeding syndrome

b)

phosphate supplements

c)

vasopressin

d)

rhabdomyolysis

e)

acute or chronic renal failure

18.

Signs and symptoms of hyperphosphatemia include:

a)

tissue calcification

b)

diminished deep tendon reflexes

c)

hyperreflexia

d)

hypocalcemia

e)

diarrhea

19.

What is the normal range for phosphate? *WITH UNITS*

a)

3 - 4.5 mg/dL

b)

3.5 - 5 mEq/L

c)

0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL

d)

3 - 4.5 mEq/L

e)

1.25 - 2.2 mEq/L

20.

What is the normal range for magnesium? *WITH UNITS*

a)

3 - 4.5 mg/dL

b)

0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L

c)

1.45 - 2.2 mg/dL

d)

3.5 - 5 mEq/L

e)

1.45 - 2.2 mEq/L

21.

Signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia include:

a)

torsades de pointes

b)

rhabdomyolysis

c)

hyperreflexia

d)

hypoxia

e)

diminished deep tendon reflexes

22.

Signs and symptoms of hypermagnesemia include:

a)

torsades de pointes

b)

rhabdomyolysis

c)

hyperreflexia

d)

muscle weakness

e)

diminished deep tendon reflexes

23.

What is the normal range for magnesium? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

24.

Which of the following are functions of the kidney?

a)

glomerular filtration

b)

active tubular secretion

c)

drug distribution

d)

RBC metabolism

e)

mineral metabolism

25.

What is the most accurate exogenous marker for glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

a)

inulin clearance

b)

serum creatinine

c)

blood urea nitrogen

d)

iothalamate

e)

insulin clearance

26.

What is the normal range for serum creatinine? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

27.

Serum creatinine and renal function have a(n) __________ relationship.

a)

inverse

b)

proportional

c)

indirect

28.

How many days does it take to reach 95% steady state in a patient with 50% normal kidney function?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

29.

How many days does it take to reach 95% steady state in a patient with 25% normal kidney function?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

30.

How many days does it take to reach 95% steady state in a patient with 10% normal kidney function?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

31.

A BUN : SCr ratio of 20:1 indicates what type of renal damage?

a)

prerenal

b)

instrinsic

c)

post renal

32.

Which of the following factors affect serum creatinine?

a)

muscle mass

b)

sex

c)

age

d)

race

e)

medications

33.

Which of the following are prerenal causes of acute kidney injury?

a)

dehydration

b)

severe hypertension

c)

obstruction in blood flow

d)

severe heart failure

e)

blood loss

34.

Which of the following are intrarenal (intrinsic) causes of acute kidney injury?

a)

nephrotoxic medications

b)

severe hypertension

c)

obstruction in blood flow

d)

severe heart failure

e)

tubular necrosis

35.

Which of the following are postrenal causes of acute kidney injury?

a)

nephrotoxic medications

b)

severe hypertension

c)

obstruction in blood flow

d)

severe heart failure

e)

blood loss

36.

Which of the following equations are used to adjust medication dose?

a)

MDRD equation

b)

cockcroft-gault equation

c)

counahan-barratt equation

d)

bedside Schwartz equation

e)

CKD epidemiology equation

37.

Which of the following are the 2 main ways to assess kidney function?

a)

CKD stages

b)

MDRD

c)

creatinine clearance

d)

a complete 24 hour urine collection

e)

urinalysis

38.

If a patient has a MDRD estimated GRF of 75, what stage of CKD do they have?

a)

stage 1: normal or kidney damage and normal GFR

b)

stage 2: slightly diminished GFR with kidney damage

c)

stage 3a: mild to moderate decrease in eGFR

d)

stage 3b: moderate to severe decrease in eGFR

e)

stage 4: significantly decreased GFR with kidney damage

39.

If a patient has a MDRD estimated GRF of 35, what stage of CKD do they have?

a)

stage 1: normal or kidney damage and normal GFR

b)

stage 2: slightly diminished GFR with kidney damage

c)

stage 3a: mild to moderate decrease in eGFR

d)

stage 3b: moderate to severe decrease in eGFR

e)

stage 4: significantly decreased GFR with kidney damage

40.

If a patient has a MDRD estimated GRF of 50, what stage of CKD do they have?

a)

stage 1: normal or kidney damage and normal GFR

b)

stage 2: slightly diminished GFR with kidney damage

c)

stage 3a: mild to moderate decrease in eGFR

d)

stage 3b: moderate to severe decrease in eGFR

e)

stage 4: significantly decreased GFR with kidney damage

41.

What are the 3 types of analysis in a urinalysis?

a)

chemical analysis

b)

microscopic analysis

c)

weight analysis

d)

metabolic analysis

e)

macroscopic analysis

42.

Macroscopic analysis is:

a)

what the urine contains in terms of cells, casts, and crystals

b)

what the urine contains in terms of proteins and chemicals

c)

what the urine look like in terms of color and turbidity/transparency

43.

Microscopic analysis is:

a)

what the urine contains in terms of cells, casts, and crystals

b)

what the urine contains in terms of proteins and chemicals

c)

what the urine look like in terms of color and turbidity/transparency

44.

What color urine is usually indicative of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a)

red/orange

b)

blue/green

c)

brown/black

d)

clear

e)

yellow

45.

