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Worksheets2205 Exam 1 OT pt.1
Total questions: 39
Worksheet time: 20mins
A client at 33 weeks is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which NST result is reactive?
Two fetal heart rate accelerations in 20 minutes lasting 15 seconds
Two late decelerations with 50% of contractions
No accelerations in 20 minutes
Accelerations that last 5 seconds at 33 weeks
A client is 31 weeks and undergoing an NST. Which finding meets the reactive criteria for this gestational age?
One acceleration in 20 minutes lasting 15 seconds
Two accelerations in 20 minutes lasting 10 seconds
No accelerations but fetal movement is felt
Variable decelerations with fetal movement
A provider reviews an NST strip from a 34-week client. Which interpretation is correct if there are no accelerations in 20 minutes?
Reactive NST
Sinusoidal pattern
Nonreactive NST
Biophysical profile score 8–10
The nurse explains a biophysical profile (BPP). Which set lists the 5 variables assessed?
Cervical dilation, fetal station, contraction frequency, maternal BP, urine protein
Maternal heart rate, fetal heart rate, amniotic pH, fetal tone, fetal growth
Fetal tone, fetal hiccups, fetal reflexes, uterine tenderness, maternal temp
Fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume
A BPP score returns 8–10. How should the nurse interpret this?
Normal; low risk of fetal asphyxia (dangerously low oxygen)
Abnormal; suspect fetal asphyxia
Abnormal; strongly suspect fetal asphyxia
Indeterminate; repeat in 4 weeks
A BPP score returns 4–6. What is the best interpretation?
Normal
Abnormal; suspect fetal asphyxia
Abnormal; strongly suspect fetal asphyxia
Equivalent to a reactive NST
A BPP score returns 3. What is the best interpretation?
Mild abnormality; monitor at next routine visit
Normal if fetal movement is present
Abnormal; strongly suspect fetal asphyxia
Reactive if there are 2 accelerations
The provider orders fetal testing for a client with decreased fetal movement. Which test is most directly indicated per the antepartum content?
Coombs test
Maternal serum creatinine
Pelvic exam
Nonstress test (NST)
A client is scheduled for maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. When is AFP screening indicated?
16–18 weeks
6–10 weeks
28–32 weeks
36–40 weeks
The nurse reviews AFP results. Which finding is most consistent with high AFP?
Down syndrome risk
Neural tube defect or open abdominal defect risk
Rh sensitization
Maternal dehydration
The nurse reviews AFP results. Which finding is most consistent with low AFP?
Placenta previa
Spina bifida
Down syndrome
Cervical insufficiency
A client asks what AFP is used for. Which response is best?
“It confirms pregnancy.”
“It is a diagnostic test that proves chromosomal disorders.”
“It predicts labor onset within 48 hours.”
“It is a screening test; abnormal results need confirmation with further testing.”
A client has a high AFP screening result. Which follow-up test is specifically noted as a follow-up test for high AFP?
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Nonstress test
Contraction stress test
The nurse is teaching about amniocentesis. Which statement is accurate?
“It is performed between 10–13 weeks.”
“It is aspiration of amniotic fluid for various testing after 15 weeks.”
“It replaces NST testing in the third trimester.”
“It is contraindicated in all Rh-negative clients.”
After an amniocentesis, which action is specifically expected?
Administer Rho(D) immune globulin to Rh-negative clients and monitor fetal heart rate
Begin oxytocin infusion to stimulate contractions
Perform a digital cervical exam
Place the client in Trendelenburg position
A client asks about CVS timing. Which is correct?
6–8 weeks
14–22 weeks
24–28 weeks
10–13 weeks
A client with suspected ectopic pregnancy reports vaginal bleeding and unilateral stabbing pain. What is the priority nursing concern?
Rupture with hemorrhage risk
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Placenta previa
Cervical insufficiency
A client with suspected ectopic pregnancy reports referred shoulder pain. Which interpretation is most concerning?
Normal musculoskeletal pain of pregnancy
Possible internal bleeding/irritation consistent with ectopic complications
Early sign of gestational diabetes
Expected side effect of prenatal vitamins
A nurse notes Cullen’s sign (periumbilical bruising) in a client with suspected ectopic pregnancy. What does this finding support?
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Placenta previa
Possible intraabdominal bleeding
Normal pregnancy skin change
A client with suspected ectopic pregnancy is being evaluated. Which diagnostic/treatment plan is included in the ectopic content?
