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Worksheets

Midterm Review

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 16hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes metabolism in living things?

a)

All chemical reactions inside cells

b)

Movement of blood through vessels

c)

Only digestion of food in stomach

d)

Exchange of gases in the lungs

2.

Homeostasis is the ability of an organism to maintain what?

a)

Constant external environment

b)

Stable internal conditions

c)

Rapid growth and development

d)

High energy production always

3.

Which is an example of responding to a stimulus?

a)

Digesting food after eating

b)

Growing taller over years

c)

Evolving over many generations

d)

Sweating when it is hot

4.

Failure to maintain homeostasis most likely leads to what outcome?

a)

Permanent cold body

b)

Unlimited reproduction

c)

Disease or death

d)

Immediate evolution

5.

Which statement about insulin is accurate in regulating blood sugar?

a)

Insulin makes plants open stomata

b)

Insulin starts muscle contractions

c)

Insulin raises body temperature

d)

Insulin lowers high blood sugar

6.

Which characteristic is shared by all living things?

a)

Do not use any energy

b)

Made of one or more cells

c)

Never change over time

d)

Always multicellular organisms

7.

Plant stomata opening and closing helps maintain homeostasis by regulating what?

a)

Gas and water exchange

b)

Body temperature in humans

c)

Blood sugar in animals

d)

Growth rate in bacteria

8.

Which pair correctly matches stimulus type with example?

a)

External stimulus: blood glucose level

b)

Internal stimulus: sunlight intensity

c)

External stimulus: temperature change

d)

Internal stimulus: wind speed

9.

Which option lists the levels of biological organization from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell → Organelle → Molecule → Atom → Organism

b)

Atom → Molecule → Cell → Tissue → Organ

c)

Organ → Tissue → Cell → Molecule → Atom

d)

Molecule → Atom → Cell → Organism

10.

What is an organelle?

a)

A group of similar cells working together for one function

b)

A specialized structure inside a cell that performs a function

c)

Two or more atoms chemically bonded together forming compounds

d)

An individual living thing that performs all life processes

11.

Which statement best defines a tissue?

a)

An individual living thing able to carry out life processes

b)

The basic unit of structure and function in living things

c)

A group of similar cells working together to perform a function

d)

A structure made of different tissues working together

12.

Which level is the basic unit of life?

a)

Organism

b)

Cell

c)

Molecule

d)

Organ

13.

Which example shows the correct relationship of levels building up complexity?

a)

Tissues combine to form organs, then organ systems

b)

Cells combine to form organelles, then molecules

c)

Molecules combine to form atoms, then organelles

d)

Organs combine to form tissues, then cells

14.

What defines a molecule?

a)

The smallest unit of matter with element properties

b)

A group of organs working together for a major function

c)

Two or more atoms chemically bonded together

d)

A specialized structure inside a cell like mitochondria

15.

Which level comes directly after organ in the hierarchy?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organism

c)

Organ system

d)

Cell

16.

Which description correctly defines an organism?

a)

A specialized structure inside a cell that performs a specific function

b)

A group of organs working together to perform a major body function

c)

A structure made of different tissues working together to do a function

d)

An individual living thing that can carry out all life processes

17.

Which statement is part of the cell theory?

a)

All organisms contain many tissues

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)

Cells are larger than organelles always

d)

New cells form from simple molecules

18.

A key idea of the cell theory explains where new cells come from. Which choice states it correctly?

a)

New cells come from pre-existing cells

b)

New cells form inside mitochondria

c)

New cells appear from nonliving matter

d)

New cells grow from cell walls only

19.

Which feature distinguishes prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes have only animal cells

b)

Prokaryotes lack a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotes make ATP without ribosomes

d)

Prokaryotes have many chloroplasts

20.

Which organelle controls cell activities and houses DNA?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

21.

Which organelle primarily produces ATP, the cell’s energy?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell wall

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Ribosome

22.

Which structure controls what enters and exits the cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Nucleus membrane

c)

Cell wall

d)

Ribosome layer

23.

In plant cells, which structure provides rigid support?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

24.

Which organelle carries out photosynthesis in plant cells?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Golgi body

d)

Mitochondria

25.

Looking at the diagram labels Plant Cell vs Animal Cell, which feature is found only in the plant cell image?

a)

Absent nucleus region

b)

Large central vacuole region

c)

Circular overall cell shape

d)

Multiple small vesicle dots

26.

