wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cloud Computing Worksheet

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is cloud computing?

a)

Storing data only on personal devices

b)

Delivering computing services over the internet

c)

Using only local servers

d)

Running software without internet

2.

Which cloud service provides virtual machines?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DaaS

3.

Which company is known as the first major cloud provider?

a)

Microsoft

b)

Google

c)

Amazon

d)

IBM

4.

Which cloud model shares infrastructure among multiple users?

a)

Private

b)

Hybrid

c)

Public

d)

Community

5.

Pay-as-you-go pricing means:

a)

Fixed monthly cost

b)

Free services

c)

Pay only for used resources

d)

Unlimited usage

6.

Which is NOT a cloud characteristic?

a)

On-demand self-service

b)

Elasticity

c)

Measured service

d)

Manual provisioning

7.

Elasticity in cloud computing refers to:

a)

Data encryption

b)

Resource expansion and shrinkage

c)

User authentication

d)

Network isolation

8.

Which deployment model combines public and private clouds?

a)

Public

b)

Private

c)

Hybrid

d)

Multi-cloud

9.

IaaS users are responsible for:

a)

Physical security

b)

Hardware only

c)

Operating systems and applications

d)

Nothing

10.

Which is an example of SaaS?

a)

AWS EC2

b)

Google App Engine

c)

Gmail

d)

Azure VM

11.

PaaS mainly targets:

a)

End users

b)

System admins

c)

Developers

d)

Hackers

12.

Which cloud model offers highest control?

a)

Public

b)

Private

c)

Hybrid

d)

Multi-cloud

13.

A hypervisor is responsible for:

a)

Data encryption

b)

User authentication

c)

Managing virtual machines

d)

Network routing

14.

Which hypervisor runs directly on hardware?

a)

Hosted

b)

Type II

c)

Bare-metal

d)

Type III

15.

VMware ESXi is an example of:

a)

Hosted hypervisor

b)

Bare-metal hypervisor

c)

Container engine

d)

Application VM

16.

VirtualBox is classified as:

a)

Type I hypervisor

b)

Type II hypervisor

c)

Cloud platform

d)

Container runtime

17.

Which is a benefit of virtualization?

a)

Increased hardware usage

b)

Wasted resources

c)

Isolation between VMs

d)

Higher costs

18.

VM isolation helps to:

a)

Increase speed

b)

Prevent malware spread

c)

Delete data

d)

Reduce backups

19.

Which component acts as the brain of cloud architecture?

a)

Front-end

b)

Network layer

c)

Cloud management software

d)

Storage layer

20.

The front-end of cloud architecture includes:

a)

Hypervisors

b)

Databases

c)

Web browsers

d)

Storage systems

21.

Which provider launched in 2006?

a)

Azure

b)

AWS

c)

GCP

d)

Oracle Cloud

22.

BigQuery belongs to:

a)

AWS

b)

Azure

c)

GCP

d)

IBM Cloud

23.

Which cloud provider focuses on enterprise databases?

a)

Google

b)

Oracle

c)

Amazon

d)

Microsoft

24.

Virtualization allows multiple OS to run on:

a)

Multiple servers

b)

One physical machine

c)

Cloud only

d)

Containers only

25.

The host machine provides:

a)

Virtual disks

b)

Hardware resources

c)

Applications only

d)

Network policies

26.

Which file acts as a VM hard drive?

a)

.exe

b)

.iso

c)

.vmdk

d)

.log

27.

Server virtualization is mainly used to:

a)

Run desktops

b)

Run mobile apps

c)

Run multiple servers on one machine

d)

Run containers only

28.

Docker is an example of:

a)

Server virtualization

b)

Desktop virtualization

c)

OS virtualization

d)

Network virtualization

29.

Which virtualization type pools storage devices?

a)

Network

b)

Storage

c)

Application

d)

Desktop

30.

The VM lifecycle starts with:

a)

Boot

b)

Creation

c)

Running

d)

Migration

31.

