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Penta Criminal Justice CPO Exam

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

There are several roles that professional protection officers fulfill, such as:

a)

Intelligence Agent

b)

Accountant

c)

Management Representative

d)

Both A and C

2.

A professional is a person who (select all that apply):

a)

Accepts his/her responsibility and embraces it

b)

Consistently shows pride in their performance

c)

Joins security associations to form networks

d)

Places their job above other involvements

3.

The COMPETENCY BALANCE consists of these three items:

a)

Attitude, competency and pride

b)

Knowledge, skill and attitude

c)

Attitude, professional and skill

d)

Reputation, assets and skill

4.

A security supervisor is investigating suspicious activity on property. While the investigation is being conducted a talk is organized between local police and employees of the facility. This is an example of:

a)

Verification

b)

Prevention

c)

Mitigation

d)

Response

5.

A 2005 study performed in New York City reported that security personnel reported:

a)

They were not being paid for overtime

b)

They were under trained

c)

They were properly trained

d)

They were in need of better working conditions

6.

Training standards, where they exist at all, are:

a)

Inconsistent at best

b)

Issued by a State Standard

c)

Are best when company taught

d)

Have certified officers to great heights

7.

Topics suitable for entry-level security officer training include all of the following except:

a)

Workplace violence response procedures

b)

Life-safety procedures

c)

Emergency-response procedures

d)

High-speed chase procedures

8.

Classroom training methods include all of the following, except:

a)

Lecture

b)

Demonstration

c)

Read and test

d)

Use of audiovisuals

9.

What separates Professional Security Officers from others?

a)

The need to improve for financial betterment

b)

The want to excel over their peers

c)

The want to better perform job functions

d)

The ability to pass certification exams

10.

Robots, built in Silicon Valley by Knightscope were released in 2017. Some of their performance features include:

a)

The ability to identify people via facial recognition

b)

The ability to identify fires via thermal imaging

c)

The ability to identify vehicles via shape changing

d)

The ability to communicate instructions to responding security forces

11.

Which IS NOT a common component of a RISK PROGRAM?

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Risk record

c)

Risk reporting

d)

Risk mitigation

12.

A risk assessment is conducted using a checklist and, at times, may be part of the ________ process.

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Safety program

c)

Occurrence report

d)

Security survey

13.

The ________ phase is where a review is done and a plan is formed to minimize the effects of the identified risks to our assets.

a)

Reporting

b)

Recording

c)

Mitigation

d)

Survey

14.

When called upon to present the finding of a risk review, the security professional must remember:

a)

The report is presented as fact and no points should be negotiated

b)

There is always a measure of risk ...no plan is absolute

c)

Where the report may go, such as to an insurance company or underwriter

d)

Both B and C

15.

The mitigation plan should include:

a)

staffing recalculations

b)

Both C and D

c)

Educational elements

d)

Policy and procedure changes

16.

An asset can be:

a)

A person or people

b)

An object, like a painting

c)

A building

d)

All of the above

17.

A vulnerability assessment will include a thorough examination of:

a)

Security records

b)

Company payroll process

c)

Facility and personnel

d)

Auto usage off of property

18.

The ________ is generally regarded as the first modern state police department:

a)

Texas Rangers

b)

Massachusetts Troopers

c)

Pennsylvania State Police

d)

New York State Police

19.

There have been some significant developments along the path to professionalizing the security industry. This "bible" of the security industry was published in 1952.

a)

The Certified Protection Professional (CPP)

b)

The Industrial Security Manual

c)

The Report of the Security Task Force

d)

The Hallcrest report

20.

Penetration testing "Red Teams" exist to:

a)

Inspect the conditions of security staff uniforms

b)

Challenge the validity of written reports

c)

Offer insight into the security SOP

d)

Attempt to compromise security organization via unauthorized access

21.

Effective communications simply are non-existent without:

a)

The proper communication equipment for both sender and receiver

b)

The ability to interpret what the sender is saying

c)

A two-way, mutual understanding of the message being communicated

d)

Insuring you are sending information the receiver can understand

22.