Which statement best describes a selectively permeable cell membrane?

a)

It lets all molecules pass freely at any time

b)

It only allows large molecules to pass through

c)

It blocks every molecule from entering or leaving

d)

It allows some substances through while blocking others

27.

Which process moves particles from high concentration to low concentration without using energy?

a)

Active transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

28.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of nutrients against the gradient

b)

Diffusion of water across a membrane

c)

Transport that requires ATP energy

d)

Random bouncing of sugar molecules

29.

Active transport differs from passive transport because it

a)

moves substances with the gradient using no energy

b)

only occurs with water molecules

c)

moves substances against the gradient using ATP

d)

spreads molecules evenly by random motion

30.

A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will most likely

a)

gain water and swell

b)

lose water and shrink

c)

stay the same size

d)

burst due to intake

31.

In the sugar-beaker sequence, which event explains diffusion?

a)

Sugar molecules remain tightly packed together

b)

Sugar molecules move randomly and spread out

c)

Water molecules push sugar to the bottom

d)

Sugar molecules require ATP to move

32.

Which substances are commonly allowed into cells to support homeostasis?

a)

Only ions and charged macromolecules

b)

Only proteins and large starches

c)

Carbon dioxide, toxins, and viruses

d)

Water, oxygen, and nutrients

33.

Which organelle is the site of photosynthesis shown in the diagram?

a)

Ribosome in all cells

b)

Nucleus in plant cells

c)

Chloroplast in plant cells

d)

Mitochondria in animal cells

34.

What is the main purpose of photosynthesis illustrated here?

a)

Release ATP energy quickly

b)

Store energy in glucose molecules

c)

Break down proteins for energy

d)

Convert chemical energy into heat

35.

Which balanced equation represents photosynthesis?

a)

6O2 + ATP → C6H12O6 + CO2 + H2O

b)

6CO2 + 6H2O + light → C6H12O6 + 6O2

c)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

d)

CO2 + O2 + light → glucose + water

36.

Where does cellular respiration primarily occur as shown?

a)

In chloroplasts of plant cells

b)

In mitochondria of cells

c)

In vacuoles of plant cells

d)

In cytoplasm only

37.

What is the immediate energy source produced by cellular respiration?

a)

Water released from reactions

b)

Oxygen made during photosynthesis

c)

ATP used for cell activities

d)

Glucose stored in chloroplasts

38.

Which equation correctly shows cellular respiration?

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

b)

6CO2 + 6H2O + light → C6H12O6 + 6O2

c)

Glucose + light → carbon dioxide + oxygen

d)

C6H12O6 + CO2 → 6O2 + water + ATP

39.

How are photosynthesis and respiration related according to the diagram?

a)

They use identical reactants and products

b)

Products of photosynthesis are reactants of respiration

c)

They occur in the same organelle and time

d)

Respiration supplies light energy for photosynthesis

40.

Which macromolecule mainly provides quick energy for cells?

a)

Nucleic acids for genetic info

b)

Carbohydrates for rapid energy

c)

Lipids for long-term energy

d)

Proteins for structure and enzymes

41.

Which is a correct pairing of macromolecule and primary function?

a)

Nucleic acids — store genetic information

b)

Lipids — quick energy supply

c)

Proteins — long-term energy storage

d)

Carbohydrates — genetic information

42.

Which example correctly matches its macromolecule category?

a)

Glucose — lipid group

b)

Fats — nucleic acid group

c)

Hemoglobin — protein group

d)

DNA — carbohydrate group

43.

What is the best description of an enzyme?

a)

A nucleic acid that is reusable

b)

A lipid that forms DNA strands

c)

A carbohydrate that stores genes

d)

A protein that speeds reactions

44.

How do enzymes affect the activation energy of reactions?

a)

They remove activation energy

b)

They ignore activation energy

c)

They lower activation energy

d)

They raise activation energy

45.

What does enzyme specificity mean?

a)

Each enzyme fits only one substrate

b)

One enzyme fits many substrates

c)

All enzymes share the same active site

d)

Substrates change any enzyme shape

46.

What happens to an enzyme when it denatures due to extreme heat?

a)

It changes shape and stops working

b)

It gains extra active sites

c)

It permanently binds all substrates

d)

It becomes a carbohydrate molecule

47.

Which condition can also alter enzyme shape and function besides heat?

a)

pH changes in the environment

b)

Salt crystals forming

c)

Oxygen levels shifting

d)

Light intensity increasing

48.

Why are enzymes considered reusable catalysts?

a)

They dissolve into substrates

b)

They are not used up in reactions

c)

They are consumed during reactions

d)

They become products after reactions

49.

