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Intestinal Obstruction and Clinical Signs

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Non-mechanical obstruction is also known as paralytic ileus or adynamic ileus.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Hypovolemia is a common complication of intestinal obstruction.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

An obstruction high in the small intestine often results in metabolic acidosis.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Intussusception is twisting of the intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Volvulus is telescoping of a segment of the intestine within itself.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Hypokalemia is the most common electrolyte disturbance that predispose the patient to intestinal obstruction.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Intestinal obstruction due to phytobezoar is a mechanical obstruction.

a)

False

b)

True

8.

Ileus is a paralytic or functional variety of obstruction.

a)

False

b)

True

9.

In order, the main clinical signs of bowel obstruction include nausea or vomiting, colicky abdominal pain, and blockage of gas or stool.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Nausea and vomiting may be caused from anesthetic agents or narcotics, delayed gastric emptying, slowed peristalsis, resumption of oral intake too soon after surgery.

a)

False

b)

True

11.

Which key feature does the nurse most likely find when performing a physical assessment on the patient with a small-bowel obstruction?

a)

Minimal or no vomiting.

b)

Metabolic acidosis.

c)

Visible peristaltic waves in the upper and middle abdomen.

d)

No major fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

12.

Crohn’s disease can cause a mechanical obstruction.

a)

False

b)

True

13.

What does nursing care of the patient with intestinal obstruction who reports discomfort in the early diagnostic period consist of?

a)

Administration of opioid analgesics.

b)

Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position.

c)

Providing the patient with fluids.

d)

Offering the patient semi-soft food.

14.

Which intervention apply to patients with fluid volume deficit related to an intestinal obstruction?

a)

Offer ice chips to suck on before surgery.

b)

Provide frequent mouth care with lemon glycerin swabs.

c)

Assess for edema from third spacing.

d)

Offer a small glass of water.

15.

Which observation of the patient with an intestinal obstruction does the nurse report immediately?

a)

Urinary output of 1000 ml in an 8 hour period.

b)

The patient’s request for something to drink.

c)

Abdominal pain changing from colicky to constant discomfort.

d)

The patient who is changing positions frequently.

16.

Which discharge information should a nurse include for a patient recovering from intestinal obstruction caused by fecal impaction?

a)

Limit physical activity during recovery

b)

Provide a written description of a low‑fiber diet

c)

Report abdominal distention, nausea or vomiting, and constipation

d)

Decrease overall fluid intake to prevent diarrhea

17.

During teaching about colostomy care, which statement is correct to include?

a)

The stoma will enlarge within 6 to 8 weeks of surgery

b)

Use a moisturizing soap to cleanse the peristomal skin

c)

Apply the colostomy bag while skin sealant is still damp

d)

An antifungal cream or powder may be used if a fungal rash develops

18.

Which statement about care of a patient with a colostomy is correct?

a)

A healthy stoma should be dry to touch

b)

The stoma should protrude about 5 cm from the abdominal wall

c)

A slight amount of edema is normal in the initial postoperative period

d)

On palpation the stoma should feel firm and noncompressible

19.

The nurse should immediately report all but which sign or symptom related to a colostomy?

a)

Unusual bleeding from the stoma

b)

Mucocutaneous separation at the stoma

c)

Liquid stool immediately postoperatively

d)

Signs of ischemia and necrosis

20.

After colostomy surgery, which intervention should the nurse employ?

a)

Cover the stoma with a dry, sterile dressing

b)

Apply a pouching system as soon as possible

c)

Expect the colostomy to start functioning on day 1

d)

Make a hole in the pouch to let gas escape

21.

Patients with pancreatitis often have Turner’s sign described as a gray‑blue discoloration of the abdomen and periumbilical area.

a)

Only in chronic cases

b)

Cannot be determined

c)

False

d)

True

22.

The pain of acute pancreatitis is often described as intense, boring, and continuous.

a)

Only with gallstones

b)

Depends on meal timing

c)

False

d)

True

23.

Diagnosis of acute pancreatitis typically follows severe abdominal pain in the mid‑epigastric area or left upper quadrant.

a)

Only with back radiation

b)

Only if amylase is normal

c)

False

d)

True

24.

Abdominal pain is the prominent symptom of pancreatitis.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only in mild disease

d)

Only with vomiting present

25.

