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Natural Science

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In an atom, the charged particles are

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

electrons and neutrons

c)

protons, electrons, and neutrons

d)

protons and electrons

2.

The atomic nucleus is made of

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

protons and electrons

c)

electrons and neutrons

d)

electrons

3.

A sodium (Na) atom has 11 protons. How many electrons does a neutral sodium atom have?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

4.

By definition, 1 atomic mass unit (1 amu) equals

a)

1/16 the mass of an oxygen atom

b)

1/32 the mass of a sulfur atom

c)

1/12 the mass of a carbon atom

d)

1/10 the mass of a boron atom

5.

The nucleus of a fluorine atom has 9 protons and 10 neutrons. Its approximate atomic mass is

a)

9 amu

b)

10 amu

c)

19 amu

d)

28 amu

6.

A chemical element is

a)

a set of atoms that have the same number of protons in the nucleus

b)

a set of atoms that have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus

c)

a set of atoms that have the same number of electrons and neutrons in the nucleus

d)

a set of atoms that have the same mass

7.

Calcium is a chemical element important for bones and teeth. Its chemical symbol is

a)

Mg

b)

Na

c)

Cu

d)

Ca

8.

The correct chemical symbol for Aluminium is

a)

Al

b)

AL

c)

aL

d)

al

9.

From the list Mg, NA, si, Fe, aG, o, K, Ca, how many are correctly written chemical symbols?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

10.

The table shows the counts of protons, neutrons, and electrons for atoms X1–X4. Which atoms belong to the same chemical element?

a)

X1 and X2

b)

X1 and X3

c)

X2 and X3

d)

X2 and X4

11.

In the periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing

a)

atomic mass

b)

decreasing nuclear charge

c)

nuclear charge (atomic number)

d)

decreasing number of electrons

12.

Elements in the same period share the characteristic that they

a)

have the same number of electrons in the atom

b)

have the same number of electron shells in the atom

c)

have the same number of electrons in the outermost shell

d)

have the same numbers of protons and neutrons

13.

The periodic table of elements is composed of

a)

groups and periods

b)

element boxes and periods

c)

element boxes, periods, and groups

d)

element boxes and groups

14.

Elements of group IA are called

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

15.

Elements of group VIIA are called

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

16.

The outer electron configuration of noble gases contains

a)

8 electrons (except He has 2)

b)

10 electrons (except He has 2)

c)

8 electrons (except Ne has 2)

d)

10 electrons (except Ne has 2)

17.

An ionic bond is formed by

a)

the attraction between positive and negative ions

b)

the attraction among positive ions in a molecule

c)

the attraction between negative ions in a molecule

d)

sharing electrons between two atoms

18.

A chlorine atom has 7 electrons in its outer shell. To achieve a noble-gas-like outer shell, how many electrons must the chlorine atom gain?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

19.

Based on the diagram of the covalent bonding in a nitrogen molecule, how many pairs of electrons are shared between two nitrogen atoms?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

20.

Choose the correct statement about the formation of an oxygen molecule (O2)

a)

Each oxygen atom has 5 electrons in its outer shell

b)

Each oxygen atom shares 2 electrons, forming two shared pairs

c)

Each oxygen atom shares electrons to achieve the stable structure of helium

d)

Oxygen is a liquid

21.

When a metal reacts with a nonmetal, the nonmetal atom gains electrons to become a

a)

positive ion

b)

pure substance

c)

noble gas

d)

negative ion

22.

The valency of an element indicates

a)

the mass of the atom

b)

the number of electrons in the outer shell

c)

the ability of the element to bond with other elements

d)

the number of protons in the nucleus

23.

By convention, the valency of hydrogen is

a)

0

b)

I

c)

II

d)

III

24.

Chemical formulas of compounds are written based on

a)

the number of electron shells of an element

b)

the history of element discovery

c)

the valencies of the constituent elements

d)

the mass of the substance

25.

Given Na has valency I and Cl has valency I, the chemical formula of sodium chloride is

a)

Na2Cl

b)

NaCl2

c)

NaCl

d)

Na2Cl2

26.

