wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

EENT Disorders — Post Test

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes cataract?

a)

It is the opacity of the lens that distorts the image projected to the retina.

b)

It is a group of ocular diseases resulting in increase IOP.

c)

It is the loss of central vision.

d)

It is the detachment of retina from the epithelium.

2.

Which of the following is an early manifestation of cataract?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Presence of a white pupil

c)

Reduced visual acuity

d)

Slight blurring of vision or decrease color perception

3.

This is an appropriate surgery for cataract.

a)

Labyrinthectomy

b)

Trabeculectomy

c)

Phacoemulsification

d)

Stapedectomy

4.

Which of the following needs further teaching upon discharge after cataract surgery?

a)

“I need to maintain an eyepatch after discharge”.

b)

I need to wear dark glasses when going outdoor

c)

“I need to report to the HCP when severe pain occurs with nausea and vomiting”.

d)

“I can resume to my usually activity especially gardening and I can lift heavy objects”.

5.

Which of the following clients NEEDS FURTHER teaching after cataract surgery?

a)

“I need to maintain an eyepatch after discharge”.

b)

I need to wear dark glasses when going outdoor”

c)

“I need to report to the HCP when severe pain occurs with nausea and vomiting”.

d)

“I can resume to my usually activity especially gardening and I can lift heavy objects more than 5 lbs.”

6.

Which of the following best describes GLAUCOMA?

a)

It is the opacity of the lens that distorts the image projected to the retina.

b)

It is a group of ocular diseases resulting in increase IOP.

c)

It is the loss of central vision.

d)

It is the detachment of retina from the epithelium.

e)

It is the inflammation of the conjunctival sac.

7.

The normal IOP is:

a)

0–15 mmHg

b)

100–250 cc per day

c)

10–21 mmHg

d)

22–30 mmHg

8.

Which of the following dovetails the characteristics of a closed angle glaucoma?

a)

The iris is in the right position.

b)

The uveoscleral drainage are clear.

c)

The iris is not squeezed against the cornea.

d)

The iris is squeezed against the cornea blocking both the uveoscleral and trabecular meshwork.

9.

This is an appropriate surgery for cataract.

a)

Labyrinthectomy

b)

Trabeculectomy

c)

Phacoemulsification

d)

Stapedectomy

10.

Which of the following clients need further teaching after glaucoma surgery. When the client says?

a)

“I need to maintain an eyepatch after discharge”.

b)

I need to wear dark glasses when going outdoor”

c)

“I need to report to the HCP when severe pain occurs with nausea and vomiting”.

d)

“I cannot resume to my usually activity especially gardening and I cannot lift heavy objects more than 5 lbs.”

11.

Which of the following best describes presbyopia?

a)

Nearsightedness

b)

Farsightedness

c)

Loss of lens elasticity because of aging.

d)

Red painful lump in the eyelid.

e)

Painless lump in the lacrimal gland.

12.

Which of the following is the management when an object penetrates to the eye causing eye injury?

a)

Remove the object.

b)

Do not remove the object because it may be holding ocular structures.

c)

Scratch the eye.

d)

Do not cover the eye with cup.

13.

The most common cause of disability is cataract. Blindness may occur as a complication if left untreated. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is

a)

Disturbed sensory perception (Visual)

b)

Disturbed sensory perception (cataract)

c)

Disturbed sensory perception (blindness)

d)

Disturbed sensory perception (blurred vision)

14.

The nurse is teaching a client about open-angle glaucoma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

a)

"I must wait 10 to 15 minutes between different eyedrop medications."

b)

"I must press on the inside of my eye to prevent washout."

c)

"It is important to not skip a dose."

d)

"These eyedrops will not cure my glaucoma."

15.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with glaucoma. Which activities does the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

a)

Eating high fiber diet with increased fluid

b)

Sitting with legs elevated

c)

Sleeping on more than two pillows

d)

Blowing the nose frequently

16.