Immediate tocolysis and bedrest only
Rhogam as the definitive treatment
Cervical cerclage placement
Serial hCG and ultrasound with possible methotrexate management
A client asks which factor increases ectopic pregnancy risk. Which option is listed among risk factors?
PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) history
Daily fetal kick counts
Normal BMI
First-trimester CVS
A client at 10 weeks has heavy bleeding and is diagnosed with spontaneous abortion managed with dilation and curettage (D&C). Which discharge instruction is correct?
Resume sexual intercourse in 48 hours if bleeding stops
Refrain from sexual intercourse, tub baths, and inserting anything vaginally for 2 weeks
Use tampons to monitor bleeding amount
Return only if nausea persists
Post-D&C teaching: which symptom should the client report to the provider?
Mild cramping only
Light spotting that decreases
Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
Increased appetite
Post-D&C teaching: which symptom should be reported immediately?
Mild fatigue
Breast tenderness
Constipation
Fever
A client with suspected gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) reports hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding. Which additional finding is listed as a GTD manifestation?
Preeclampsia developing before 20 weeks
Polyuria with fruity breath
Proteinuria resolved by rest
Decreased uterine size
GTD labs are reviewed. Which result is expected?
Low hCG
Excessively high hCG serum levels
Low platelet count as the only change
Low creatinine due to hyperfiltration
A nurse prepares a client for GTD diagnostic evaluation. Which imaging finding is included?
US shows placenta covering cervical os with a fetus present
US shows oligohydramnios only
US reveals dense growth with characteristic vesicles and no fetus
US confirms fetal growth restriction with normal placenta
Which treatment is listed for evacuation of a molar pregnancy/GTD?
Oral glucose tolerance test
Pelvic rest only
Antihypertensive therapy only
Suction curettage to aspirate/evacuate the mole
A client is diagnosed with placenta previa. Which clinical manifestation is most expected?
Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester
Severe uterine tenderness and rigid abdomen
Dark brown bleeding with significant cramping
Sudden cessation of bleeding after rupture of membranes
A nurse is caring for a client with suspected placenta previa and active bleeding. Which action is contraindicated?
Obtain ultrasound
Draw CBC and type & screen
Perform digital vaginal exam
Monitor fetal heart rate
A client has painless vaginal bleeding. Which diagnostic test is emphasized for placenta previa evaluation?
Ultrasound
Kleihauer-Betke test
24-hour urine collection
PUQE score
A nurse reviews placenta previa lab orders. Which set is included in the previa content?
AST/ALT only
Thyroid panel only
UA ketones and specific gravity only
CBC (H&H, platelets), type & screen, fibrinogen, PT/PTT/INR
A client asks what “complete placenta previa” means. Which response is correct?
Placenta completely covers the cervical os
Placenta lies near the cervix but does not cover it
Placenta partially covers the cervical os only when contracting
Placenta is located in the uterine fundus
A client asks what “marginal placenta previa” means. Which response is correct?
Placenta completely covers the cervical os
Placenta partially covers the cervical os
Placenta lies near the cervix and does not cover the cervical opening
Placenta is implanted in the fallopian tube
The nurse provides placenta previa education. Which teaching is included?
No sexual activity and avoid strenuous exercise/heavy lifting/prolonged standing
Perform daily nipple stimulation to prevent hemorrhage
Use tampons for bleeding control
Maintain strict supine positioning to stop bleeding
A client with placenta previa asks about follow-up. Which plan is listed?
No further imaging is needed after diagnosis
Follow-up ultrasound at 32 weeks and 36 weeks depending on type
Weekly amniocentesis after 15 weeks
CVS repeated each trimester
A client with placenta previa at 31 weeks asks why corticosteroids were prescribed. The best explanation is:
Promote fetal lung maturity
Treat maternal hyperglycemia
Prevent HSV outbreaks
Reverse placental implantation
The nurse teaches a placenta previa client about magnesium sulfate ordered prior to 32 weeks. Which statement is best?
“It is an antihypertensive for placenta previa.”
“It cures placenta previa by moving the placenta.”
“It is used only after delivery.”
“It may be used prior to 32 weeks as part of therapy planning in this condition.”
A client at 34 weeks has painful bleeding, uterine tenderness, and frequent contractions. Which complication is most likely?
Placental abruption
Placenta previa
Cervical insufficiency
Hyperemesis gravidarum