According to the lock-and-key model shown, what occurs at the active site?

a)

The products bind to substrates

b)

The substrate binds to the enzyme

c)

The enzyme breaks into products

d)

The enzyme changes to nucleic acid

50.

Where is DNA located in eukaryotic cells?

a)

On the cell membrane surface

b)

Within the mitochondria only

c)

In the cytoplasm outside ribosomes

d)

Inside the nucleus of the cell

51.

Which set lists the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA?

a)

Adenine, Uracil, Thymine, Guanine

b)

Thymine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine

c)

Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine

d)

Adenine, Cytosine, Uracil, Guanine

52.

What is a gene?

a)

An mRNA molecule that carries instructions

b)

A whole chromosome containing many traits

c)

A segment of DNA that codes for a protein

d)

A ribosome that builds polypeptides

53.

Which statement best describes transcription during protein synthesis?

a)

DNA is copied into mRNA inside the nucleus

b)

tRNA is converted into DNA inside mitochondria

c)

mRNA is translated into a protein at ribosomes

d)

Proteins are folded into active shapes in Golgi

54.

Which process happens at the ribosome during protein synthesis?

a)

Transcription of DNA into mRNA

b)

Mutation repair by special enzymes

c)

Translation of mRNA into a protein

d)

Replication of DNA into two strands

55.

Proteins are important because they primarily determine which features?

a)

Diet preferences and learned behaviors

b)

Cell division timing and lifespan

c)

Eye color, enzyme function, cell structure

d)

Blood pressure and breathing rate

56.

Which change qualifies as a mutation?

a)

A temporary shortage of ribosomes

b)

A shift in protein folding environment

c)

An increase in available amino acids

d)

A change in the DNA nucleotide sequence

57.

Which outcome can result from a gene mutation, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Faster transcription but same protein

b)

Normal protein produced every time

c)

Abnormal protein or no protein produced

d)

Extra chromosomes produced in nucleus

58.

Which statement about mutation effects is accurate?

a)

All mutations are harmful to organisms

b)

Mutations are always neutral in impact

c)

Some mutations are neutral, harmful, or beneficial

d)

Beneficial mutations never occur in nature

59.

Environmental factors can influence mutations by primarily doing what?

a)

Decreasing cell size during growth

b)

Replacing cytosine with uracil in DNA

c)

Increasing the rate of DNA mutations

d)

Eliminating all ribosomes from cells

60.

In the DNA diagram, what forms the sides of the ladder-like structure?

a)

Sugar-phosphate backbone strands

b)

Nitrogen bases linked together

c)

Proteins wrapped around histones

d)

Ribosomal RNA helices

61.

Which pairing correctly matches location with process?

a)

Transcription at ribosome; translation in nucleus

b)

Translation at ribosome; transcription in nucleus

c)

Both transcription and translation in nucleus

d)

Both transcription and translation at ribosome

62.

Which statement best describes evolution in a population over time?

a)

Mutations always make organisms stronger

b)

Species stop changing once adapted fully

c)

Populations change as traits become more common

d)

Individuals change because they need traits

63.

What is the main role of natural selection in evolution?

a)

Creating new species instantly

b)

Explaining how traits spread

c)

Stopping mutations completely

d)

Making all individuals identical

64.

Which source most directly creates genetic variation in a population?

a)

Diet and exercise routines

b)

Seasonal climate changes

c)

Mutations and sexual reproduction

d)

Learned behaviors from parents

65.

In the deer diagram, which step shows that more young are produced than can survive?

a)

Adaptation stage with common traits

b)

Selection stage with survivors

c)

Variation stage with differences

d)

Overproduction stage at the start

66.

Why do some deer survive and reproduce more than others in the selection step?

a)

They have advantageous traits

b)

They change traits when needed

c)

They receive equal resources

d)

They learn survival skills fast

67.

What happens to traits that increase survival and reproduction in a population?

a)

They gradually become rarer

b)

They become more common

c)

They stay unchanged forever

d)

They disappear after one generation

68.

Which statement about organisms and trait changes is accurate?

a)

Needs directly cause genetic mutations every time

b)

Organisms do not evolve traits because they need them

c)

Traits appear when environments demand them

d)

Organisms evolve traits because they need them

69.

In the antibiotic resistance sequence, why do drug‑resistant bacteria take over after treatment?

a)

Antibiotics create new resistant genes immediately

b)

Resistant bacteria survive and then multiply

c)

All bacteria die and stay dead forever

d)

Healthy bacteria block resistant ones from growth

70.

