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Academic Awareness

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the first step in the evaluation process?

a)

Verification of attendance

b)

Counting answer sheets

c)

Awarding marks as per marking scheme

d)

Moderation

2.

Faculty members must submit evaluated answer scripts:

a)

Before the next semester starts

b)

Anytime convenient

c)

Within the timeline prescribed by the Examination Cell

d)

After moderation

3.

Invigilators must report cases of malpractice:

a)

After the exam week ends

b)

Verbally to students

c)

In writing using prescribed UMC Form

d)

Only if caught red-handed

4.

The invigilator's signature on the title page of the answer sheet signifies:

a)

The completion of candidate's exam

b)

The completion of verification steps related to attendance, identity, and details on the answer sheet

c)

The examiner's approval

d)

The Superintendent's permission

5.

How should an invigilator verify a candidate's identity?

a)

By comparing their signature and photograph with the Admit Card

b)

By asking their friends

c)

By checking their uniform

d)

By asking them to recite personal information

6.

When is a candidate allowed to leave the examination hall?

a)

At any time after entering

b)

After half the exam duration has passed

c)

Only when the exam ends

d)

After 15 minutes

7.

When should invigilators report to the examination Centre?

a)

At the time the exam starts

b)

15 minutes before the exam

c)

Half an hour before the commencement of the exam

d)

One hour before the exam

8.

What is the minimum requirement for question paper confidentiality?

a)

Shared via email freely

b)

Verbal communication only

c)

Use of printed copies only

d)

Submit question paper to examination cell in-person

9.

In case of missing answer scripts, faculty should:

a)

Ignore the issue

b)

Replace from memory

c)

Report immediately to Examination Cell

d)

Wait until results are published

10.

Faculty must refrain from:

a)

Disclosing marks before official announcement

b)

Using official channels

c)

Confidential submission of marks

d)

Submitting on time

11.

Before preparing a question paper, what should a faculty verify with the Scheme?

a)

Student attendance

b)

Latest syllabus, sample question paper, maximum marks, and time

c)

Number of teaching assistants

d)

Classroom availability

12.

Question papers should include which of the following to ensure alignment with learning outcomes?

a)

COs and Bloom's Taxonomy Levels

b)

Assign the same marks to all questions

c)

Only COs

d)

Only assign marks to long-answer questions

13.

If a faculty cannot attend invigilation duty:

a)

Send a student substitute

b)

Can skip without notice

c)

Prior intimation and approval must be sought and provide substitute faculty for invigilation

d)

Inform later

14.

What is the minimum passing mark for a course as per university policy?

a)

35%

b)

40%

c)

45%

d)

50%

15.

Faculty must enter marks in the EMS:

a)

Anytime before the end of semester

b)

Within the session deadline prescribed by Examination Cell

c)

After result declaration

d)

Only for failed students

16.

If a student scores 39.5, what should be recorded in EMS?

a)

39.5 as it is

b)

Rounded to 40

c)

Marked as pass

d)

Leave blank

17.

Faculty can edit marks in EMS after submission and freezing only if:

a)

They feel it is necessary

b)

Error is officially reported and approved

c)

Student requests it verbally

d)

Marks are low

18.

Faculty should check EMS entries for:

a)

Correct student ID, session, marks, and grade

b)

Only total marks

c)

Only the grade

d)

Only failing students

19.

The minimum CGPA required to successfully complete the academic program is:

a)

3.0

b)

4.0

c)

5.0

d)

6.0

20.

From AY 2025–26 onwards, how many sessional or mid-term exams will be conducted per course?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

None

21.

What percentage of the syllabus will the sessional/mid-term examination cover?

a)

50–55%

b)

60–65%

c)

70–75%

d)

80–90%

22.

What is the minimum requirement in the end-semester examination to be considered for passing a course?

a)

20% marks

b)

25% marks

c)

30% marks

d)

40% marks

23.

The end-semester theory question paper should have 50% weightage of questions from which portion of the syllabus?

a)

Entire syllabus equally

b)

Syllabus already covered in the sessional exam

c)

Syllabus not assessed during the sessional exam

d)

Only the first half of the syllabus

24.

For 2024-25 batch onwards, from which academic year will the integration of theory and lab courses be implemented?

a)

2023–24

b)

2024–25

c)

2025–26

d)

2022–23

25.

The integration of theory and lab courses applies to students admitted from which academic year?

a)

2023–24

b)

2024–25

c)

2025–26

d)

2022–23

26.

In the Lab course, what is the total marks weightage under the revised system for more than one credit course?

a)

30 marks

b)

40 marks

c)

50 marks

d)

100 marks

27.

How many marks are allotted for Continuous Internal Evaluation (CIE) in hybrid mode?

a)

70 marks

b)

80 marks

c)

100 marks

d)

120 marks

28.