Following are three of the six essentials of effective communication. Which one does not belong here:

a)

Factual

b)

Concise

c)

Interpretable

d)

Timely

23.

Verifying communications with feedback is of the utmost importance. One of the following is NOT an effective means of feedback?

a)

Writing down the radio message

b)

"10-4"

c)

"roger"

d)

A very short verbal message repeating your message

24.

There are some problems with two-way radios. Which one is NOT a problem with two-way radios?

a)

Dead spots

b)

Too bulky to carry

c)

Operator error

d)

Short battery life

25.

Effective communications DO NOT exist when:

a)

When the message is not recorded

b)

When the devices are on the same frequency

c)

The speaker and receiver are ignoring the other

d)

When the speaker and receiver are not "on the same page"

26.

categories:

a)

People, Places, Things

b)

Property, Legal liability, People

c)

Property, Actions, Things

d)

Objects, Physical items, People

27.

A company's most valuable asset, though thought of controversially is its':

a)

Physical plan

b)

Financial assets

c)

Employees

d)

Stockholders

28.

All threats can be grouped according to their nature. An example of a man-made disaster is:

a)

Train derailment

b)

Earthquake

c)

Structure failure

d)

Terrorism

29.

There are many types of security lighting. An LED light is a two-lead semiconductor of light which is usually very small and has advantages over incandescent light sources. One advantage is:

a)

They are gaseous type

b)

Smaller size

c)

Lower cost

d)

Brighter light emitted

30.

Network video has three major roles in any physical security program. Two of them are as follows:

a)

Deter crime and prove guilt

b)

Witness an act in progress and aid investigation later

c)

Control traffic movement and enforce regulations

d)

Deter crime and control traffic flow

31.

Current access control systems combine three of the following elements. Which one is NOT a part of the access control facility?

a)

A security patrol identifying any people in the patrol area

b)

Technical access control systems

c)

Record keeping

d)

All of the above

32.

Key control is a major issue in any facility, be it metal keys or key cards. Which of the following IS NOT part of a secure key tracking system?

a)

Issuing rings of keys to upper echelon management

b)

A key sign in /out system

c)

Code each key for identification

d)

Keep all key records confidential

33.

During the course of your shift at access control, it may be necessary to:

a)

Block access to those without proper credentials

b)

Leave your post to verify someone's identity inside of the facility

c)

Make an on-the-spot decision about allowing an employee in without identification

d)

Request a revision to your post orders

34.

A daily sign-out control policy can ensure that master keys:

a)

Never have to leave the property

b)

Will not be worn out

c)

Don't need inventory

d)

Don't require to be inventoried

35.

Emerging trends in information security for the future of access control include three of the following. Which IS NOT considered as an improvement in information security?

a)

Millimeter wave scanning

b)

Remote control eye scanning

c)

High-speed turnstiles

d)

Handheld explosive detection

36.

After the selection of the most suitable detection equipment for the needs of the organization, it is necessary for the supplier to:

a)

Install the equipment

b)

Develop training material for the operating staff

c)

Educate the employees of the facility of the parameters of the equipment

d)

Match up K-9 teams to back-up the equipment

37.

Magnetometers are highly effective metal detection devices. Why?

a)

Just the sight of a magnetometer is a great deterrent

b)

It allows for a much higher rate of screening people

c)

It does not require any calibration

d)

It only detects non-ferrous metals

38.

Researchers have indicated that the K-9's ability to detect odors are much more effective than their human counterparts. It is estimated that a dog's olfactory system is:

a)

Able to work longer than a person

b)

10,000 to 10,000,000 times more sensitive than a person's

c)

Not affected by the weather conditions

d)

None of the above

39.

Electronic article surveillance (EAS) systems:

a)

Are highly used in retail establishments

b)

Can track an item someone tries to remove from the facility

c)

Can be a label or hard tag applied to an item

d)

All of the above

40.

