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LCC Exam Review

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The first step in the Military Decision Making Process is...

a)

Receipt of the mission

b)

Course of Action analysis

c)

Course of Action Comparison

d)

Course of Action Approval

2.

Issuing the initial warning order is the final task of which step of the MDMP?

a)

Mission Analysis

b)

Orders production, disemination and transition

c)

COA Comparison

d)

Receipt of the Mission

3.

Mission analysis requires staffs to gather the tools to make informed decisions. Select all the tools that would apply.

a)

Appropriate publications

b)

Higher HQ and other organizations intelligence

c)

SOP's

d)

Current running estimates

4.

Normally, the battlespace is divided by phase lines and within each belt all actions and actors within the belt are considered simultaneously describes which wargaming method

a)

belt

b)

avenue in depth

c)

box

5.

The ______ technique focuses the staff on one avenue of approach at a time, beginning with the main effort. This allows the staff to wargame the battle in sequence from the assembly area to the objective.

a)

belt

b)

avenue in depth

c)

box

6.

The _____technique is the easiest to use when the time available is short and the enemy situation is fairly certain. The staff focuses on specific areas of the battlespace, such as critical events or decision points.

a)

belt

b)

box

c)

avenue in depth

7.

Company size elements and below typically use what form of planning process?

a)

Military Decision Making Process

b)

Troop Leading Procedures

c)

Military Decision Making Plan

d)

Troop Leading Products

8.

Troop Leading Procedures are made up of how many steps?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

9.

___________ are directives that emphasize to subordinates the results to be attained, not how they are to achieve them.

a)

Mission Orders

b)

MDMP

c)

COA

10.

How many techniques are there for issuing orders?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

11.

Commanders use ______ orders when operating in an extremely time-constrained environment.

a)

verbal

b)

written

c)

electronic

12.

This technique of issuing orders contain both text and graphics.

a)

verbal

b)

written

13.

An ______ order is a directive issued by a commander to subordinate commanders in a five paragraph format for the purpose of effecting the coordinated execution of an operation.

a)

operations

b)

verbal

c)

warning

d)

fragmentary

14.

An abbreviated form of an OPORD operation order (verbal, written or digital) usually issued on a day-to-day basis that eliminates the need for restating information contained in a basic operation order.

a)

warning order (WARNO)

b)

fragmentary order (FRAGO)

c)

operation order (OPORD)

d)

Movement Order (MOVO)

15.

A _____order is a preliminary notice of an order or action which is to follow.

a)

Fragmentary Order (FRAGO)

b)

Warning Order (WARNO)

c)

Movement Order

d)

Service Support Order

16.

The first paragraph of an Operations Order

a)

Situation

b)

Mission

c)

Execution

d)

Sustainment

17.

The second paragraph of an Operations Order

a)

Situation

b)

Mission

c)

Execution

d)

Sustainment

e)

Command and Signal

18.

The third paragraph of an Operations Order

a)

situation

b)

mission

c)

execution

d)

sustainment

e)

command and signal

19.

The fourth paragraph of an Operations Order

a)

situation

b)

mission

c)

execution

d)

sustainment

e)

command and signal

20.

The fifth paragraph of an Operations Order

a)

situation

b)

mission

c)

execution

d)

sustainment

e)

command and signal

21.

Who is responsible for the overall training of a unit to ensure the unit is fully mission capable?

a)

Commander

b)

Subordinate Leaders

c)

First Sergeant

d)

Sergeant Major

22.

Who is responsible for the proficiency of their organizations and subordinates?

a)

Commander

b)

Subordinate Leaders

c)

First Sergeant

d)

Sergeant Major

23.

What principal of training states that units master tasks to an acceptable proficiency level required for task accomplishment?

a)

NCO's train individual crews and small teams

b)

Train as you fight

c)

Train to standard

d)

Train while operating

24.

Which training principal translates into "training under and expected operational environment for the mission?"

a)

train to standard

b)

train as you will fight

c)

train while operating

d)

train fundamentals first

25.

Which training principal means continuing training even during operations?

a)

train as you will fight

b)

train to standard

c)

train while operating

d)

train fundamentals first

26.

