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Topic 1: Adrenal and Renal Clinical Management

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient on >20 mg/day steroids with cushingoid features is NPO before surgery. What is the best plan to prevent Addisonian crisis?

a)

Switch to oral hydrocortisone morning of surgery

b)

Hold all steroids until postoperative day two

c)

Administer IV hydrocortisone perioperatively

d)

Give a single dose of loop diuretics preop

2.

Which clinical finding most consistently suggests Addisonian crisis in the perioperative setting?

a)

Hypokalemia with severe hypotension and bradycardia

b)

Hypercalcemia with normal blood pressure and tachypnea

c)

Hypernatremia with severe hypertension and bradycardia

d)

Hyponatremia with mild hypotension and tachycardia

3.

In patients experiencing adrenal crisis due to exogenous steroid use, how is the crisis classified?

a)

Primary adrenal crisis from autoimmune disease

b)

Secondary adrenal crisis from pituitary suppression

c)

Tertiary adrenal crisis from hypothalamic failure

d)

Iatrogenic primary adrenal cortical necrosis

4.

For a hemodialysis-dependent patient scheduled for surgery, when should dialysis ideally be performed?

a)

One week prior to the planned surgery

b)

Two days after the planned surgery

c)

The day before the planned surgery

d)

Same day immediately before surgery

5.

Which preoperative question is most important for a patient with ESRD because of substantial mortality risk with surgery?

a)

Recent travel history and malaria exposure

b)

Advance directive or code status discussion

c)

Preferred dialysis access type and location

d)

Vaccination status for hepatitis B series

6.

Which intervention can correct hyperkalemia in a CRI patient who is not dialysis-dependent but is fluid overloaded?

a)

IV hydrocortisone infusion titration

b)

Loop diuretics such as furosemide

c)

Conjugated estrogens infusion

d)

Continuous heparin during dialysis

7.

Match each therapy to its primary role in managing uremic bleeding risk.

a)

Desmopressin

1.

Improves platelet function transiently

b)

Cryoprecipitate

2.

Supplies fibrinogen and vWF factors

c)

RBC transfusions

3.

Addresses anemia to reduce bleeding tendency

d)

Conjugated estrogens

4.

Enhances hemostasis via hormonal mechanism

8.

What should be discussed with the patient’s nephrologist prior to planned surgery to reduce bleeding complications during dialysis?

a)

Postoperative calcium supplementation

b)

Routine diuretic administration preop

c)

High-dose intraoperative vasopressors

d)

Heparin-free dialysis arrangement

9.

Which intraoperative hemodynamic change increases the risk of developing acute renal failure, particularly in CRI patients?

a)

Hypotension requiring vasopressor escalation

b)

Hypernatremia with reduced urine osmolarity

c)

Sustained hypertension with high cardiac output

d)

Hyperthermia with tachycardia and sweating

10.

Identify the three intraoperative factors collectively associated with higher risk of acute renal failure.

a)

Hyperkalemia, calcium infusion, beta-blockade

b)

Hypertension, vasodilators, blood transfusions

c)

Hypotension, vasopressors, diuretic administration

d)

Hypothermia, opioid use, ventilator settings

11.

Which condition is a contraindication for NSAID use in pain management?

a)

Mild osteoarthritis without comorbidities

b)

Young adult with minor musculoskeletal strain

c)

History of GI bleed or peptic ulcer disease

d)

Controlled hypertension with normal renal function

12.

Acetaminophen is preferred for mild fever when what concern limits NSAID use?

a)

History of gout flares controlled

b)

Chronic kidney disease or gastrointestinal risk

c)

Uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus

d)

Active bacterial infection with fever

13.

What is the typical maximum daily dose for acetaminophen in adults?

(a)  

14.

Which caution applies to tricyclic antidepressants used for neuropathic pain in elderly patients?

a)

Profound neutropenia after first dose

b)

High risk of acute liver failure

c)

Anticholinergic burden leading to falls

d)

Severe hypoglycemia risk

15.

