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State Board Theory Exam Notes — Worksheet Questions (2025–2026)

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Personal hygiene is defined as the daily maintenance of cleanliness by practicing good healthful habits. Which statement best reflects this definition in the context of a healthy professional?

a)

Maintaining cleanliness through daily healthful habits

b)

Wearing fashionable clothing only at work

c)

Avoiding any contact with clients

d)

Relying on disinfectants instead of washing

2.

Choose clothing for success by selecting attire that is functional, comfortable, and stylish. Which option best follows this guidance for a professional image?

a)

Clothing that is functional, comfortable, and stylish

b)

Clothing that is trendy but impractical

c)

Clothing focused only on company colors

d)

Clothing that prioritizes fashion over comfort

3.

Professional image is the impression you project through both your outward appearance and your conduct in the workplace. Which statement aligns with this description?

a)

It includes appearance and workplace behavior

b)

It is limited to hairstyle and makeup

c)

It refers only to social media presentation

d)

It is defined solely by technical skill

4.

Proper posture guidelines include keeping the neck elongated and balanced above the shoulders, lifting the chest so the upper body is out and up (do not slouch), and holding the shoulders level and relaxed while sitting with a straight back. Which actions exemplify proper posture? Select all that apply.

a)

Neck elongated and balanced above shoulders

b)

Upper body slouched with chest collapsed

c)

Shoulders level and relaxed, back straight when sitting

d)

Shoulders scrunched and uneven

5.

Ergonomics is the science of designing the workplace, its equipment, and tools to make specific body movements more comfortable, efficient, and safe. What is the primary focus of ergonomics?

a)

Designing work to improve comfort, efficiency, and safety

b)

Setting legal penalties for unsafe practices

c)

Training only on chemical handling

d)

Rating fashion choices for professionals

6.

Cleaning is a mechanical process (scrubbing) using soap and water or detergent and water to remove visible dirt, debris, and many disease-causing germs; it also removes invisible debris that interferes with disinfection. Which description best matches cleaning?

a)

Mechanical removal of visible dirt and debris using soap and water

b)

Chemical process to reduce germs to a safe level

c)

Government registration of disinfectants

d)

Sterilization using dry heat only

7.

Sanitizing is a chemical process for reducing the number of disease-causing germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level. Which option defines sanitizing?

a)

Chemical reduction of germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level

b)

Mechanical scrubbing to remove visible soil

c)

Using labels to identify hazards

d)

Complete elimination of all microorganisms

8.

OSHA, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration within the U.S. Department of Labor, regulates and enforces safety and health standards to protect employees in the workplace. Which statement best describes OSHA’s role?

a)

Regulates and enforces workplace safety and health standards

b)

Issues cosmetology licenses

c)

Manufactures disinfectant products

d)

Conducts academic exams

9.

Safety Data Sheets (SDS) include sections for first‑aid measures and for handling and storage. Which SDS section lists precautions for safe handling and storage, including incompatibilities?

a)

Handling and storage

b)

First‑aid measures

c)

Hazard identification

d)

Regulatory information

10.

State regulatory agencies can issue penalties against salons and cosmetologists that vary and include warnings, fines, probation, and suspension or revocation of licenses. What is essential for professionals regarding state laws and rules?

a)

Understand and follow state laws and rules at all times

b)

Ignore updates unless audited

c)

Rely solely on federal agencies

d)

Leave compliance to product manufacturers

11.

EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) requires that disinfectants be registered; look for an EPA registration number on the label. What should you check to confirm a disinfectant is EPA‑registered?

a)

The EPA registration number on the product label

b)

The product color and fragrance

c)

A manufacturer’s marketing claim

d)

A store receipt

12.

Laws are written by federal and state legislatures to determine scope of practice and to establish guidelines for regulatory agencies to make rules; laws are also called statutes. Which option correctly defines laws in this context?

a)

Statutes defining scope of practice and guiding rulemaking

b)

Agency memos that can be ignored

c)

Informal customs among employees

d)

Manufacturer instructions only

13.