In lab classes, rubric-based continuous assessment will be conducted:

a)

Once at the end of semester

b)

Every lab class

c)

Twice a semester

d)

Only for final project

29.

What is the maximum number of courses a student can choose for grade improvement during the entire Programme?

a)

2 for UG, 4 for PG

b)

4 for UG, 2 for PG

c)

3 for UG, 3 for PG

d)

Unlimited

30.

When a student re-registers for a course for grade improvement, what happens to the previously scored marks?

a)

They are averaged with the new marks

b)

Only the internal assessment marks are retained

c)

They are considered null and void

d)

Only end-semester marks are retained

31.

How many attempts are allowed for grade improvement for a particular course?

a)

Unlimited

b)

Two attempts

c)

Only one attempt

d)

Depends on the programme

32.

For common courses like UHV, IKS, COI, SDGs, Sports & Yoga, and CDC, the end-semester assessment will be:

a)

Written exam of 50 marks

b)

Computer-based exam of 30 marks

33.

In the revised course coding system, a Theory + Lab course will have:

a)

No change in code

b)

Random code reassignment

c)

A prefix added

d)

'H' added as a suffix

34.

What should an evaluator do with blank sheets while evaluating answer sheets?

a)

Keep them aside for future use

b)

Cancel the blank sheets

c)

Submit them as they are

d)

Staple them with the other answer sheets

35.

How must answer sheets be arranged before mark entry on the EMS?

a)

Randomly

b)

By subject code

c)

In roll number sequence

d)

By evaluator name

36.

A student with pending fee dues approaches the exam hall. When will they be allowed to sit for the exam?

a)

Immediately, without any approval

b)

Only after getting approval from the Registrar Office

c)

After paying the fee at the examination hall

d)

Only if the invigilator permits

37.

If a subject is evaluated by multiple faculty members, what is mandatory?

a)

Each evaluator can use their own solution key

b)

No specific rules apply

c)

Evaluators must compare notes after evaluation

d)

A common solution key must be used

38.

What is the minimum percentage of attendance required for a student to appear in the end-semester examination?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

75%

39.

Faculty are required to inform students about attendance shortfall how often during the semester?

a)

1 time

b)

2 times

c)

3 times

d)

4 times

40.

Attendance must be marked on the EMS portal within how many hours of the class?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

72 hours

41.

What is the maximum attendance percentage and medical relaxation currently prescribed by policy?

a)

up to 5%

b)

up to 10%

c)

up to 15%

d)

up to 20%

42.

What attendance status should the faculty mark for a student before sending the attendance for inclusion under the Event Attendance category?

a)

Present

b)

Absent

c)

Leave Blank

d)

Inform the DSW

43.

What is the maximum limit for event attendance (all subjects included) in a semester?

a)

30 Lectures

b)

40 Lectures

c)

50 Lectures

d)

60 Lectures

44.

Through which office must all sports-related attendance be officially routed for inclusion under the Event Attendance category?

a)

Dean

b)

HOD

c)

Director (Sports)

d)

Academic Office

45.

Who coordinates with Director (Sports) for attendance of sports participants?

a)

HOD

b)

Dean

c)

Director (Sports)

d)

Academic Office

46.

How many days medical case will be considered for medical attendance relaxation?

a)

3 days or 3 consecutive teaching days

b)

5 days or 5 consecutive teaching days

c)

10 days or 7 consecutive teaching days

d)

15 days or 5 consecutive teaching days

47.

When a faculty member is on leave, what should they do to ensure classes are conducted?

a)

Cancel the class

b)

Arrange substitute faculty

c)

Mark attendance later

d)

Inform students only

48.

Which stage students are informed about attendance ordinances and consequences of shortage?

a)

At the end of semester

b)

Beginning of semester

c)

Occasionally reminded

d)

Not informed

49.

Who approves late attendance marking beyond the permissible time on EMS?

a)

Request send through faculty to Academic office

b)

Request send through HOD to Academic office

c)

Request send through Dean to Academic office

d)

Request send to Academic office

50.

What is one of the most common reasons for short attendance in classes?

a)

Personal issues

b)

Timetable issues

c)

Lack of motivation

d)

University events

51.

What is the official deadline for submission of event attendance to the Academic Office?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

52.

Who provides support in resolving attendance-related discrepancies such as student appeals or portal errors?

a)

Registrar

b)

Academic Office

c)

Dean

d)

HOD

53.

Course outcomes

a)

Are the measurable statements that indicate the student's ability of learning at the successful completion of the course.

b)

Are the qualitative statements related to content of the course.

c)

Are broad statements describing the knowledge, skills, and attitudes a graduate of a formal program should have upon completion of program.

d)

Can't be measured

54.