Anticholinergics are given to increase vagal stimulation, motility, and pancreatic flow.

a)

Only with hypotension

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Only with ileus

26.

Pain management for acute pancreatitis should begin with rapid infusion of opioids using patient‑controlled analgesia (PCA).

a)

Only for chronic pain

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Only after NPO ends

27.

Helping the patient assume a supine position decreases the abdominal pain of pancreatitis.

a)

Only after ambulation

b)

False

c)

Only with antacids

d)

True

28.

Patients in early stages of acute pancreatitis are usually maintained NPO.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with mild pain

d)

Only if intubated

29.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for acute pancreatitis?

a)

Acute pain related to pancreatic inflammation

b)

Risk for infection related to necrotic pancreatic tissue

c)

Nausea related to pancreatic disease

d)

Risk for deficient fluid volume related to abnormal and normal routines

30.

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate in verifying a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Trypsine

b)

Lipase

c)

Alkaline phosphatase

d)

Alanine aminotransferase

31.

The patient with acute pancreatitis is at risk for paralytic (adynamic) ileus. Which action provides the nurse with the best indication of bowel function?

a)

Asking about passing flatus or stool

b)

Auscultation of bowel sounds

c)

Obtaining abdominal CT with contrast

d)

Observing nasogastric drainage contents

32.

Which drug is contraindicated for a patient with paralytic ileus?

a)

Cefuroxime (Zinacef)

b)

Ranitidine (Zantac)

c)

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

d)

Papaverine (Pavabid)

33.

A patient recovering from acute pancreatitis receives diet teaching. Which patient statement shows successful learning?

a)

I will avoid eating chocolate

b)

I am eating tacos for my first meal

c)

I will eat the usual three meals daily

d)

I will limit protein amount in my diet

34.

Complications of pancreatitis such as pancreatic pseudocyst and abscess may necessitate surgical drainage.

a)

False

b)

True

35.

If pancreatitis is caused by biliary tract obstruction, a laparotomy for common bile duct exploration and release of obstruction may be performed.

a)

False

b)

True

36.

Postoperative care: Monitor drainage tubes for patency by assessing for kinks in the tubes.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Postoperative care: Maintain the ordered drain suction pressure and system integrity.

a)

False

b)

True

38.

Postoperative care: Record the output amount from the drain and describe the character of the drainage.

a)

False

b)

True

39.

Postoperative care: Provide meticulous skin care and dressing changes; assess for tissue deterioration.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Collaborate with an enterostomal therapist (ET) for measures to promote skin integrity.

a)

False

b)

True

41.

Peritonitis is caused by contamination of the peritoneal cavity by bacteria or chemicals.

a)

False

b)

True

42.

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal analysis can cause peritonitis.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

White blood cell counts are often decreased with peritonitis.

a)

False

b)

True

44.

Abdominal wall rigidity is a classic finding in patients with peritonitis.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The fluid shift that occurs in peritonitis may result in which of following?

a)

Significant increase in circular volume

b)

Increased bowel motility caused by increased fluid volume

c)

Intracellular fluid moving into the peritoneal cavity

d)

Eventual renal failure and electrolyte imbalance

46.

The source of inflammation in peritonitis rarely comes from

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Internal reproductive organs

c)

Abdominal gunshot wound

d)

The bloodstream

47.

A rare cause of peritonitis is

a)

Perforated peptic ulcer

b)

Appendicitis

c)

Peritoneal dialysis

d)

Bowel perforation secondary to cancer, penetrating wound

48.

Which complication is not due to peritonitis:

a)

Paralytic ileus

b)

Adhesion of small intestine

c)

Abscess formation

d)

Intraabdominal haemorrhage

49.

The respiratory problems that may accompany peritonitis are a result of which factor?

a)

Fluid shifts to thoracic cavity

b)

Decreased pressure against the diaphragm

c)

Associated pain interfering with ventilation

d)

Decreased oxygen demands related to the infectious process

50.

Which nursing intervention is part of nonsurgical management for the patient with peritonitis?

a)

Administer NSAIDs for pain

b)

Monitor weekly weight and intake and output

c)

Insert a nasogastric tube to decompress the stomach

d)

Order a breakfast tray when the patient is hungry

51.