What is the maximum number of squamous epithelial cells that can be present in a urinalysis before it is considered not a "clean catch"?

(a)  

46.

What are the different types of casts in a urinalysis?

a)

granular casts

b)

red cell casts

c)

hyaline casts

d)

white cell casts

e)

waxy casts

47.

Which of the following in a chemical analysis are indicative of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a)

nitrites

b)

acidic pH

c)

alkaline pH

d)

protein

e)

leukocyte esterase

48.

There are 3 components to a lipoprotein. What are these components?

a)

cholesterol

b)

alanine aminiotransferase

c)

triglycerides

d)

C-protein

e)

phospholipids

49.

Which of the following is/are known to be atherogenic and shown to have a higher risk of cardiovascular disease?

a)

app-lipoprotein A

b)

app-lipoprotein B

c)

HDL

d)

LDL

e)

TG

50.

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is predominately __________ rich.

a)

LDL

b)

HDL

c)

TG

d)

cholesterol

e)

glucose

51.

Which of the following levels are directly affected by non-fasting before a lipid panel?

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

HDL

d)

TG

e)

TC

52.

Which of the following comprise a lipid panel?

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

HDL

d)

TG

e)

TC

53.

What is the normal range for total serum cholesterol (TC)?

a)

< 100 mg/dL

b)

< 150 mg/dL

c)

< 200 mg/dL

d)

40 - 60 mg/dL

e)

< 40 mg/dL

54.

What value for HDL is considered to be protective against cardiovascular disease?

a)

< 40 mg/dL

b)

40 - 60 mg/dL

c)

> 60 mg/dL

d)

4 - 6 mg/dL

55.

Which of the following describes type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)?

a)

complete destruction of alpha cells

b)

complete destruction of beta cells

c)

reduced sensitivity to insulin

d)

absence of insulin production

e)

complete destruction of the pancreas

56.

Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM)?

a)

insulin resistance

b)

complete destruction of beta cells

c)

reduced sensitivity to insulin

d)

absence of insulin production

e)

complete destruction of the pancreas

57.

Which of the following are criteria for a diabetes diagnosis?

a)

fasting plasma glucose ≥ 261 mg/dL

b)

fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL

c)

A1c ≥ 6.5% using lab method and not point-of care testing

d)

2 hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during OGTT

e)

2 hour plasma glucose ≥ 100 mg/dL during OGTT

58.

C-peptide is predominately present in:

a)

type 1 diabetes

b)

type 2 diabetes

c)

both type 1 and type 2 diabetes

d)

neither type 1 or type diabetes

e)

it depends on glucose and insulin levels

59.

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is usually caused by:

a)

absence of blood ketones

b)

insulin deficiency

c)

presence of blood ketones

d)

blood glucose > 300 mg/dL

e)

blood glucose > 600 mg/dL

60.

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemia state (HHS) is usually caused by:

a)

absence of blood ketones

b)

insulin deficiency

c)

presence of blood ketones

d)

blood glucose > 300 mg/dL

e)

blood glucose > 600 mg/dL

61.

When ketone values are less than 0.6 mmol/L, you should:

a)

do nothing, that is the normal value

b)

give the patient more insulin/fluid

c)

tell the patient to contact their physician

d)

tell the patient to go to the ER

e)

tell the patient to take the test again

62.

When ketone values are between 1 - 3 mmol/L, you should:

a)

do nothing, that is the normal value

b)

give the patient more insulin/fluid

c)

tell the patient to contact their physician

d)

tell the patient to go to the ER

e)

tell the patient to take the test again

63.

When ketone values are between 0.6 - 1 mmol/L, you should:

a)

do nothing, that is the normal value

b)

give the patient more insulin/fluid

c)

tell the patient to contact their physician

d)

tell the patient to go to the ER

e)

tell the patient to take the test again

64.

What is the name of the T4 hormone?

(a)  

65.

What is the name of the T3 hormone?

(a)  

66.

Synthesis of T3 and T4 are regulated via a (a)   feedback loop.

67.

Symptoms of hypothyroidism include:

a)

bradycardia

b)

increased sweating

c)

decreased sweating

d)

weight gain with poor appetite

e)

weight loss with excessive appetite

68.

Symptoms of hypothyroidism include:

a)

constipation

b)

diarrhea

c)

cold intolerance

d)

heat intolerance

e)

dry skin

69.

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include:

a)

constipation

b)

diarrhea

c)

cold intolerance

d)

heat intolerance

e)

insomnia

70.

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include:

a)

bradycardia

b)

tachycardia

c)

increased sweating

d)

decreased sweating

e)

restlessness

71.

Which of the following factors increase thyroid-binding protein?

a)

hepatitis

b)

estrogen therapy

c)

androgen therapy

d)

cirrhosis

e)

pregnancy

72.

Which of the following factors decrease thyroid-binding protein?

a)

hepatitis

b)

estrogen therapy

c)

androgen therapy

d)

cirrhosis

e)

high dose glucocorticoid therapy

73.

What is the normal range for bicarbonate? *WITH UNITS*

a)

8 - 23 mg/dL

b)

22 - 26 mEq/L

c)

22 - 26 mg/dL

d)

8 - 23 mEq/L

e)

20 - 24 mEq/L

74.

What is the normal range for glucose? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

75.

Fill in the following basic metabolic panel (BMP).

4 lines

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