Which of the following is/are Key aspects of program outcomes

a)

Measurable and demonstrable

b)

Skill and knowledge-focused

c)

Provide a framework for assessing the overall effectiveness of an educational program.

d)

All given options

55.

CO Attainment can be assessed though

a)

Direct tools only

b)

Indirect tools only

c)

Both Direct and Indirect tools

d)

End semester examination only

56.

Identify an indirect tool for CO Attainment

a)

Assignment

b)

Course exit survey

c)

Sessional test

d)

End Semester Examination

57.

Course outcome attainment target is set

a)

On the basis of average performance levels in that course during previous three years

b)

On the basis of End semester examination results

c)

Course exit survey

d)

On the basis of average performance levels in all studies courses during previous two years

58.

The weightage for direct and indirect methods is

a)

20% and 80%, respectively

b)

40% and 60%, respectively

c)

60% and 40%, respectively

d)

80% and 20%, respectively

59.

Each Department offers a variety of ------------------ courses that are conducted after normal scheduled timings of regular classes or during semester break.

a)

Value added

b)

Audit Pass

c)

Life skill

d)

Language

60.

Department normally run the particular VAC only when minimum ---------- students register for that course.

a)

10

b)

30

c)

60

d)

5

61.

Audit pass course is a course with ------ credit

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

62.

Curricula feedback of only those students who have a minimum -------------- attendance in an academic year is considered for analysis

a)

60%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

30%

63.

For proper analysis of employer feedback, every year the respective department should try to get feedback from minimum ----------- different perspective or existing employers of the students of a particular programme for proper analysis.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

10

d)

20

64.

In order to distinguish the courses as per the levels defined in National Credit Framework which coding level ------------- is used for UG First Year Courses

a)

5

b)

4.5

c)

4.5

d)

5.5

65.

A basic course on the Indian knowledge System is offered to the UG students (Except BDS and BPT)

a)

Under the compulsory basket

b)

As elective course

c)

Open elective course

d)

As VAC

66.

Grades obtained in the -------- courses are not counted for computation of grade point average, however are mandatory to pass as a partial fulfillment for award of degree

a)

Value added

b)

Audit pass

c)

Open elective

d)

Language

67.

To enhance students' participation and make them aware of the various reforms of the higher education system, the UGC has

a)

Launched the the "NEP SAARTHI" at campuses

b)

Introduced UHV in curriculum

c)

Introduced IKS in curriculum

d)

Introduced EVS in curriculum

68.

4.5BT101C00 course code indicates

a)

Compulsory course

b)

Elective Course

c)

Open Elective Course

d)

Audit Pass Course

69.

4.5CA101C09 Course Code Indicates

a)

Value Added Course

b)

Elective Course

c)

Open Elective Course

d)

Audit Pass Course

70.

4.5BT101C00H course code indicates

a)

Theory Course

b)

Lab Course

c)

Hybrid Course

d)

Ability Enhancement Course

71.

Which statement is incorrect

a)

Credits of Advanced Placement courses are not included in calculating the student's CGPA. They will be recorded as transfer credits and do not carry a letter grade.

b)

A student can benefit from transferring up to 30 credits from Advanced Placement courses

c)

Students must have completed the Advanced Placement courses with a minimum score of 3 out of 5 for credit transfer

d)

Credits of Advanced Placement courses are included in calculating the student's CGPA.

72.

What is the primary goal of the BODHI Mentee-Mentor Program?

a)

To ensure students complete their degrees on time

b)

To prepare students for professional life with resilience and positivity

c)

To provide only academic support to students

d)

To focus exclusively on alumni networking

73.

You are an Academic Mentor (A). One of your mentees consistently misses the mandatory mental health workshop. What is your responsibility?

a)

Ignore the absence since workshops are optional

b)

Report directly to the Alumni Office

c)

Ensure participation by reminding and guiding the student to attend

d)

Transfer the mentee to another mentor

74.

What is the mentor-to-student ratio for Mental Health Mentors (M) at the UG level?

a)

1:20

b)

1:60

c)

1:120

d)

1:10

75.

As a Career Coach (C), you notice a mentee struggling with confidence during interviews. According to program guidelines, what should you do?

a)

Refer them immediately to the Alumni Office

b)

Provide constructive feedback and integrate confidence-building exercises into career coaching

c)

Ignore the issue since it is not career-related

d)

Ask the Academic Mentor to handle it

76.

How often should Academic Mentors (A) meet their mentees?

a)

Once a semester only

b)

Fortnightly, with 50% meetings allowed online

c)

Weekly

d)

Only during orientation sessions

77.

You are a Mental Health Mentor (M). A mentee shows signs of severe stress and requires continuous support. What is the correct protocol?

a)

Immediately transfer the mentee to another Academic Mentor

b)

Collaborate with Academic Mentor A and follow the detailed intervention document prepared by Behavioural Sciences Experts

c)

Ignore the case since stress is common among students

d)

Refer the mentee directly to alumni coaches

78.