Which body system transports materials like oxygen and nutrients throughout the body?

a)

Respiratory system moves gases in lungs

b)

Circulatory system carries blood in vessels

c)

Digestive system absorbs food molecules

d)

Excretory system filters wastes for removal

71.

Which structure pair is most directly involved in gas exchange?

a)

Stomach and pancreas

b)

Kidneys and ureters

c)

Lungs and alveoli

d)

Heart and arteries

72.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

Remove water and salt wastes

b)

Transport oxygen and nutrients

c)

Break down and absorb nutrients

d)

Regulate hormones using glands

73.

Which system includes the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Immune system

74.

Where do most nutrients enter the bloodstream after digestion?

a)

Large intestine stores wastes

b)

Small intestine absorbs nutrients

c)

Stomach churns food

d)

Pancreas secretes hormones

75.

Which system’s other information notes maintaining water and salt balance?

a)

Excretory system balances fluids

b)

Circulatory system regulates gases

c)

Immune system creates antibodies

d)

Respiratory system exchanges CO₂

76.

Which set lists key structures of the circulatory system?

a)

White cells, antibodies

b)

Lungs, bronchi, alveoli

c)

Heart, blood, vessels

d)

Kidneys, bladder, ureters

77.

What best describes the respiratory system’s function?

a)

Nutrient absorption in intestines

b)

Hormone regulation through glands

c)

Gas exchange, oxygen in

d)

Defense against pathogens

78.

Hormones travel primarily through which medium to reach target organs?

a)

Urine passing through ureters

b)

Digestive fluids in stomach

c)

Air moving in alveoli

d)

Blood flowing in vessels

79.

Vaccines help the immune system by mainly doing what?

a)

Teaching immune memory

b)

Balancing water and salts

c)

Speeding digestive enzymes

d)

Increasing lung capacity

80.

Which combination correctly matches a system with one of its structures?

a)

Respiratory—kidneys

b)

Endocrine—pancreas

c)

Excretory—alveoli

d)

Immune—antibodies

81.

If blood did not deliver oxygen effectively, which system’s function would be directly failing?

a)

Circulatory transport of materials

b)

Immune defense against pathogens

c)

Endocrine regulation of hormones

d)

Digestive breakdown of nutrients

82.

Which statement best describes the main function of the immune system?

a)

Keeps the body healthy by fighting pathogens

b)

Breaks down food into usable nutrients

c)

Controls movement using muscles and bones

d)

Produces hormones to regulate body functions

83.

What is a pathogen?

a)

A white blood cell type

b)

A protein that marks invaders

c)

A harmless body cell part

d)

An organism that causes disease

84.

Which molecules on a pathogen trigger an immune response?

a)

Enzymes made in stomach

b)

Hormones released by glands

c)

Antibodies inside blood

d)

Antigens on pathogen surfaces

85.

Which cells make antibodies to fight specific pathogens?

a)

B cells within lymphocytes

b)

Phagocytes in blood

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Platelets in plasma

86.

What is the role of T cells in immunity?

a)

Digest food in the intestines

b)

Carry oxygen to all body tissues

c)

Produce mucus to trap pathogens

d)

Attack infected cells or coordinate response

87.

Which statement about antibodies is correct?

a)

Proteins from B cells that bind antigens

b)

Sugars from the liver that energize cells

c)

Lipids that store energy in fat

d)

Acids that dissolve harmful pathogens

88.

What do phagocytes do during an immune response?

a)

Make antibodies to bind antigens

b)

Carry carbon dioxide to lungs

c)

Engulf and destroy marked pathogens

d)

Release insulin to control sugar

89.

Why can the immune system target different pathogens?

a)

Antibodies never change

b)

Each antigen is specific

c)

Phagocytes memorize shapes

d)

All pathogens look identical

90.

What is the correct first step of the immune response?

a)

B cells make antibodies

b)

A pathogen enters the body

c)

Memory cells form for later

d)

Phagocytes engulf the invader

91.

During the immune response, when do phagocytes act?

a)

Only when vaccines are given

b)

At the exact same time as B cells

c)

Before antigens are recognized

d)

After antibodies mark pathogens

92.

What happens after B cells produce antibodies?

a)

Antibodies attach to antigens

b)

T cells turn into red cells

c)

Antibodies digest glucose

d)

Pathogens make more antigens

93.

What is created to allow a faster response if a pathogen enters again?

a)

Memory cells made after infection

b)

Additional bones in marrow

c)

Extra red blood cells

d)

New hormones from glands

94.