What are the cardinal signs of peritonitis?

a)

Fever and headache

b)

Dizziness and vomiting

c)

Nausea and loss of appetite

d)

Abdominal pain and tenderness

52.

Which character of abdominal pain is not observed in peritonitis

a)

More intense near the site of inflammation

b)

Intermittent

c)

Constant and diffuse

d)

Movement aggravates pain

53.

Which assessment is not priority in diagnostic of peritonitis

a)

CT scan of the abdomen

b)

Abdominal x-ray

c)

Blood cell count

d)

Peritoneal lavage

54.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis preoperatively don’t include

a)

Place the patient on bed rest

b)

Obtain a history and assess the abdomen

c)

Give broad-spectrum antibiotics

d)

Give foods when the patient arrive at hospital

55.

Nursing intervention for the patient with peritonitis postoperatively don’t include

a)

Report any manifestation of sepsis

b)

Assess vital signs

c)

Immobilize the patient on the bed

d)

Monitor the fluid and electrolyte balance

56.

The nurse is instructing the patient about home care after an exploratory laparotomy for peritonitis. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective?

a)

“I will call the health care provider for a temperature greater than 38°C”

b)

“I will stop taking the antibiotics if diarrhea develops”

c)

“It is normal for the incision site to be warm”

d)

“I will resume activity with my bowling league this week for exercise”

57.

The nurse assesses a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Sensory Perception. Which motor and sensory findings are expected below the level of injury?

a)

Independent movement; no sense of pain or touch

b)

Partial motor function; full sense of pain and temperature

c)

No independent movement; full sense of touch or position

d)

No motor function; no sensation to touch, position, and vibration

58.

A patient with a cervical neck injury can spontaneously move the legs when attempting to move in bed but is not using or moving the arms or hands. What is this observation consistent with?

a)

Anterior cord syndrome

b)

Posterior cord syndrome

c)

Central cord syndrome

d)

Brown-Sequard syndrome

59.

A high-speed motor vehicle crash patient with probable cervical spine fracture arrives with altered mental status and flaccid extremities. What is the priority assessment?

a)

Assess respiratory pattern and ensure a patent airway

b)

Assess for loss of motor function and sensation

c)

Check mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale

d)

Observe for intra-abdominal bleeding and hemorrhage

60.

An emergency department nurse monitors a patient with a gunshot wound to the mid-back for spinal shock. What findings should be monitored?

a)

Tachycardia and a change in level of consciousness

b)

Decreased blood pressure, bradycardia, and flaccid paralysis

c)

Decreased respiratory rate and loss of pain and touch

d)

Paralytic ileus and loss of bowel and bladder function

61.

Which neurologic assessment technique tests proprioceptive function?

a)

Touch skin with a safety pin to distinguish sharp or dull

b)

Ask the patient to elevate both arms and extend wrists and fingers

c)

Have the patient close eyes and move toes up or down; patient identifies positions

d)

Have the patient sit with legs dangling; use reflex hammer to test reflexes

62.

A patient with an upper spinal cord injury is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority?

a)

Nausea

b)

Acute Pain, Headache

c)

Impaired Physical Mobility

d)

Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion, Cerebral

63.

Which intervention targets and helps prevent autonomic dysreflexia in a patient with a recent SCI?

a)

Monitor urinary output and check for bladder distention

b)

Keep the patient immobilized with neck and back braces

c)

Keep the room warm and control environmental stimuli

d)

Frequently perform passive ROM exercises

64.

What is a potential adverse outcome of autonomic dysreflexia in a patient with SCI?

a)

Aspiration and pneumonia

b)

Hypertensive crisis

c)

Paralytic ileus

d)

Heat stroke

65.

After an SCI, a patient develops autonomic dysfunction including a neurogenic bladder. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority?

a)

Risk for Urinary Incontinence: urge

b)

Risk for Self-Care Deficit: toileting

c)

Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit: polyuria

d)

Risk for Infection: urinary tract

66.

Turns the patient by pulling on the top of the halo device.

a)

Recommended approach to protect pin sites

b)

Best practice to support cervical alignment

c)

Safe repositioning technique with halo traction

d)

Incorrect method that risks device displacement

67.

Positions the patient with the head and neck in alignment.

a)

Only needed when removing immobilization device

b)

Contraindicated during halo traction repositioning

c)

Appropriate for maintaining spinal precautions

d)

Unnecessary unless pain is reported by patient

68.