Which VM state saves memory without reboot?

a)

Stop

b)

Delete

c)

Pause

d)

Boot

32.

Live migration means:

a)

VM shutdown before move

b)

Moving VM while running

c)

Data deletion

d)

VM cloning

33.

VM sprawl refers to:

a)

VM deletion

b)

Uncontrolled VM growth

c)

Hypervisor crash

d)

Network failure

34.

VM escape is when:

a)

VM shuts down

b)

VM accesses host or other VMs

c)

Data loss occurs

d)

Backup fails

35.

The CIA triad stands for:

a)

Control, Integrity, Access

b)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

c)

Cloud, Internet, Access

d)

Compute, Infrastructure, API

36.

Data encryption protects data:

a)

Only at rest

b)

Only in transit

c)

At rest and in transit

d)

Only backups

37.

MFA adds security by:

a)

Removing passwords

b)

Using single login

c)

Multiple verification methods

d)

Blocking users

38.

Shared responsibility means:

a)

Provider handles everything

b)

User handles everything

c)

Both share security roles

d)

No one is responsible

39.

In IaaS, customer is responsible for:

a)

Physical servers

b)

Virtualization layer

c)

OS and applications

d)

Data center security

40.

Data breach means:

a)

Data deletion

b)

Unauthorized data access

c)

Data backup

d)

Data migration

41.

Common cause of data breach is:

a)

Strong IAM

b)

MFA enabled

c)

Misconfigured storage

d)

Encryption

42.

Data loss differs from breach because data is:

a)

Encrypted

b)

Stolen

c)

Permanently unavailable

d)

Backed up

43.

Account hijacking often uses:

a)

Firewalls

b)

Phishing

c)

MFA

d)

Logs

44.

Insecure APIs may cause:

a)

Better performance

b)

Unauthorized access

c)

Lower cost

d)

Data compression

45.

DoS attacks originate from:

a)

Many sources

b)

Single source

c)

Cloud provider

d)

End users

46.

DDoS attacks use:

a)

One computer

b)

Botnets

c)

Firewalls

d)

Hypervisors

47.

Insider threats come from:

a)

External hackers

b)

Employees or partners

c)

Firewalls only

d)

Cloud providers

48.

Misconfiguration often happens due to:

a)

Too much security

b)

Rapid deployment

c)

Strong policies

d)

Encryption

49.

Malware injection targets:

a)

Only hardware

b)

Cloud apps and images

c)

Passwords only

d)

Firewalls

50.

Which security layer protects traffic between VMs?

a)

Host OS

b)

Hypervisor

c)

Virtual Network

d)

Physical switch

51.

Hypervisor attacks target:

a)

Applications only

b)

Guest OS

c)

Hypervisor control layer

d)

Network cables

52.

VM sprawl mainly causes:

a)

Better performance

b)

Higher costs and weak security

c)

Less storage usage

d)

Faster backups

53.

Resource contention attacks affect:

a)

Only storage

b)

Only network

c)

CPU and memory sharing

d)

Encryption keys

54.

Hardening the hypervisor includes:

a)

Disabling logs

b)

Using default passwords

c)

Regular patching

d)

Sharing admin access

55.

Snapshots are mainly used for:

a)

Encryption

b)

Backup and recovery

c)

Load balancing

d)

User authentication

56.

Old snapshots are risky because they may cause:

a)

Better performance

b)

Data exposure

c)

Faster migration

d)

Higher availability

57.

Cloud security focuses on protecting:

a)

Only data

b)

Only hardware

c)

Data, applications, and infrastructure

d)

Only users

58.

Which is NOT a cloud security best practice?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Strong IAM

c)

Leaving default settings

d)

Multi-factor authentication

59.

Multi-tenancy risk refers to:

a)

Single user systems

b)

Shared infrastructure among users

c)

Offline storage

d)

Local databases

60.

Expanded attack surface in cloud comes from:

a)

APIs and consoles

b)

Physical locks

c)

Local disks

d)

Offline servers

61.