Given Mg has valency II and O has valency II, the simplest whole-number ratio of Mg : O atoms in the compound is

a)

1 : 2

b)

2 : 1

c)

1 : 1

d)

2 : 2

27.

The term valence is used to

a)

calculate molar mass of a compound

b)

determine the number of protons of elements

c)

write chemical formulas using valencies

d)

write chemical equations

28.

A molecule is

a)

a particle representing a substance, formed by several atoms bonded together and carrying the full properties of the substance

b)

a charged particle of a compound, produced by many elements

c)

a particle of a compound, formed by one element

d)

the smallest particle of elements that bond to form a compound

29.

Choose the best completion of the sentence: “.... is a substance formed from at least two chemical elements.”

a)

Atom

b)

Compound

c)

Chemical element

d)

Molecule

30.

The minimum number of different elements needed to form a compound is

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

31.

Choose the correct statement. An elemental substance (simple substance) is

a)

a metal occurring naturally

b)

a nonmetal made by humans

c)

objects whose names always match the names of chemical elements

d)

a substance made of only one chemical element

32.

Which substance below usually has high melting and boiling points?

a)

water (H2O)

b)

sugar (C12H22O11)

c)

sodium chloride (NaCl)

d)

oxygen gas (O2)

33.

Which of the following commonly exists as a gas (or a liquid) under normal conditions?

a)

CO2

b)

MgO

c)

NaCl

d)

CaF2

34.

Complete the statement about covalent substances: Covalent substances usually exist as molecules; when they dissolve in water, the resulting solution may be

a)

a strong electrolyte or a weak electrolyte

b)

a non-electrolyte or a weak electrolyte

c)

a metal or a nonmetal

d)

a colloid or a suspension

35.

Complete the statement about ionic substances: Under normal conditions, ionic substances are

a)

gases that evaporate easily and melt readily; their aqueous solutions are non-electrolytes

b)

solids that are nonvolatile and have high melting points; their aqueous solutions are electrolytes

c)

liquids that evaporate easily; their aqueous solutions are weak acids

d)

metals that cannot dissolve; their aqueous solutions are nonelectrolytes

36.

Fill in the blanks using appropriate scientific terms: A covalent bond is formed by the (1) ______ of electrons between (2) ______ atoms.

a)

sharing; two

b)

transfer; two

37.

Fill in the blanks using appropriate scientific terms: Monatomic positive and negative ions have electron shells that are (3) ______, similar to those of atoms of (4) ______.

a)

unstable; halogens

b)

complete; noble gases

38.

Fill in the blank: To measure the speed of a short-distance runner, use a measuring tape for distance and a (1) ______ to measure the time.

a)

digital timer

b)

stopwatch

39.

Fill in the blank: In the laboratory, a ruler (for distance) and a digital timer connected to a (2) ______ are often used to measure the speed of small, fast-moving objects.

a)

photo-gate

b)

spring balance

40.

Fill in the blank: When timing with a stopwatch, press the button as the object leaves the (3) ______ and press it again when the object reaches the finish line.

a)

start line

b)

midpoint

41.

A swimmer’s speed is 22 m/s. What does this value tell you about the swimmer’s ability to move?

a)

The swimmer covers 22 meters each second.

b)

The swimmer covers 22 kilometers each minute.

42.

Which units are commonly used to express speed in sports?

a)

m/s

b)

km/h

43.

Select the correct conversion relations between speed units.

a)

v(m/s) = v(km/h) × 518\frac{5}{18}

b)

v(km/h) = v(m/s) × 3.63.6

44.

Convert 5 m/s to km/h.

a)

55 km/h

b)

1818 km/h

c)

5050 km/h

d)

1212 km/h

45.

Convert 72 km/h to m/s.

a)

2020 m/s

b)

2525 m/s

c)

1818 m/s

d)

3030 m/s

46.

Observe the speed-limit chart for vehicles on roads and identify the maximum allowed speed for trucks over 3.5 tons.

a)

6060 km/h

b)

7070 km/h

c)

8080 km/h

d)

5050 km/h

47.

