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Tubes and Tests Quiz

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why blood cultures are drawn when septicemia is suspected?

a)

They assess oxygen saturation in arterial blood

b)

They detect viruses that affect red cells

c)

They enhance microorganism growth to identify type

d)

They measure electrolyte levels for dehydration

2.

When should blood cultures ideally be collected relative to antibiotic therapy?

a)

Preferably before starting an antibiotic

b)

Only during antibiotic infusion

c)

At least one week after starting therapy

d)

Immediately after finishing antibiotics

3.

What is the purpose of an antibiotic removal device (ARD) bottle?

a)

Add clotting factors to samples

b)

Inactivate antibiotics using resin or charcoal

c)

Neutralize iodine used for skin prep

d)

Increase oxygen content in the blood

4.

In a standard adult collection, how many bottles and how much blood per bottle are typically drawn for blood cultures?

a)

One set, 2–4 ml per bottle

b)

Two sets, 8–10 ml per bottle

c)

Three sets, 12–15 ml per bottle

d)

Two sets, 1–5 ml per bottle

5.

During a two-bottle system using a venipuncture set, which bottle is filled first?

a)

ARD bottle first for removal

b)

Either order is acceptable

c)

Anaerobic bottle first then aerobic

d)

Aerobic bottle first for oxygen

6.

Which cleansing sequence is correct before blood culture collection when the skin is visibly soiled?

a)

Alcohol only in circular motion

b)

Soap and water, let dry, then alcohol or chlorhexidine

c)

Iodine then soap and water

d)

Chlorhexidine after bottle transfer

7.

For iodine site prep, what technique should be used?

a)

Spiral inward for 60 seconds

b)

Random dabbing for 5 seconds

c)

Circular motion outward for 30 seconds

d)

Linear strokes for 10 seconds

8.

Yellow SPS tubes contain sodium polyanethol sulfonate. Which function is correct?

a)

Promotes coagulation by binding calcium

b)

Prevents coagulation and inhibits phagocytes

c)

Neutralizes resin in ARD bottles

d)

Raises blood oxygen to support growth

9.

Light blue tubes for coagulation studies use sodium citrate. What critical ratio must be met?

a)

1:9 blood to citrate

b)

5:1 blood to citrate

c)

10:1 citrate to blood

d)

9:1 blood to citrate

10.

Why must light blue tubes be filled completely?

a)

To allow ARD resin activation

b)

To avoid hemolysis from underfill

c)

To maintain the required blood-to-citrate ratio

d)

To prevent oxygen loss from the sample

11.

Which statement about overmixing blood samples for coagulation tests is accurate?

a)

It activates platelets, causing erroneous results

b)

It raises fibrinogen levels artificially

c)

It reduces platelet activation and improves accuracy

d)

It sterilizes the sample for culture

12.

Which are appropriate clinical uses of PT?

a)

Evaluate liver disease impacts

b)

Monitor warfarin anticoagulation

c)

Diagnose intrinsic pathway defects

d)

Assess kidney function

13.

What does INR standardization account for across laboratories?

a)

Variations in patient diet

b)

Variations in PT reagents used

c)

Differences in blood types

d)

Differences in vein size

14.

Which range is considered normal for INR in a person not on blood thinners?

a)

0.9 to 1.3

b)

2.0 to 3.0

c)

4.0 to 5.0

d)

0.2 to 0.5

15.

What is the typical reference range for aPTT?

a)

10–13 seconds

b)

60–80 seconds

c)

30–40 seconds

d)

20–28 seconds

16.

Which adult fibrinogen level suggests increased risk of blood clots traveling to organs?

a)

Below 50 mg/dl

b)

Between 200 and 400 mg/dl

c)

More than 700 mg/dl

d)

Exactly 100 mg/dl

17.

Which scenario is consistent with low fibrinogen risk after surgery?

a)

Less than 50 mg/dl leading to excessive bleeding

b)

More than 700 mg/dl leading to clot travel

c)

Elevated INR of 4.0 without warfarin

d)

Normal range of 200–400 mg/dl

18.