Drones have been issued guidelines for usage and deployment under laws passed in 2019 by the:

a)

FAA

b)

FDA

c)

ATC

d)

DEA

41.

A gathering of people to show support for a common cause is known as a:

a)

Riot

b)

Strike

c)

Rally

d)

Crowd

42.

Which one of the following IS NOT a frequently encountered emotional cause for crowd formation?

a)

Political

b)

Economic

c)

Disaster

d)

Military

43.

Which one of the following IS NOT a recommended technique for non-verbal movement of members of a non-responsive crowd member?

a)

Upper torso restraint

b)

Figure four hold

c)

Arm around waist escort hold

d)

Pressure point control

44.

Which one of the following IS NOT a basic riot and crowd-control formation used in riot control force deployment procedures?

a)

Knife point

b)

Arrowhead

c)

Left flanking

d)

Line formation

45.

Serving alcohol at special events can cause a multitude of problems. Security personnel should be trained in which of the following:

a)

Access control

b)

Intervention with intoxicated patrons

c)

Proper techniques for ejecting problem patrons

d)

All of the above

46.

The following IS NOT a function of the STOP sign:

a)

Clarify the subject of right-of-way at intersections

b)

Reduce vehicle accidents at intersections

c)

Allow numerous intersections to merge

d)

Regulate the flow of traffic

47.

When setting up a position to direct traffic in a particular intersection you must choose a position which will command full view of the traffic pattern. Many failures of not controlling the traffic flow are blamed on:

a)

The whistle not being loud enough

b)

The inability of the driver to see the officer

c)

The officer not wearing a safety vest

d)

The officer not controlling the traffic signal

48.

In order to effectively attract the driver's attention to their hand signals, the traffic control officer should give ____________ on the whistle.

a)

Two short bursts

b)

Three short blasts

c)

One long blast

d)

Four long blasts

49.

In an effort to calm the flow of traffic, traffic engineers have designed new means of traffic containment. One of these is ROAD DIETS. ROAD DIETS refer to:

a)

The reduction of travel lanes

b)

The narrowing of existing traffic lanes

c)

Reducing the thickness of the pavement

d)

The use of rotary intersections

50.

VERTICAL DEFLECTION refers to creating a discomfort for speeding drivers. Which of the following IS NOT an example of vertical deflection?

a)

Speed tables

b)

Speed bumps

c)

Speed ruts

d)

Using cobblestones as a road surface

51.

Investigations may take many forms. Which of the following IS NOT considered as a form of investigation?

a)

Asking questions

b)

Analysis of computer data

c)

Speaking to witnesses

d)

All of these are considered investigative means

52.

In terms of liability, it is best for a security professional to say:

a)

That is against the law, and I need to contact law enforcement

b)

I don't know the answer to that, but I will find out

c)

I am sorry, I should not have said that

d)

That is not what I should have done

53.

N E O t W Y is an acronym for:

a)

Questions to be asked in an investigation

b)

Questions asked on a personnel application

c)

Questions reflecting national security

d)

Questions relevant to security certification

54.

One common mistake made by new investigators is to focus on the facts and forget:

a)

To verify the facts

b)

To confirm contact information

c)

To interview in a quiet room

d)

To review the interview

55.

Keeping records about an investigation is primary to just about anything else. A priority in any investigation is to:

a)

Have something to write on and with

b)

Having a cell phone to record the interview

c)

Having a witness to the interview

d)

All of the above

56.

An ____________ is a systematic and thorough examination or inquiry into something or someone that involves the collection of facts and information and recording that examination in a report.

a)

Interview

b)

Informative

c)

Investigation

d)

Interrogation

57.

There are two methods of communication involved in interviewing. They are:

a)

Verbal and electronic

b)

Verbal and nonverbal

c)

Nonverbal and computer

d)

Nonverbal and electronic

58.

When interviewing a witness to an incident, asking the question, "Please tell me what you saw when the incident occurred" is an example of:

a)

A closed-ended question

b)

A vague question

c)

A leading question

d)

An open-ended question

59.