Who is responsible for conducting behavioural tests and workshops for faculty and staff?

a)

Career Development Centre (CDC)

b)

School of Behavioural & Social Sciences (SBSS)

c)

Alumni Office

d)

International Office

79.

As a Life Coach (L) for international students, you notice cultural adjustment issues. What should you do according to program guidelines? (A = Academic guidance, C = Career development, M = Mental health support)

a)

Ask the Career Coach to handle it

b)

Take lead, initiate combined review with A, C, and M, and document progress in wellness journals

c)

Ignore the issue since academics are the priority

d)

Transfer the student to another cohort

80.

When should mentor training and orientation be conducted before the semester starts?

a)

1 week before semester starts

b)

3–4 weeks before semester starts

c)

During the first month of classes

d)

After the orientation of students

81.

Who is responsible for conducting mentor training and orientation for Mental Health Mentors?

a)

Career Development Centre (CDC)

b)

School of Behavioural & Social Sciences (SBSS)

c)

Alumni Office

d)

International Office

82.

You are an Academic Mentor (A). During the semester reorientation, a mentee expresses confusion about career mentoring. What should you do?

a)

Redirect the student to the Career Development Centre (CDC) workshops

b)

Ignore the concern since career mentoring is not your role

c)

Ask the Life Coach to handle it

d)

Provide career mentoring yourself without involving CDC

83.

How frequently should the evaluation of a mentee by all three mentors (A, C, M) be conducted? (A = Academic guidance, C = Career development, M = Mental health support)

a)

Once a semester

b)

Once every month

c)

Once every six months

d)

Only at the end of the program

84.

As a Career Coach (C), you are asked to provide feedback during the semester-end evaluation. What is expected of you?

a)

Share only academic progress of the mentee

b)

Provide recommendations on career development and collaborate with A & M to integrate feedback

c)

Focus only on mental health issues

d)

Skip the evaluation since it is optional

85.

Which of the following is a key responsibility of a mentee in a mentoring relationship?

a)

Waiting passively for mentor guidance

b)

Taking ownership of their learning goals

c)

Avoiding feedback to maintain independence

d)

Relying entirely on the mentor for progress

86.

Why are reflection journals important for mentees?

a)

They help track progress and encourage self-awareness

b)

They replace mentor feedback

c)

They serve as a record of attendance

d)

They are used only for grading purposes

87.

Which practice best supports effective communication between mentors and mentees?

a)

Avoiding difficult conversations

b)

Limiting feedback to formal reviews only

c)

Maintaining transparency and respect

d)

Keeping expectations vague

88.

What should a mentee do to prepare for mentoring sessions?

a)

Depend on the mentor to set all topics

b)

Arrive without any agenda

c)

Prepare questions and reflect on progress

d)

Avoid discussing challenges

89.

Which of the following is a best practice for both mentors and mentees?

a)

Treating mentoring as a one-way process

b)

Encouraging independence while offering support

c)

Focusing only on short-term tasks

d)

Avoiding feedback to prevent conflict

90.

Who is responsible for evaluating the effectiveness of the mentoring program based on student feedback at the end of each semester?

a)

Academic Mentors only

b)

Career Coaches only

c)

Dean Academics, Director BODHI, Director CDC, Dean SBSS, Dean/Director International Admissions, and Alumni Office Representative

d)

Alumni Coaches only

91.

A bright student has completed two semesters and shows maturity in career focus. What is the next step according to program guidelines?

a)

Assign them directly to a Life Coach

b)

Consider assigning an Alumni Mentor in consultation with the Alumni Office

c)

Transfer them to another Academic Mentor

d)

Exempt them from further mentoring

92.

What is the maximum number of international students that can be assigned to one Life Coach (L)?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

90

d)

120

93.

During a combined review, the Life Coach (L) notices that an international student is struggling both academically and emotionally. What should L do?

a)

Handle the case alone without involving others

b)

Take lead, initiate combined review with A, C, and M, and document progress in wellness journals

c)

Transfer the student to another cohort

d)

Refer the student only to the Career Development Centre

94.

What is the full form of BODHI in the MRIIRS Mentee-Mentor Program?

a)

Building Opportunities and Driving Holistic Intelligence

b)

Boosting Opportunities for Development and Higher Innovation

c)

Bridging Opportunities and Developing Human Insight

d)

Building Outreach for Diversity and Holistic Integration

95.

In case of any doubts or clarifications regarding the BODHI Mentor-Mentee Program, whom should you 1st connect with?

a)

Dean Academics

b)

Director Career Development Centre (CDC)

c)

Director BODHI

d)

Alumni Office Representative