The shared responsibility model differs based on:

a)

Cloud color

b)

Service model

c)

User location

d)

Internet speed

62.

In SaaS, user responsibility is mainly:

a)

Hardware security

b)

App updates

c)

User access and data usage

d)

Hypervisor management

63.

Which threat involves stolen credentials?

a)

Data loss

b)

Account hijacking

c)

Malware injection

d)

Worms

64.

Weak IAM policies may lead to:

a)

Lower costs

b)

Privilege escalation

c)

Better auditing

d)

Faster deployment

65.

Data breach prevention includes:

a)

Disabling logs

b)

Least privilege access

c)

Public storage

d)

Missing MFA

66.

Versioning helps prevent:

a)

Data breach

b)

Data loss

c)

Account hijacking

d)

DoS attacks

67.

Phishing is commonly used in:

a)

DoS attacks

b)

Account hijacking

c)

Encryption

d)

Migration

68.

Insecure APIs are dangerous because they:

a)

Improve speed

b)

Expose services and data

c)

Reduce costs

d)

Block users

69.

Rate limiting helps prevent:

a)

Data loss

b)

API abuse

c)

Disk failure

d)

Insider threats

70.

DoS attacks mainly affect:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

71.

DDoS attacks are harder to stop because they are:

a)

Encrypted

b)

Single source

c)

Distributed

d)

Malware-based

72.

Auto-scaling during DDoS may cause:

a)

Lower cost

b)

Higher cloud bills

c)

Data encryption

d)

Faster recovery

73.

Insider threat can be:

a)

Only malicious

b)

Only accidental

c)

Malicious or negligent

d)

Only external

74.

Least privilege principle means:

a)

Full access by default

b)

Access only what is needed

c)

No access at all

d)

Shared credentials

75.

Misconfigured storage often results in:

a)

Public data exposure

b)

Better redundancy

c)

Faster access

d)

Stronger encryption

76.

Default cloud settings are risky because they are:

a)

Always secure

b)

Generic and open

c)

Encrypted

d)

Private

77.

IaC helps reduce misconfiguration by:

a)

Manual setup

b)

Automated consistent configs

c)

Disabling logs

d)

Removing IAM

78.

Malware injection often exploits:

a)

Strong CI/CD

b)

Insecure pipelines

c)

Encryption

d)

MFA

79.

Compromised container images may contain:

a)

Updates

b)

Malware patches

c)

Backdoors

d)

Firewalls

80.

Supply-chain attacks target:

a)

Physical servers

b)

Dependencies and libraries

c)

Hypervisors only

d)

VM snapshots

81.

Cryptomining malware abuses:

a)

Storage only

b)

Compute resources

c)

Network cables

d)

Encryption keys

82.

Cryptojacking is often detected by:

a)

Low CPU usage

b)

High unexpected bills

c)

Strong IAM

d)

Faster apps

83.

Ransomware mainly impacts:

a)

Availability of data

b)

Network speed

c)

API calls

d)

VM migration

84.

Cloud ransomware often spreads via:

a)

Shared storage

b)

Local disks

c)

Offline backups

d)

Physical access

85.

Worms are dangerous in cloud because they:

a)

Need user interaction

b)

Self-propagate quickly

c)

Require admin login

d)

Are encrypted

86.

Cloud malware detection relies on:

a)

Physical inspection

b)

Log analysis and behavior monitoring

c)

USB scans

d)

Offline tools

87.

SIEM tools help by:

a)

Blocking users

b)

Centralizing logs and alerts

c)

Deleting data

d)

Creating VMs

88.

Defense-in-depth means:

a)

One security layer

b)

Multiple layered controls

c)

No monitoring

d)

Only encryption

89.

Sandboxing is used to:

a)

Run production apps

b)

Test suspicious code safely

c)

Delete malware automatically

d)

Encrypt disks

90.

Access control defines:

a)

Who accesses what

b)

How fast apps run

c)

Where data is stored

d)

VM size

91.