Structure of the ear that contains sensory receptors for sounds and equilibrium.

a)

external ear

b)

pinna

c)

middle ear

d)

inner ear

17.

A client is for tomography, the Nurse should?

a)

Not removed jewelries.

b)

Not put a lead eye shield to cover the cornea.

c)

assess allergies to iodine as the test contains dye.

d)

do nothing.

18.

ENG- Electronystagmography is ordered to a patient. Which of the following should be explain to the patient?

a)

NPO for 1 hour.

b)

Instruct that this test won’t take too long and it is not tiring.

c)

Instruct the patient to avoid coffee for 24–48 hours before the test.

d)

Do nothing.

19.

Which of the following best describes presbycusis?

a)

It is a sensorineural hearing loss associated with aging.

b)

It is due to untreated otitis media.

c)

It is a chronic, inflammatory response involving the middle ear.

d)

It is genetic problem of the labyrinth capsule of the middle ear that results in a bony overgrowth of the tissue surrounding the ossicles.

20.

Presbycusis is common among elderly. Which of the following is not helpful when communicating to them?

a)

Talk in a normal volume and at a lower pitch.

b)

Rephrase sentences and repeats information.

c)

Use of written words.

d)

Talk in a high pitch tone as if you are shouting to be easily heard.

21.

The first line therapy in otitis media is?

a)

Analgesics

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

NSAIDS

d)

Amoxicillin

22.

Which of the following is the most common cause of mastoiditis?

a)

bone tumor

b)

untreated otitis media

c)

meningitis

d)

endocrine diseases

23.

A client arrives at the emergency room with a foreign body in the left ear that has been determined to be an insect. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed initially?

a)

Irrigation of the ear

b)

Instillation of diluted alcohol

c)

Instillation of antibiotic ear drops

d)

Instillation of corticosteroids ear drops

24.

Sound wave transmission is interrupted between the external canal and the inner ear (junction of the stapes and oval window). This is:

a)

conductive hearing loss

b)

Sensorineural hearing loss

c)

mixed

d)

central

25.

The tetrad of Meniere’s is:

a)

Tinnitus

b)

Tinnitus, auditory fullness

c)

Tinnitus, auditory fullness, loss of hearing

d)

Tinnitus, auditory fullness, loss of hearing, and vertigo

26.

A client with Meniere's disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which instruction would the nurse give to the client to assist in controlling the vertigo?

a)

Increase fluid intake to 3000 ml a day

b)

Avoid sudden head movements

c)

Lie still and watch the television

d)

Increase sodium in the diet

27.

Victoria has a history of Rheumatoid arthritis. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find on physical assessment?

a)

Pain, stiffness, functional impairment, crepitus and Heberden’s nodes

b)

Joint pain, swelling, warmth, erythema, lack of function and early morning stiffness

c)

Tophi deposits in the great toe, swelling and podagra

d)

Dowager’s hump, back pain and decreasing height

28.

Which of the following is the other name of osteoarthritis?

a)

Inflammatory joint disease

b)

Degenerative joint disease

c)

Error of purine metabolism

d)

Paget’s disease

29.

Victoria has a history of Gout. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find on physical assessment?

a)

Pain, stiffness, functional impairment, crepitus and Heberden’s nodes

b)

Joint pain, swelling, warmth, erythema, lack of function and early morning stiffness

c)

Tophi deposits in the great toe, swelling and podagra

d)

Dowager’s hump, back pain and decreasing height

30.

When caring for a client experiencing an chronic gout attack, the nurse anticipates administering which medication?

a)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

b)

Colchicine (Colchicine)

c)

Prednisone (Deltasone)

d)

Propoxyphene hydrochloride (Darvon)

31.

Swan neck deformity is a deformity seen to a patient with Rheumatoid arthritis, this can be seen to which part of the body?

a)

neck

b)

fingers

c)

feet

d)

trunk