Some guidelines for written statements include:

a)

Use lined and ruled paper

b)

Write from margin to margin

c)

Use blue ink

d)

Both A and B

60.

If an interviewee has confessed to a criminal act during your interview, it is best to:

a)

Confirm the identity of the person

b)

Maintain your professionalism and treat the person with respect

c)

Continue the interview, but call the police

d)

Discontinue the interview and do not allow the person to leave the room

61.

Basically, the incident's report you write covers the questions of the "five W's", who, what, when, where and why. What is the sixth question that should be addressed in this report?

a)

If?

b)

Because?

c)

Which?

d)

How?

62.

The protection officer is often the first responder on the scene, which means he/she has the responsibility to immediately:

a)

Write the report

b)

Complete the inventory

c)

Protect the crime scene

d)

Detain the suspect(s)

63.

When someone informs you that they are taking responsibility for the crime scene and that you may leave, make a detailed Note of:

a)

The time and date of the turnover

b)

The name, rank and authority of the person

c)

The weather at the time of turnover

d)

Both A and B

64.

Protecting the scene means the area must be preserved exactly as you found it. Evidence must not be disturbed. Some things you may need to do inside of the scene area are listed below. Which of the following should you NOT do?

a)

Remove a live victim from potential harm

b)

Use a fire extinguisher if needed

c)

Collect evidence for the case

d)

Allow temporary access to the site to evacuate bystanders because it is the only exit

65.

It is highly likely that the protection officer will be the first responder who discovers a scene. This places a tremendous responsibility on the responder to:

a)

Protect property and preserve life

b)

Control a crowd and respect borders of the scene

c)

Investigate the cause and write the report

d)

Protect the client's reputation

66.

Field notes differ from reports. Field notes:

a)

Are final

b)

Are simple to write down

c)

Are used instead of memory

d)

Both B and C

67.

The qualities which make a good report are known as the "Three C's". Which of the following IS NOT one of the "Three C's"?

a)

Conclusion

b)

Clear

c)

Concise

d)

Complete

68.

One reason for reports is to record a permanent record of an incident. Another reason for reports is:

a)

Protect you from unreasonable prosecution

b)

Help you testify if the incident goes to court

c)

Justify the time you spent at an incident

d)

To prove your worth to the company

69.

It is widely accepted and validated that:

a)

Reports should be dictated to a computer

b)

Report writing is a lost art

c)

Report writing is of the utmost importance

d)

Reports are Not accepted unless written by a Law Enforcement officer

70.

A good rule to follow about reports is:

a)

Reports are written to justify a protection officer's position

b)

If it is an uncommon event, then report it

c)

Write reports to document your hours

d)

Reports are useless if you did not witness the event

71.

We tend to think our laws are words written in books, with no organized history. In fact, the source of our laws includes, but are not limited to:

a)

The Civil Code of France

b)

Civil Law

c)

Sharia Law

d)

Both A and B

72.

Common law

a)

Comes from the local rules of the common people

b)

Was developed in feudal England

c)

Are laws from the unorganized 13 colonies of America

d)

Protects land ownership

73.

DEFAMATION is defined as:

a)

Writing a report that is incorrect and will cause you to lose your position

b)

Publishing a statement that is untrue and causes damage to another

c)

Making a statement to the press which is misquoted

d)

Speaking in a derogatory way about your employer

74.

If the officer is in a position to interview a suspect in a criminal activity, which statement is NOT true:

a)

Offer the person a chance to contact counsel

b)

Allow the person to explain their position

c)

Ask the person ambiguous and leading questions

d)

Do not ask threatening or abusive questions

75.

The Burden of Proof:

a)

Is different in a civil action and in a criminal matter

b)

In a civil action it requires that the plaintiff prove their case only on a balance of probabilities

c)

In a criminal trial guilt is to be proven beyond a reasonable doubt

d)

All of the above

76.