Which statement about vaccines is accurate?

a)

Train immunity using weakened or dead pathogens

b)

Directly kill all living viruses in blood

c)

Cause disease to build stronger muscles

d)

Are the same drugs as antibiotics

95.

What does the body produce after vaccination that gives future protection?

a)

Antibodies and memory cells

b)

Extra digestive enzymes

c)

More sweat and oil

d)

Stronger cartilage cells

96.

Which tip is correct about antibiotics?

a)

Are proteins made by B lymphocytes

b)

Bind antigens to mark invaders

c)

Prevent disease by training memory cells

d)

Treat bacterial infections, not viruses

97.

In the diagram showing an antibody and antigen, what is labeled as binding to the antigen?

a)

A nerve cell dendrite

b)

An antibody protein molecule

c)

A phagocyte pseudopod

d)

A red blood cell membrane

98.

Which white blood cells include B cells and T cells?

a)

Lymphocytes in the immune system

b)

Platelets forming blood clots

c)

Erythrocytes carrying oxygen

d)

Phagocytes that engulf invaders

99.

Which best explains why memory cells are important?

a)

They enable quicker defense upon re-exposure

b)

They produce insulin for sugar control

c)

They break down food for rapid energy

d)

They carry antibodies to the lungs

100.

During step 2 in the illustrated sequence, what do WBCs detect?

a)

Intruders by recognizing antigens

b)

Oxygen levels in the blood

c)

Nutrients absorbed in intestine

d)

Signals from the nervous system

101.

Which pairing is correct according to the summary table?

a)

Antibody is a hormone that stores energy

b)

Vaccine introduces antigens to train immunity

c)

Antigen is a vitamin used for growth

d)

Pathogen is a harmless body molecule

102.

Which statement best describes a negative feedback loop in the body?

a)

It amplifies a change to finish a process

b)

It reverses a change to maintain stability

c)

It creates new changes to start reactions

d)

It ignores changes to keep energy low

103.

What is the main goal of negative feedback?

a)

Increase hormone levels steadily

b)

Maintain homeostasis by restoring normal

c)

Keep body variables fluctuating widely

d)

Drive a process to completion quickly

104.

Which example shows negative feedback controlling blood sugar?

a)

Platelets attract more platelets to clot

b)

Prostaglandins strengthen uterine contractions

c)

Insulin lowers high blood sugar levels

d)

Oxytocin increases contractions in labor

105.

In thermoregulation, which response occurs when body temperature is too high?

a)

Blood pressure rises to cool skin

b)

Insulin release raises temperature

c)

Sweating starts to remove heat

d)

Shivering begins to produce heat

106.

According to the temperature loop diagram, shivering is triggered when

a)

Sweat glands become overactive at rest

b)

Blood sugar drops after a meal

c)

Body temperature decreases below normal

d)

Body temperature increases above normal

107.

Which statement about positive feedback is accurate?

a)

It reduces hormone release during stress

b)

It commonly regulates most body systems

c)

It amplifies changes until a process ends

d)

It stabilizes variables near a set point

108.

Which scenario illustrates positive feedback during childbirth?

a)

Sweating cools the body during exercise

b)

Oxytocin causes stronger contractions

c)

Insulin lowers blood sugar after eating

d)

Hormones stabilize blood pressure

109.

In the childbirth diagram, what happens after contractions strengthen?

a)

Glucagon raises blood sugar

b)

Platelets begin forming a clot

c)

More oxytocin is secreted

d)

Oxytocin levels fall to stop labor

110.

Which example from the notes shows positive feedback in the circulatory system?

a)

Platelets release chemicals to attract more platelets

b)

Blood pressure hormones reduce heart rate

c)

Shivering warms the body in cold weather

d)

Insulin lowers glucose after a meal

111.

Which feature distinguishes negative from positive feedback?

a)

Negative feedback is rare and rapid

b)

Negative feedback drives completion

c)

Negative feedback counteracts change

d)

Negative feedback amplifies responses

112.

Most homeostasis in the body is controlled by which type of feedback?

a)

Positive feedback loops

b)

Random feedback loops

c)

Negative feedback loops

d)

Mixed feedback loops

113.

When body temperature decreases, what is the next step in the loop?

a)

Cooling process activated—sweating

b)

Insulin release from the pancreas

c)

Heating process activated—shivering

d)

Blood vessels dilate in the skin

114.

Which statement best defines muscle fatigue?

a)

Permanent damage to muscle tissue

b)

Temporary inability to contract efficiently

c)

Complete loss of all muscle ATP forever

d)

Immediate tearing of muscle fibers

115.