What can a D-dimer test help determine?

a)

Presence of vitamin K excess

b)

Oxygen requirement of microorganisms

c)

Possible blood clotting condition

d)

Need for ARD bottle use

19.

How many substances are measured in a Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)?

a)

Six different analytes

b)

Fourteen different analytes

c)

Eight different analytes

d)

Ten different analytes

20.

Which statement describes thixotropic gel in SST tubes?

a)

Stays solid and traps plasma

b)

Becomes fluid when spun, then solidifies

c)

Dissolves into serum during spin

d)

Prevents clotting by inhibiting fibrin

21.

Match each chemistry panel with what it provides.

a)

BMP

1.

Eight analytes of chemical balance

b)

CMP

2.

Fourteen analytes including liver info

c)

Lipid profile

3.

Cholesterol and triglyceride types

22.

Which analyte is an electrolyte measured in BMP?

a)

Creatinine waste

b)

Glucose carbohydrate

c)

Calcium mineral

d)

Albumin protein

23.

What is a disadvantage of using serum instead of plasma for chemistry tests?

a)

Serum samples take time to clot

b)

Serum has more anticoagulant

c)

Serum cannot be centrifuged

d)

Serum lacks electrolytes entirely

24.

Which CMP component provides additional liver information beyond BMP?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase

b)

Carbon dioxide level

c)

Chloride electrolyte

d)

Blood urea nitrogen

25.

Red glass tubes are used for chemistry testing. What is their additive status and inversion requirement?

a)

Heparin additive, eight inversions

b)

Silica additive, five inversions

c)

No additive, no inversions

d)

Gel separator, five inversions

26.

How long does blood typically need to clot before serum is separated in red glass tubes?

a)

About 10 minutes

b)

About 90 minutes

c)

About 60 minutes

d)

About 30 minutes

27.

Which tube is called a Rapid Serum Tube (RST)?

a)

Red plastic clot activator

b)

SST gel separator tube

c)

Gray fluoride anticoagulant

d)

Orange tube, thrombin with gel separator

28.

Identify all components measured in BMP from the list.

a)

Albumin protein

b)

Creatinine waste

c)

Sodium electrolyte

d)

Glucose level

e)

Cholesterol total

29.

In SST tubes, how many gentle inversions are recommended after collection?

a)

Ten inversions

b)

Three inversions

c)

Five inversions

d)

Seven inversions

30.

Which reason supports why serum is preferred for chemistry testing?

a)

Serum has anticoagulants added

b)

Reference intervals based on serum

c)

Serum contains more white cells

d)

Serum eliminates centrifugation

31.

Which tube additive prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and is used for STAT chemistry tests?

a)

Serum separator without anticoagulant

b)

EDTA in lavender tube

c)

Heparin in dark green tube

d)

Sodium citrate in blue tube

32.

For heparin tubes used in plasma testing, how many inversions are recommended immediately after collection?

a)

Eight to ten inversions

b)

Five to six inversions

c)

Twelve to fourteen inversions

d)

Two to four inversions

33.

What is the main advantage of using plasma rather than serum for chemistry tests?

a)

More stable electrolytes

b)

No need to wait for clotting

c)

Higher protein concentration

d)

Lower hemolysis risk

34.

Which statement best describes a whole blood specimen?

a)

Sample containing all cellular components

b)

Serum with anticoagulant

c)

Plasma without platelets

d)

Isolated red blood cells only

35.

Lavender EDTA tubes are primarily used for which type of testing?

a)

Electrolyte panels

b)

Coagulation profiles

c)

Hematology studies

d)

Liver function tests

36.

Underfilling an EDTA tube can falsely cause which result pattern?

a)

Low hemoglobin but normal RBC

b)

High platelet count only

c)

Low blood counts and hematocrits

d)

High hematocrit and WBC

37.

Match each CBC component to its primary purpose.

a)

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

1.

Oxygen-carrying capacity assessment

b)

Hematocrit (Hct)

2.

Packed RBC volume percentage

c)

Differential (Diff)

3.