Excessive use of force lawsuits may result from which of the following:

a)

Use of any force when the subject is not being aggressive and there are no signs of resistance

b)

Overreaction to a subject’s minor sign of resistance to the officer’s commands

c)

Intentional infliction of pain as summary punishment

d)

All of the above

77.

Use of force involves three mandatory components. Which of the following is NOT one of those components?

a)

Belief that use of force is required to accomplish a legal goal

b)

The use of force is producing enough pain to send a message of control

c)

Use of force is necessary to achieve compliance

d)

Use of force is reasonably based on the totality of the circumstances and subject’s refusal to cooperate with verbal de-escalation

78.

All of the following are examples of how security officers get injured on the job, except:

a)

Belief that use of force is required to accomplish a legal goal

b)

The use of force is producing enough pain to send a message of control

c)

Use of force is necessary to achieve compliance

d)

Use of force is reasonably based on the totality of the circumstances and the subject’s refusal to cooperate with verbal de-escalation

79.

All of the following questions must be answered in the affirmative to avoid the loss of a lawsuit except:

a)

Did the plaintiff have the ability to harm the officer or another person?

b)

Did the plaintiff show or manifest intent to carry through a threat against the officer or another person?

c)

Did the officer have the ability to retreat without injury to the officer or another person before use of force was applied?

d)

Was the officer impeded with no other option but to use force?

80.

Before using force, which of the following should be tried to avoid use of force?

a)

Run from the scene

b)

Threaten with a defensive weapon, not a firearm

c)

Discharge your firearm

d)

None of the above

81.

STRESS is often referred to as:

a)

The mental downfall

b)

The undetected source of hypertension

c)

The silent killer

d)

The root of mental illness

82.

Two of the five-stage process to managing disruptive behavior are:

a)

Document and execute

b)

Document and evaluate

c)

Document and eliminate

d)

Document and evacuate

83.

When dealing with substance abuse problems, it is not possible to predict behavior patterns without having some indication of:

a)

Past mental history

b)

Family involvement with stress

c)

The substance(s) involved

d)

Home environment

84.

While written policies and procedures vary from organization to organization, there are basic guidelines that are applicable to most situations. These include:

a)

Remain calm

b)

Act appropriately

c)

Be objective

d)

All of the above

85.

Researchers have found that regular exercise may help lower the risks of dementia. This process is based on the:

a)

Increased blood and oxygen flow to the brain

b)

Increase in muscle tone in the upper body

c)

Forming of a regimented list of activities for this individual

d)

Concentrating thoughts on physical activities

86.

Recent studies in the United States, performed by the National Institute on Drug Abuse, reveal that:

a)

75% of illicit drug users are employed

b)

24.6 million Americans use illicit drugs each month

c)

90% of alcoholics are employed

d)

All of the above

87.

The protection officer IS NOT a diagnostician. If information of a possible substance abuse problem is brought to your attention:

a)

Observe the individual and submit your opinion to HR

b)

Bring this information to your supervisor or manager

c)

Write up a report and have it placed in the employee's file

d)

Contact the company medical officer

88.

There are various indications of substance abuse involvement. If you notice the presence of needles and a syringe:

a)

Report this to your supervisor

b)

Ignore it, as the person is probably a diabetic

c)

Check with medical department to verify if any supplies are missing

d)

Ask the person why they possess these items

89.

Which of the following are indications that a person is under the influence?

a)

Soft, slurry speech

b)

Drool from the mouth

c)

Rapid eye movement

d)

Both B and C

90.

Which of the following are indications that a person is abusing Inhalants?

a)

Overly alert to outside stimulus

b)

Thoughts of grandeur

c)

Poor muscle control

d)

Rapid eye movement

91.

“To deprive a person of his liberty by legal authority” is the BLACK’S LAW DICTIONARY definition of the term:

a)

Apprehension

b)

Detention

c)

Arrest

d)

None of the above

92.

Arrests must be made:

a)

With the intention of bringing the subject before a court

b)

With the intention of inconveniencing the subject

c)

So as to delay the subject

d)

By controlling the subject with physical restraints

93.