DAC allows access decisions by:

a)

Security authority

b)

Resource owner

c)

Hypervisor

d)

Cloud provider

92.

MAC is commonly used in:

a)

Startups

b)

E-commerce

c)

Government systems

d)

Gaming apps

93.

RBAC assigns permissions based on:

a)

User attributes

b)

User roles

c)

Network location

d)

Time only

94.

ABAC decisions depend on:

a)

Single factor

b)

Multiple attributes

c)

Hardcoded rules

d)

Manual approval

95.

IAM authentication verifies:

a)

User permissions

b)

User identity

c)

Data encryption

d)

VM state

96.

IAM authorization determines:

a)

Who you are

b)

What you can do

c)

Where data is stored

d)

When VM stops

97.

Orphaned accounts are dangerous because they:

a)

Improve access

b)

Remain active without owners

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Reduce costs

98.

MFA significantly reduces risk of:

a)

Account hijacking

b)

Data replication

c)

VM migration

d)

Log collection

99.

Centralized IAM helps in:

a)

Reducing visibility

b)

Managing access consistently

c)

Increasing misconfigurations

d)

Removing compliance

100.

Cloud forensics focuses on:

a)

Physical devices

b)

Investigating cloud incidents

c)

Network installation

d)

App development

101.

Which is a key challenge in cloud forensics?

a)

Single tenancy

b)

Lack of physical access

c)

Local storage

d)

Offline data

102.

Multi-tenancy complicates forensics because:

a)

Only one user exists

b)

Multiple customers share infrastructure

c)

Data is encrypted

d)

Logs are deleted

103.

Distributed data means:

a)

Data stored in one server

b)

Data spread across regions

c)

Data stored offline

d)

Data deleted quickly

104.

Which is a primary evidence source in cloud forensics?

a)

USB drives

b)

VM snapshots

c)

Physical disks

d)

BIOS logs

105.

Cloud logs provide:

a)

Encryption keys

b)

User activity timelines

c)

Physical access history

d)

Hardware temperature

106.

API logs record:

a)

CPU usage

b)

API calls and actions

c)

User passwords

d)

File encryption

107.

Authentication logs show:

a)

Data backups

b)

Login attempts and MFA events

c)

VM deletion

d)

Network speed

108.

Network logs help investigate:

a)

User roles

b)

Traffic flows and attacks

c)

File permissions

d)

App versions

109.

VM snapshots capture:

a)

Only RAM

b)

Complete VM state

c)

Network cables

d)

User credentials only

110.

Memory dumps are valuable because they contain:

a)

Stored backups

b)

Volatile runtime data

c)

Physical disks

d)

Encrypted archives

111.

Which evidence may reveal encryption keys?

a)

Log files

b)

Memory dumps

c)

VM templates

d)

Backups

112.

Chain of custody ensures:

a)

Faster investigation

b)

Evidence integrity and authenticity

c)

Higher performance

d)

Lower cost

113.

Cloud chain of custody is harder due to:

a)

Too many tools

b)

Provider-controlled infrastructure

c)

Local servers

d)

Offline access

114.

Timestamp inconsistency occurs due to:

a)

Single region systems

b)

Multiple regions and services

c)

Offline storage

d)

Manual backups

115.

Evidence contamination risk increases because of:

a)

Encryption

b)

MFA

c)

Shared infrastructure

d)

Firewalls

116.

Forensic investigators rely on CSP for:

a)

Password cracking

b)

Evidence access and collection

c)

App development

d)

Hardware repair

117.

Which helps maintain forensic integrity?

a)

Hashing evidence

b)

Deleting logs

c)

Sharing accounts

d)

Public storage

118.

Audit trails are important for:

a)

Performance tuning

b)

Tracking user actions

c)

UI design

d)

App testing

119.

Which cloud feature complicates evidence location?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Versioning

c)

Auto-scaling

d)

Centralization

120.