Which training principal focuses on skills such as basic soldiering, warrior tasks, battle drills, marksmanship, fitness and MOS skills.

a)

train to standard

b)

train as you fight

c)

train while operating

d)

train fundamentals first

27.

Which training prinicpal relates to training those tasks most essential to mission accomplishment in order to be able to adjust to changing environments and scenerios?

a)

train as you will fight

b)

train to develop adaptability

c)

understand the operational environment

d)

train to sustain

28.

Which principal of training means to train soldiers to sustain themselves both mentally and physically?

a)

train to sustain

b)

train as you will fight

c)

train to standard

d)

train to maintain

29.

Which principal of training stresses the importance of maintaining the soldiers themselves as well as their equipment?

a)

train to sustain

b)

train to maintain

c)

train to develop adaptability

d)

train to standard

30.

Which principal of training references commanders ensuring subordinate units have to opportunity to train essential tasks while supporting the higher echelon's training objectives.

a)

train to maintain

b)

train to sustain

c)

conduct mutiechelon and concurrent training

d)

train to standard

31.

There are how many steps to the Army's training model?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

32.

Step 1 of the 8 step training model

a)

plan

b)

train the trainers

c)

recon the site

d)

issue the order

33.

Step 2 of the 8 step training model

a)

plan

b)

train the trainers

c)

recon the site

d)

rehearse

34.

Step 3 of the 8 step training model

a)

train the trainers

b)

recon the site

c)

issue the order

d)

rehearse

35.

Step 4 of the 8 step training model

a)

retrain

b)

evaluate the training

c)

execute

d)

issue the order

36.

Step 5 of the 8 step training model

a)

execute

b)

evaluate the training

c)

rehearse

d)

retrain

37.

Step 6 of the 8 step training model

a)

recon the site

b)

issue the order

c)

rehearse

d)

execute

38.

Step 7 of the 8 step training model

a)

rehearse

b)

execute

c)

evaluate the training

d)

retrain

39.

Step 8 of the 8 step training model

a)

rehearse

b)

execute

c)

evaluate the training

d)

retrain

40.

The process of mitigating inherent risk associated with the training environment

a)

Military Decision Making Procedure

b)

Risk Management

c)

Troop Leading Procedures

41.

Risk Management is a ___ step process for mitigating risk.

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

42.

A condition with the potential to cause injury, illness, or death of personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; or mission degradation

a)

risk

b)

hazard

c)

problem

43.

How are risk level expressed? Mark all that apply.

a)

extremely high

b)

high

c)

medium

d)

low

e)

ridiculously high

44.

These are put in place to manage and mitigate risk during the risk management process.

a)

guidelines

b)

mitigating factors

c)

controls

45.

This step of the Risk Management Process is used to validate implemented control are effective.

a)

implement controls

b)

assess the hazards

c)

identify the hazards

d)

supervise and evaluate

46.

The term for the most serious degree of severity of hazard.

a)

negligible

b)

marginal

c)

critical

d)

catastrophic

47.

Severe injury, illness, loss, or damage; significantly degraded unit readiness or mission capability

a)

catastrophic

b)

critical

c)

moderate

d)

negligible

48.

Minor injury, illness, loss, or damage; degraded unit readiness or mission capability. What is the degree of severity?

a)

catastrophic

b)

critical

c)

moderate

d)

negligible

49.

Minimal injury, loss, or damage; little or no impact to unit readiness or mission capability. What is the degree of severity?

a)

catastrophic

b)

critical

c)

moderate

d)

negligible

50.

Death, unacceptable loss or damage, mission failure, or unit readiness eliminated. What is the degree of severity?

a)

catastrophic

b)

critical

c)

moderate

d)

negligible

51.

Continuous, regular, or inevitable occurrences. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

occasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

52.

Several or numerous occurrences. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

occasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

53.

Sporadic or intermittent occurrences. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

occasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

54.

Infrequent occurrences. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

ovvasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

55.

Possible occurrences but improbable. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

occasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

56.

Also known as on-system maintenance, repairs and returns equipment to the operator or the user.

a)

field maintenance

b)

sustainment maintenance

57.