The Latin term “non solis” should be the first thing that comes to mind when you are making an arrest in the line of duty. This translates to:

a)

No limits, do what is necessary

b)

No pressure, consider what you are doing

c)

No hurry, think about it again

d)

Never alone, get some back-up to help

94.

When applying handcuffs to a subject who is being detained or arrested, ensure that the cuffs are secure, and as a final step:

a)

Tighten the cuffs one more click

b)

Make sure you can stick one finger under the cuffs

c)

Lock the cuffs

d)

Sit the subject down

95.

If a complaint is made against you in a detention/apprehension procedure, the law provides for you to have litigation assistance in building your case. This is called:

a)

Positive legal action

b)

Affirmative defense

c)

Affirmative offense

d)

Authorized counsel

96.

Whether utilizing technology or a security officer's abilities, protective measures are built around the FOUR D's OF SECURITY. They are:

a)

Deter, Detect, Delay, Deny

b)

Deter, Delay, Detain, Develop

c)

Delay, Deny, Display, Deprive

d)

Detect, Depress, Detain, Document

97.

The DENY in the four D's refers to:

a)

Deny access to the protected asset

b)

Deny the asset was accessed

c)

Deny that anyone was deprived of their legal counsel

d)

Deny the report is incorrect

98.

The investigative process is supportive of the Four D's. It will allow management to have information which may identify problem areas. In the case of an employee falling down the stairs, a properly trained officer will:

a)

Examine the area around the fall

b)

Render first aid as needed

c)

Both A and B

d)

Contact the facility manager immediately

99.

In reference to Code of Conduct Policy, some subjects that are usually included in the writing are:

a)

Sexual Harassment and Discrimination

b)

Ethical standards of conduct

c)

A and B

d)

A only

100.

In 2016 the ASIS Board of Directors determined that ERSM would be the driving force in the global ASIS International strategic plan. ERSM stands for:

a)

Enterprise Security Report Management

b)

Enterprise Security Risk Management

c)

Enterprise Safety Reality Management

d)

Enterprise Safety Risk Manual

101.

Security Awareness is referred to when we speak of which of the following:

a)

All of the following

b)

The need to focus attention on security throughout the organization

c)

Keeping security as the focus and consciousness of every employee daily

d)

Instilling in the staff a sense of duty and awareness about security practices

102.

In order for _________ _________ to be effective, the security department must instill this concept into members at all levels of the organization, and those on the perimeter of the organization.

a)

Team cooperation

b)

Threat assessment

c)

Security awareness

d)

Property acceptance

103.

Security awareness documents usually:

a)

Require the CEO to address the staff regularly

b)

Reflect the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) directives

c)

Require updates monthly

d)

Specify the crime and/or security issue and concern being addressed

104.

To increase the partnership hooking all layers of the organization, interactive activities between the security department and external agencies should be scheduled. These may include mutually inclusive:

a)

Training sessions

b)

Picnics

c)

Security updates

d)

Both A and B

105.

Having only a verbal-down method of communication will not result in an optimal communication environment. This type of communication is basically from:

a)

Management level to management

b)

Staff to management

c)

Staff to staff

d)

Management to staff

106.

Automated tools for visitor management have several advantages. Which of the following is one of those advantages?

a)

The ability to keep a searchable record of visitors

b)

The ability to generate reports based on individuals, companies, and date ranges

c)

The ability to use the information in future investigations

d)

All of the above

107.

Today there are a number of technological applications in protection operations that support the security effort. Which of the following is not one of those support systems?

a)

Visitor management systems

b)

Criminal analysis tools

c)

Canine foot patrol

d)

Incident management systems

108.

Another category of automation useful to the security effort is crime mapping. Which of the following represents a crime mapping service?

a)

GIS-based visualization of crime incidents on a city map

b)

Live video monitoring from patrol cars

c)

Payroll management dashboard

d)

Time clock scheduling tool