Rules establish specific standards of conduct and can be changed or updated frequently; they are written by the regulatory agency or state board to determine how the law must be applied. Which statement describes rules?

a)

Agency‑written standards that detail how laws are applied

b)

Permanent statutes passed by legislatures

c)

Voluntary suggestions with no enforcement

d)

International treaties on trade

14.

Pathogenic bacteria are harmful microorganisms that can cause disease or infection in humans when they invade the body. Which option identifies pathogenic bacteria?

a)

Microorganisms that cause disease when invading the body

b)

Harmless organisms that perform useful functions

c)

Viruses that require host cells to reproduce

d)

Human defense cells in the immune system

15.

Non‑pathogenic bacteria are harmless organisms that may perform useful functions and are safe to come in contact with because they do not cause disease or harm. Which description matches non‑pathogenic bacteria?

a)

Harmless, often useful organisms that do not cause disease

b)

Harmful organisms that cause infection

c)

Viruses that rely on host cells

d)

Parasites living on or inside humans

16.

Bloodborne pathogens can be spread through haircutting, chemical burns, shaving, nipping, clipping, facial treatments, waxing, and tweezing, particularly when the skin is broken. Which activities present a risk of spreading bloodborne pathogens during services? Select all that apply.

a)

Shaving

b)

Clipping

c)

Combing without skin break

d)

Waxing

17.

Cutting living skin is outside the scope of a cosmetologist’s licensed practices; only qualified medical professionals may cut living skin. What is the correct practice regarding trimming or cutting the skin around the nail plate?

a)

Do not trim or cut living skin; refer to medical professionals

b)

Trim the skin if requested by the client

c)

Trim only when using sterile tools

d)

Trim after applying moisturizer

18.

Three types of hepatitis of concern in the salon are hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. Which set lists these types?

a)

Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, hepatitis C

b)

Hepatitis D, hepatitis E, hepatitis F

c)

Hepatitis A, hepatitis D, hepatitis E

d)

Hepatitis B, influenza, norovirus

19.

Hepatitis B is the most difficult to kill on a surface; check disinfectant labels to ensure effectiveness against it. Which virus is noted as most difficult to kill on surfaces in this context?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

Influenza A

20.

HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) and HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) are highly contagious and can be transmitted directly and indirectly; they can spread through skin‑to‑skin contact and indirectly via items like a wax pot. Which statements are accurate for both HPV and HSV? Select all that apply.

a)

Transmission can be direct and indirect

b)

Spread through skin‑to‑skin contact

c)

Only sexually transmitted with no other routes

d)

Can spread indirectly via shared items like a wax pot

21.

Bacteria are one‑celled microorganisms that have both plant and animal characteristics. Which definition best matches bacteria?

a)

One‑celled microorganisms with plant and animal characteristics

b)

Multi‑cellular parasites

c)

Viruses lacking cellular structure

d)

Human epithelial cells

22.

Staphylococci grow in clusters like bunches of grapes and can cause abscesses, pustules, and boils; MRSA is highly resistant and highly contagious. How do staphylococci typically grow?

a)

In clusters like bunches of grapes

b)

In pairs as spherical cells

c)

In curved lines resembling beads

d)

As spiral or corkscrew shapes

23.

Bacilli are short, rod‑shaped bacteria and are common producers of diseases such as tetanus, typhoid fever, tuberculosis, and diphtheria. Which form describes bacilli?

a)

Short, rod‑shaped bacteria

b)

Spherical pairs of cells

c)

Curved bead‑like chains

d)

Spiral or corkscrew‑shaped

24.

Spirilla are spiral or corkscrew‑shaped bacteria that cause diseases such as syphilis and Lyme disease. Which description identifies spirilla?

a)

Spiral or corkscrew‑shaped bacteria

b)

Rod‑shaped bacteria

c)

Spherical pairs

d)

Clusters of grape‑like cells

25.

A contagious (communicable) disease spreads from one person to another. Which option defines a contagious disease?

a)

A disease that spreads from person to person

b)

A condition caused only by genetic factors

c)

A non‑infectious injury

d)

A disease limited to animals

26.

Pus is a fluid containing white blood cells, bacteria, and dead cells; it is a byproduct of the infectious process. Which description identifies pus?

a)

Fluid of white blood cells, bacteria, and dead cells from infection

b)

Clear plasma produced by healthy tissue

c)

Pure bacterial colonies with no cells

d)

Sterile saline used in cleaning

27.