To ensure traffic safety, which actions must road users follow? Select two.

a)

Obey speed limits and traffic signs

b)

Drive in any lane regardless of vehicle type

c)

Keep a safe following distance

d)

Ignore right-of-way rules if in a hurry

48.

Using the speed-limit chart, what is the maximum allowed speed for buses up to 30 seats compared with buses over 30 seats?

a)

Up to 30 seats: 8080 km/h; over 30 seats: 7070 km/h

b)

Up to 30 seats: 7070 km/h; over 30 seats: 8080 km/h

c)

Both are 6060 km/h

d)

Up to 30 seats: 5050 km/h; over 30 seats: 6060 km/h

49.

Why do these bus speed limits differ by seating capacity?

a)

Larger buses have longer stopping distances and are harder to maneuver, so their limits are lower

b)

Smaller buses consume more fuel and must drive slower

c)

Passengers in larger buses prefer slower travel

d)

There is no difference in safety between bus sizes

50.

What is the meaning of the traffic sign showing a car with the text 70 m inside a red circle?

a)

Minimum following distance of 7070 m

b)

Maximum speed 7070 km/h

c)

Overtaking prohibited for 7070 m

d)

Parking allowed within 7070 m

51.

Why must drivers keep a safe following distance on the road?

a)

It allows time to react and stop safely if the vehicle ahead slows or stops

b)

It increases fuel consumption intentionally

c)

It helps violate speed limits without being noticed

d)

It reduces visibility of road signs

52.

When participating in traffic, what must drivers do to ensure safety for themselves and others? Select two.

a)

Follow traffic signals and regulations

b)

Use mobile phones while driving to stay informed

c)

Wear appropriate safety gear and keep vehicles in good condition

d)

Ignore lane markings if the road is empty

53.

Based on the lane-use and speed-limit signs shown, which lane may motorcyclists use, and what is their maximum speed?

a)

Rightmost lane; 5050 km/h

b)

Leftmost lane; 6060 km/h

c)

Any lane; 6060 km/h

d)

Middle lane; 5050 km/h

54.

What is the unit of frequency for sound waves?

a)

hertz (Hz)

b)

seconds (s)

c)

meters (m)

d)

decibels (dB)

55.

From the first sound-wave graph (time axis 0 to 0.04 s), determine the amplitude and frequency.

a)

Amplitude 66 cm; frequency 5050 Hz

b)

Amplitude 44 cm; frequency 2525 Hz

c)

Amplitude 88 cm; frequency 1010 Hz

d)

Amplitude 22 cm; frequency 100100 Hz

56.

How are amplitude and loudness of a sound related?

a)

Greater amplitude corresponds to louder sound

b)

Amplitude determines pitch only

c)

Smaller amplitude makes sound louder

d)

Amplitude has no relation to loudness

57.

From the second sound-wave graph (time axis 0.02 to 0.08 s), determine the amplitude and frequency.

a)

Amplitude 44 cm; frequency 2525 Hz

b)

Amplitude 66 cm; frequency 5050 Hz

c)

Amplitude 22 cm; frequency 1010 Hz

d)

Amplitude 88 cm; frequency 100100 Hz

58.

From the dual-wave graph labeled (1) and (2), what are the amplitudes of the two sounds, and which is louder?

a)

(1) 33 cm, (2) 22 cm; sound (1) is louder

b)

(1) 22 cm, (2) 33 cm; sound (2) is louder

c)

Both 33 cm; equal loudness

d)

Both 22 cm; equal loudness

59.

Using the oscillogram in Figure 1 (time axis to 0.010 s), determine the amplitude of the sound.

a)

0.80.8 units

b)

0.20.2 units

c)

1.51.5 units

d)

0.050.05 units

60.

Using the oscillogram in Figure 1, determine the frequency of the sound.

a)

500500 Hz

b)

5050 Hz

c)

100100 Hz

d)

10001000 Hz

61.