Supports the head and neck area during the repositioning.

a)

Done after patient is fully turned onto side

b)

Performed only by physical therapist staff

c)

Not recommended with halo fixator in place

d)

Essential to prevent cervical spine movement

69.

The nurse is caring for several patients with SCIs. Which task is best to delegate to the nursing assistant?

a)

Insert a Foley catheter and report urine characteristics

b)

Check for skin breakdown under immobilization devices

c)

Encourage incentive spirometry and evaluate technique

d)

Log roll the patient and place bedpan for toileting

70.

The patient with an SCI has paraplegia and paraparesis. The nurse assesses both calves for swelling, tenderness, and redness due to increased risk for which condition?

a)

Contractures of joints

b)

Deep vein thrombosis

c)

Bone fractures

d)

Pressure ulcers

71.

A bladder retraining program was initiated for a long-term care patient after SCI with urinary retention and overflow incontinence. Which is an expected outcome of the training program?

a)

Takes bethanechol one hour prior to voiding

b)

Independently performs intermittent catheterization

c)

Demonstrates a predictable voiding pattern

d)

Uses warm water over perineum to stimulate voiding

72.

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve

a)

III

b)

II

c)

VI

d)

IV

73.

A primary brain injury is caused by

a)

An external force

b)

ICP

c)

An internal force

d)

Abnormal brain tissue growth

74.

A 16-year-old football player is confused after being struck in the head. He does not remember much, waking in the hospital two hours after the hit. This client most likely is suffering from

a)

Locked-in syndrome

b)

Severe brain injury

c)

Moderate brain injury

d)

Concussion

75.

The nurse is educating 7-year-old children on preventing brain injury. One of the most important things to tell them is to

a)

Always wear supportive shoes when playing

b)

Look both ways before crossing the street

c)

Always wear knee and arm pads when riding

d)

Always wear a helmet when riding

76.

A client responds only to pain by withdrawing his hand and curses frequently after a fall. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, the nurse rates this patient as a

a)

12

b)

15

c)

4

d)

9

77.

A common medication given to help decrease intracranial pressure is

a)

Mannitol

b)

Lasix

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Aspirin

78.

The most important nursing diagnosis when caring for a client with an open skull fracture is

a)

Risk for impaired skin integrity

b)

Risk for infection

79.

The consensual pupillary response is tested by:

a)

Asking the client if he or she has trouble closing his or her eyes

b)

Evaluating the ability of the client’s eyes to converge

c)

Directing a light toward one eye and observing the pupil on the opposite side

d)

Instructing the client to cover one eye while you observe the opposite eye for extraocular movements

80.

Which factor is most likely to depress nerve cell activity in the patient with a neurologic disorder?

a)

IV infusion of theophylline

b)

Low oxygen saturation and hypoxia

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Drinking too much coffee

81.

Which statement about the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is correct?

a)

It is a thorough neurologic assessment tool.

b)

It establishes a baseline for eye opening and motor and verbal response.

c)

It establishes a baseline cognitive function.

d)

A score of 15 indicates serious neurologic impairment with poor prognosis

82.

The nurse is assessing several patients using the GCS. Which factors indicate the most serious neurologic presentation based on the GCS information?

a)

Eye opening to sound, localizes pain, confused conversation

b)

Eye opening to sound, obeys commands, inappropriate words

c)

Eye opening spontaneous, obeys commands, confused conversation

d)

Eye opening to pain, abnormal flexion, incomprehensible sounds

83.

The nurse performing neurologic checks every 4 hours for the patient who sustained a head injury. Which early sign indicates a decline in neurologic status?

a)

Loss of remote memory

b)

Decorticate posturing

c)

Change in level of consciousness

d)

Nonreactive, dilated pupil

84.

A nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the emergency department following a head-on motor vehicle crash. The client is unresponsive, has spontaneous respirations of 22/min, and a laceration on his forehead that is bleeding. Which of the following is the priority nursing action at this time?

a)

Insert NG tube.

b)

Keep neck stabilized.

c)

Monitor pulse and blood pressure frequently.

d)

Establish IV access and start fluid replacement.

85.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted from surgery for the evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

a)

Oxygen saturation level

b)

Cranial nerve function

c)

Glasgow Coma Scale