Which is a direct cause of muscle fatigue during intense activity?

a)

Increased oxygen delivery to muscles

b)

Depletion of ATP in muscle cells

c)

Growth of new muscle fibers rapidly

d)

Rising body temperature slightly

116.

During anaerobic respiration in muscles, which waste product forms?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Methane gas

d)

Ammonia and urea

117.

When are muscles most likely to produce lactic acid?

a)

During intense exercise with limited oxygen

b)

During rest after sleeping

c)

During digestion after eating

d)

During gentle stretching with full oxygen

118.

How does lactic acid accumulation affect muscle cells?

a)

Increases oxygen binding in hemoglobin

b)

Raises pH and speeds contractions

c)

Lowers pH and contributes to soreness

d)

Neutralizes acids and prevents fatigue

119.

Which feature correctly compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic is short-term; anaerobic long-term

b)

Aerobic requires oxygen; anaerobic does not

c)

Aerobic produces lactic acid; anaerobic water

d)

Aerobic gives 2 ATP; anaerobic gives 36

120.

Approximately how many ATP are produced per glucose in aerobic respiration?

a)

Eight per glucose molecule

b)

One hundred per glucose molecule

c)

Two per glucose molecule

d)

Thirty-six per glucose molecule

121.

Which statement about energy duration is accurate?

a)

Anaerobic supports marathon pacing

b)

Aerobic provides long-term energy

c)

Anaerobic gives sustained hours of energy

d)

Aerobic is only for brief sprints

122.

Which microscope part controls how much light passes through the slide to improve contrast?

a)

Arm controls light amount

b)

Diaphragm controls light amount

c)

Eyepiece controls light amount

d)

Stage clips adjust light amount

123.

What is the main function of the coarse adjustment knob?

a)

Hold the slide in position

b)

Sharpen fine details at high power

c)

Bring specimen into general focus

d)

Illuminate the specimen evenly

124.

A microscope has a 10x eyepiece and a 40x objective lens. What is the total magnification?

a)

10x total magnification

b)

40x total magnification

c)

100x total magnification

d)

400x total magnification

125.

Which step should you do FIRST when using a microscope to find a specimen?

a)

Begin with lowest power lens

b)

Close diaphragm fully

c)

Use fine adjustment immediately

d)

Start with highest power objective

126.

Which part is the platform that holds the slide?

a)

Nosepiece platform

b)

Stage platform

c)

Base platform

d)

Arm platform

127.

Stage clips are used to do which task?

a)

Control light intensity

b)

Carry the microscope

c)

Move the objective lenses

d)

Hold the slide in place

128.

What is the correct order for focusing on low power?

a)

Diaphragm then coarse knob

b)

Coarse knob then fine knob

c)

Eyepiece then switch objectives

d)

Fine knob then coarse knob

129.

Which part provides additional magnification of 4x, 10x, or 40x?

a)

Diaphragm provides 4x–40x

b)

Eyepiece provides 4x–40x

c)

Illuminator provides 4x–40x

d)

Objective lenses provide 4x–40x

130.

Why place a coverslip at an angle during wet mount preparation?

a)

To keep slide from moving

b)

To increase magnification

c)

To avoid forming air bubbles

d)

To trap more air bubbles

131.

Higher magnification affects the field of view in what way?

a)

Larger field of view

b)

Smaller field of view

c)

Field of view becomes brighter

d)

Unchanged field of view

132.

When carrying a microscope safely, where should your hands be?

a)

One hand on eyepiece only

b)

Both hands on the base

c)

One hand on arm, one on base

d)

Both hands on objective lenses

133.

Which lens is typically 10x and is looked through by the user?

a)

Mirror lens viewed by user

b)

Diaphragm lens viewed by user

c)

Objective lens viewed by user

d)

Ocular lens viewed by user

134.

During slide preparation, what should be done if the specimen is dry?

a)

Add a drop of water or stain

b)

Close the diaphragm fully

c)

Skip the coverslip entirely

d)

Increase objective immediately

135.

Which power is called scanning and uses a 4x objective with a 10x eyepiece?

a)

Scanning power equals 40x total

b)

Medium power equals 10x total

c)

Low power equals 100x total

d)

High power equals 400x total

136.

If the image is bright but lacks contrast, which adjustment should you try?

a)

Rotate the nosepiece only

b)

Open the diaphragm fully

c)

Adjust the diaphragm partially

d)

Tighten the stage clips