Refer to the waveform labeled Hình 2 showing amplitude versus time from 0 s to 0.010 s with a sinusoidal sound wave. Identify the amplitude of the sound wave.

a)

0.5 units

b)

0.8 units

c)

1.0 units

d)

0.3 units

62.

Refer to the waveform labeled Hình 2 showing one full cycle over a 0.010 s interval. Identify the frequency of the sound wave.

a)

50 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

200 Hz

d)

440 Hz

63.

Based on the oscillograms labeled Hình 3a and Hình 3b, which sound is louder (greater amplitude)?

a)

The sound in Hình 3a

b)

The sound in Hình 3b

c)

They have the same loudness

64.

Based on the oscillograms labeled Hình 3a and Hình 3b, which sound has the higher pitch (greater frequency)?

a)

The sound in Hình 3a

b)

The sound in Hình 3b

c)

They have the same pitch

65.

A sequence changes from a 440 Hz tone to an 880 Hz tone while keeping amplitude constant (see Hình 4 illustrating a 440 Hz wave). What is perceived about loudness and pitch?

a)

Loudness stays the same and pitch becomes higher

b)

Loudness increases and pitch stays the same

c)

Loudness decreases and pitch becomes higher

d)

Both loudness and pitch stay the same

66.

Two sounds have frequencies 392 Hz and 440 Hz. They are named note G4 (392 Hz) and note A4 (440 Hz). Which statement correctly matches each note to its frequency?

a)

G4 is 392 Hz and A4 is 440 Hz

b)

G4 is 440 Hz and A4 is 392 Hz

c)

Both G4 and A4 are 440 Hz

d)

G4 is 392 Hz and A4 is 392 Hz

67.

How many oscillations occur in 5 seconds for the 440 Hz tone (note A4) shown in Hình 4?

a)

1 100 oscillations

b)

2 200 oscillations

c)

440 oscillations

d)

880 oscillations

68.

Select the statements that correctly describe sound reflection properties of materials.

a)

Hard, smooth surfaces reflect sound well (example: concrete walls)

b)

Soft, porous materials absorb sound and reflect poorly (example: thick curtains)

c)

Irregular, rough surfaces increase echo strength compared with smooth ones

d)

Glass windows are good sound reflectors compared with carpets

69.

As an architect designing a venue to make voices less noisy and clearer, which material choices and features are most appropriate?

a)

Install acoustic panels and use carpets and heavy curtains to absorb sound

b)

Cover large areas with smooth concrete and glass to maximize reflections

c)

Add ceiling baffles and wall treatments to reduce reverberation

d)

Use bare hard floors and minimal furnishings to keep the room echoey

70.

A nearby household frequently runs loud karaoke affecting neighbors. Which measures help reduce this noise pollution?

a)

Suggest using lower volume limits and reasonable hours

b)

Add door seals, thick curtains, and rugs to improve soundproofing

c)

Install double-glazed windows or acoustic panels facing the noisy side

d)

Keep doors and windows open to ventilate during karaoke sessions

71.

To determine sea depth, a ship at the surface emits ultrasound and receives its echo after 3.7 s. The speed of sound in seawater is 1500 m/s1500\text{ m/s} . What is the depth below the ship?

a)

555 m555\text{ m}

b)

1 110 m1\,110\text{ m}

c)

2 775 m2\,775\text{ m}

d)

3 000 m3\,000\text{ m}

72.

A person shouts toward a cliff and hears the echo of their shout after 1.5 s1.5\text{ s} . The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s343\text{ m/s} . How far is the person from the cliff?

a)

171.5 m171.5\text{ m}

b)

257 m257\text{ m}

c)

343 m343\text{ m}

d)

515 m515\text{ m}

73.

A warship uses sonar and receives an echo from a nearby submarine after a round-trip time of 3.6 s3.6\text{ s} . The speed of sound in seawater is 1 500 m/s1\,500\text{ m/s} . How far is the submarine from the warship?

a)

1 800 m1\,800\text{ m}

b)

2 250 m2\,250\text{ m}

c)

2 700 m2\,700\text{ m}

d)

3 600 m3\,600\text{ m}

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