Gabapentinoids require what adjustment in patients with renal impairment?

(a)  

16.

Which adverse effect is commonly associated with gabapentin or pregabalin?

a)

Hyperkalemia causing arrhythmias

b)

Dizziness and somnolence with edema

c)

Acute hepatitis with jaundice

d)

Profound bradycardia with syncope

17.

Which muscle relaxant precaution is accurate for cyclobenzaprine?

a)

First-line for spasticity in multiple sclerosis

b)

Avoid in cardiac arrhythmias or heart block

c)

Safe in all elderly without sedation

d)

Requires abrupt discontinuation to prevent rebound

18.

Tizanidine carries a caution related to which effect?

a)

Nephrotoxicity requiring dialysis

b)

Hypotension risk with therapy

c)

Photosensitivity reactions

d)

Severe hyperthyroidism exacerbation

19.

Which statement about baclofen is true regarding discontinuation?

a)

Discontinuation always leads to hypertension

b)

Tapering causes permanent neuropathy

c)

Abrupt cessation is safe and recommended

d)

Avoid abrupt withdrawal due to risks

20.

Topical lidocaine patches should be avoided in patients with what allergy?

a)

Iodinated contrast media

b)

Lidocaine or amide local anesthetics

c)

Penicillin-class antibiotics

d)

Macrolide antibiotics

21.

Which indication best matches corticosteroids like methylprednisolone in pain care?

a)

Acute inflammatory conditions such as arthritis flare

b)

Immediate relief of acute muscle spasm

c)

Chronic insomnia without pain

d)

Primary treatment of febrile seizures

22.

Match each drug class to a key caution or contraindication.

a)

NSAIDs

1.

GI bleed or peptic ulcer risk

b)

Acetaminophen

2.

Severe hepatic impairment caution

c)

Gabapentinoids

3.

Dose adjust for renal impairment

d)

TCAs

4.

Anticholinergic burden and falls

23.

Which topical analgesic may cause local burning or irritation?

a)

Tizanidine immediate-release

b)

Capsaicin cream during application

c)

Diclofenac oral tablets

d)

Baclofen intrathecal pump

24.

Which patient factor warrants caution with NSAIDs due to cardiovascular risk?

a)

Heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension

b)

Young athlete without comorbidities

c)

Controlled hyperlipidemia alone

d)

History of migraines responsive to triptans

25.

A patient has pH 7.30, HCO3− 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mmHg. What primary disorder is present using the quick guide?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis with partial compensation

b)

Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation

c)

Respiratory acidosis with full compensation

d)

Metabolic acidosis with no compensation

26.

Which statement correctly applies the ROME mnemonic to classify respiratory alkalosis?

a)

pH decreases and PaCO2 increases

b)

pH increases and HCO3− increases

c)

pH decreases and HCO3− decreases

d)

pH increases and PaCO2 decreases

27.

Fill in the blank: Anion gap for metabolic acidosis is calculated as AG = Na+ − [Cl− + (a)   ].

28.

Match each lab pattern to the disorder using ROME.

a)

pH down, PaCO2 up

1.

Respiratory acidosis

b)

pH up, PaCO2 down

2.

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

pH down, HCO3− down

3.

Metabolic acidosis

d)

pH up, HCO3− up

4.

Metabolic alkalosis

29.

A patient’s pH is 7.44 with reduced PaCO2 and low HCO3−. Which compensation status best fits the quick guide?

a)

No disorder, all values normal

b)

Partial compensation, some compensatory change

c)

Uncompensated, no change in other value

d)

Full compensation, pH near normal

30.

You find pH 7.28, HCO3− 12 mEq/L, Na+ 140 mEq/L, Cl− 100 mEq/L. Calculate the anion gap and identify the likely acid–base category.

a)

AG 28, high anion gap metabolic acidosis

b)

AG 12, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

c)

AG 40, severe respiratory acidosis

d)

AG 20, metabolic alkalosis