Breakdown of WBC types and morphology

d)

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)

4.

Variability in RBC sizes percentage

38.

Pink-top EDTA tubes are primarily designated for which laboratory area?

a)

Urinalysis sediment exams

b)

Microbiology cultures

c)

Blood bank transfusion testing

d)

Coagulation factor assays

39.

Arrange the typical type and crossmatch steps in correct order.

a)

Blood typing

1.

ABO and Rh determination using RBC antigens

b)

Antibody screen

2.

Check plasma for unexpected antibodies

c)

Crossmatch

3.

Mix patient blood with donor RBCs to assess compatibility

40.

Which precaution is essential for type and crossmatch specimens?

a)

Strict tube labeling and patient identification

b)

No mixing with donor cells

c)

Immediate refrigeration always

d)

Use of serum without anticoagulant

41.

Which statement about WBC differential results is correct?

a)

Determines platelet clotting time

b)

Shows total hemoglobin concentration

c)

Identifies specific white cell types

d)

Measures RBC size variability

42.

Which tubes and additives are associated with rapid clot formation for STAT serum chemistry tests?

a)

Lavender EDTA tubes

b)

Dark green heparin tubes

c)

Light green PST heparin gel

d)

Thixotropic gel with thrombin

43.

Which CBC results commonly indicate anemia?

a)

Low RBC count

b)

Low hemoglobin

c)

Low hematocrit

d)

High MPV

44.

Match each toxic metal with a common exposure source.

a)

Lead

1.

Paint and old water pipes

b)

Mercury

2.

Seafood or dental amalgam

c)

Arsenic

3.

Soil, water, certain foods

d)

Cadmium

4.

Batteries and industrial processes

45.

Match each macromineral or electrolyte with its primary role.

a)

Calcium

1.

Bone health and nerve function

b)

Magnesium

2.

Biochemical reactions and heart rhythm

c)

Potassium and sodium

3.

Electrolyte balance and nerve signals

d)

Phosphorus

4.

Energy storage with calcium

46.

Which trace mineral is essential for oxygen transport as part of hemoglobin?

a)

Copper for energy

b)

Iron for hemoglobin

c)

Zinc for immune function

d)

Selenium for thyroid

47.

Gray tubes contain which additives for glucose and anticoagulation?

a)

Sodium citrate and calcium

b)

Heparin and lithium

c)

Potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride

d)

EDTA and citrate

48.

Why is sodium fluoride used in gray top tubes for glucose testing?

a)

Prevents hemolysis of RBCs

b)

Maintains serum electrolytes

c)

Stops cells from consuming glucose

d)

Speeds clot formation for plasma

49.

For lactate specimens, the plasma must be separated and removed from cells within approximately how long after collection?

a)

3 hours post draw

b)

15 minutes post draw

c)

5 minutes post draw

d)

1 hour post draw

50.

Which transport condition is appropriate for lactic acid specimens?

a)

Heat pack for stability

b)

Wet ice to the lab

c)

Frozen solid on dry ice

d)

Room temperature without ice

51.

During alcohol testing collection, which antiseptic should be used to cleanse the site?

a)

Hydrogen peroxide wipe

b)

Chlorhexidine

c)

Iodine solution

d)

Alcohol swab for speed

52.

Which step supports tamper resistance during drug testing specimen collection?

a)

Use alcohol to clean labels

b)

Avoid labeling with initials

c)

Seal stoppers with tape

d)

Skip tube inversion

53.

Which statement accurately describes chain of custody documentation?

a)

Ends after specimen collection

b)

Requires only patient signature

c)

Tracks date, time, and handlers

d)

Begins at testing completion

54.

Patient identification and specimen collection during chain of custody should be performed in the presence of whom?

a)

A hospital administrator

b)

A clinical chemist

c)

A witness, often law enforcement

d)

A laboratory manager

55.

Yellow ACD tubes contain which additive and function?

a)

Heparin to activate antithrombin

b)

Acid citrate dextrose to prevent clotting

c)

EDTA to bind iron in plasma

d)

Sodium fluoride to stabilize glucose