Also known as off-system maintenance, primarily repairs and returns equipment and components to the supply system.

a)

field maitenance

b)

sustainment maitenance

58.

PMCS is the foundation of materiel readiness. Who is responsible for PMCS? Check all that apply.

a)

Commander

b)

First Sergeant

c)

Section Sergeant

d)

Vehicle Commanders

59.

PMCS that must be performed prior to placing vehicle or its components in operation

a)

before

b)

during

c)

after

d)

weekly

e)

monthly

60.

PMCS that must be performed while the vehicle and/or its components/systems are in operation.

a)

before

b)

during

c)

after

d)

weekly

e)

monthly

61.

PMCS this is performed upon completion of mission.

a)

before

b)

during

c)

after

d)

weekly

e)

monthly

62.

PMCS that is performed once every seven days.

a)

before

b)

during

c)

after

d)

weekly

e)

monthly

63.

PMCS that is performed once every 30 days.

a)

before

b)

during

c)

after

d)

weekly

e)

monthly

64.

This Symbol on a 5988-E marks a fault that the TM identifies as "Not Fully Mission Capable (NMC).

a)

X

b)

Circle X

c)

/

d)

-

65.

This Symbol on a 5988-E requires the commander's authorization and can only be used for limited purposes such as transferring the vehicle to higher echelon maintenance

a)

X

b)

Circled X

c)

-

d)

/

66.

This Symbol on a 5988-E shows an inspection, part replacement, MWO or maintenance operation check is due, but hasn't been done

a)

X

b)

Circled X

c)

-

d)

/

67.

This symbol on a 5988-E means there is a materiel defect that does not inhibit mission accomplishment but should be corrected.

a)

X

b)

Circled X

c)

-

d)

/

68.

indicates completely satisfactory condition or a corrected fault

a)

X

b)

-

c)

last name initial

d)

/

69.

Continuous, regular, or inevitable occurrences. What is the degree of probability?

a)

frequent

b)

likely

c)

occasional

d)

seldom

e)

unlikely

70.

Eye contact, body posture, head nods, facial expressions, and checks for understanding are all components of what?

a)

nonverbal indicators

b)

responding

c)

active listening

71.

During a counseling session, summarizing the subordiate's message, interpreting their message and clarrifying their message are methods of responding ______.

a)

nonverbally

b)

verbally

72.

Eye contact and head nods are way of responding to a subordinate _____.

a)

verbally

b)

non-verbally

73.

Which is a best practice when counseling a subordinate?

a)

Control and dominate the conversation

b)

Asking closed ended questions that have a definite answer.

c)

Listen more and talk less

d)

Keep the chain of command informed of everything discussed during the counseling session,

74.

The DA Form 2166-9-1A is used for what purpose?

a)

Completed NCOER for the rated period

b)

NCOER support form to track progress through the rating period

c)

Maintenance record for subordinate's equipment

d)

Replace the NCOER

75.

Initial counseling for soldiers has to be completed within ____ days.

a)

60

b)

90

c)

30

d)

45

76.

After an initial counseling, follow up counselings must happen when?

a)

Semiannually for RA/AGR NCO's, quarterly for ARNG and USAR

b)

Quarterly for RA/AGR NCO's, quarterly for ARNG and USAR

c)

Quarterly for RA/AGR NCO's, Semiannually for ARNG and USAR

d)

Semiannually for RA/AGR NCO's, Semiannually for ARNG and USAR

77.

What is the focus of Part IV of the NCOER?

a)

Overall potential of a soldier

b)

Performance evaluation, professionalism, attributes and competencies

c)

Administrative Data

d)

Broadening assignment opportunities

78.

What is the focus of Part V of the NCOER?

a)

Rater's assessment of the NCO's potential

b)

Reviewer's final assessment of the NCO

c)

Senior Rater's potential for promotion when compared to other NCO's

d)

Rater's recommendation for broadening assignment

79.

A _____ has a voluntary developmental relationship that exists between a person of greater experience and a person of lesser experience that is characterized by mutual trust and respect.

a)

Coach

b)

Mentor

c)

Advisor