Compliance ensures:

a)

Faster systems

b)

Legal and regulatory adherence

c)

Lower latency

d)

Higher bandwidth

121.

GDPR mainly focuses on:

a)

Financial audits

b)

Data privacy and protection

c)

Network security

d)

App development

122.

HIPAA regulates:

a)

E-commerce data

b)

Healthcare information

c)

Payment cards

d)

Social media

123.

PCI DSS applies to:

a)

Healthcare

b)

Cloud providers only

c)

Payment card data

d)

Education systems

124.

ISO/IEC 27001 addresses:

a)

Network speed

b)

Information security management

c)

App coding

d)

Virtual machines only

125.

Data residency violations occur when:

a)

Data is encrypted

b)

Data stored in unauthorized regions

c)

Data is backed up

d)

Data is compressed

126.

Non-compliance may result in:

a)

Lower costs

b)

Heavy fines and penalties

c)

Better reputation

d)

Faster deployment

127.

Shared responsibility confusion can cause:

a)

Better security

b)

Security gaps

c)

More automation

d)

Higher availability

128.

Which tool helps manage compliance?

a)

AWS Artifact

b)

Text editor

c)

Docker Hub

d)

FTP server

129.

Encryption helps compliance by:

a)

Hiding users

b)

Protecting sensitive data

c)

Deleting logs

d)

Reducing access

130.

Cloud malware differs by:

a)

Being offline

b)

Exploiting cloud features

c)

Using USB drives

d)

Needing physical access

131.

Ransomware encrypts:

a)

Network traffic

b)

Data for ransom

c)

Hardware

d)

APIs

132.

Crypto-mining malware abuses:

a)

GPUs and CPUs

b)

Storage only

c)

Log files

d)

Backups

133.

Cloud worms spread via:

a)

Physical cables

b)

APIs and automation

c)

Manual installation

d)

Offline disks

134.

Auto-scaling can worsen malware impact by:

a)

Limiting spread

b)

Providing more resources

c)

Blocking traffic

d)

Encrypting data

135.

Unexpected billing spikes may indicate:

a)

Normal usage

b)

Cryptojacking

c)

Strong security

d)

Backups running

136.

Runtime monitoring helps detect:

a)

Design flaws

b)

Abnormal behavior

c)

Password length

d)

File formats

137.

SBOMs help by:

a)

Listing software components

b)

Hiding dependencies

c)

Deleting malware

d)

Encrypting disks

138.

Image scanning is used to detect:

a)

Network errors

b)

Malicious components

c)

UI bugs

d)

User roles

139.

Secure CI/CD pipelines reduce risk of:

a)

Faster builds

b)

Malware injection

c)

Strong encryption

d)

Log management

140.

Least privilege reduces:

a)

Usability

b)

Attack impact

c)

Compliance

d)

Costs only

141.

Temporary credentials help by:

a)

Never expiring

b)

Limiting exposure time

c)

Sharing access

d)

Removing MFA

142.

SSO improves security by:

a)

Multiple passwords

b)

Centralized authentication

c)

Removing logging

d)

Public access

143.

Zero Trust assumes:

a)

Internal users are trusted

b)

No user is trusted by default

c)

Cloud is unsafe

d)

Encryption is enough

144.

UEBA helps detect:

a)

Hardware failures

b)

User behavior anomalies

c)

Data backups

d)

Virtual disks

145.

Log retention supports:

a)

Forensics and compliance

b)

Performance tuning only

c)

App updates

d)

UI design

146.

Data classification helps identify:

a)

Storage size

b)

Sensitivity levels

c)

Network routes

d)

VM speed

147.

Compliance audits ensure:

a)

Policy adherence

b)

Network speed

c)

Lower cost

d)

User convenience

148.

Cloud compliance tools provide:

a)

Manual reports

b)

Continuous monitoring

c)

Game engines

d)

VM snapshots only

149.

Failure to meet regulations may cause:

a)

More customers

b)

Legal action

c)

Lower security

d)

Faster growth