One difference between viruses and bacteria is that a virus can live and reproduce only by taking over other cells and becoming part of them, while bacteria can live and reproduce on their own. Which statement correctly contrasts viruses and bacteria?

a)

Viruses require host cells; bacteria can reproduce independently

b)

Both viruses and bacteria reproduce independently

c)

Bacteria require host cells; viruses reproduce independently

d)

Neither requires living cells to reproduce

28.

Fungi are single‑celled organisms that grow in irregular masses including molds, mildews, and yeasts. Which description defines fungi here?

a)

Single‑celled organisms growing in irregular masses such as molds, mildews, and yeasts

b)

Rod‑shaped bacteria causing tetanus

c)

Viruses that require host cells

d)

Parasites living only on animals

29.

Tinea is the technical term for ringworm and is characterized by itching, scales, and sometimes painful circular lesions. What is the technical term for ringworm?

a)

Tinea

b)

Folliculitis

c)

Pediculosis

d)

Scabies

30.

Folliculitis barbae is an inflammation of hair follicles caused by a bacterial infection. Which condition matches this description?

a)

Folliculitis barbae

b)

Tinea pedis

c)

Tinea capitis

d)

HSV infection

31.

Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp characterized by red papules or spots at the opening of hair follicles. Which condition is described?

a)

Tinea capitis

b)

Tinea pedis

c)

Folliculitis barbae

d)

Pediculosis capitis

32.

Tinea pedis is a ringworm fungus of the foot. Which condition corresponds to tinea pedis?

a)

Ringworm fungus of the foot

b)

Inflammation of hair follicles

c)

Scalp infection with papules

d)

Itch‑mite infestation

33.

Parasites are organisms that grow, feed, and shelter on or inside another organism while contributing nothing to the survival of that organism; they can live on or inside humans and animals. Which option defines parasites?

a)

Organisms living on or in a host while contributing nothing to the host’s survival

b)

Free‑living beneficial bacteria

c)

Non‑living chemical agents

d)

Human immune cells

34.

Head lice are also called pediculosis capitis. What is another name for head lice?

a)

Pediculosis capitis

b)

Tinea capitis

c)

Folliculitis barbae

d)

Scabies

35.

Scabies is a contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite, which burrows under the skin. Which description identifies scabies?

a)

Contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite burrowing under the skin

b)

Bacterial inflammation of follicles

c)

Viral infection spread only by contact

d)

Allergic rash from cosmetics

36.

In nail anatomy, the nail plate is the hardened keratin plate that sits on and covers the nail bed and is the most visible and functional part of the nail unit. Which term best matches this description?

a)

Free edge

b)

Nail plate

c)

Matrix

d)

Nail groove

37.

Which part of the nail plate extends over the tip of the finger or toe?

a)

Free edge

b)

Sidewall

c)

Hyponychium

d)

Lunula

38.

Which term refers to the living skin at the base of the natural nail plate covering the matrix area?

a)

Hyponychium

b)

Perionychium

c)

Eponychium

d)

Sidewall

39.

Which term refers to the living skin bordering the root and sides of a fingernail or toenail?

a)

Perionychium

b)

Hyponychium

c)

Nail groove

d)

Cortex

40.

Which slightly thickened layer of skin lies between the fingertip and the free edge of the nail plate?

a)

Eponychium

b)

Hyponychium

c)

Sidewall

d)

Proximal nail fold

41.

Furrows that form around the nail plate on each side of the nail are known as what?

a)

Nail grooves

b)

Sidewalls

c)

Nail folds

d)

Matrix

42.

In the normal adult, what is the average rate of nail growth per month?

a)

About 1/20th of an inch (1.25 mm)

b)

About 1/10th to 1/8th of an inch (2.5 mm to 3 mm)

c)

About 1/4th of an inch (6 mm)

d)

About 1/2 inch (12 mm)

43.

Ordinarily, how long does replacement of a natural fingernail take?

a)

One to two months

b)

About four to six months

c)

About eight to ten months

d)

More than one year

44.

Visible depressions running across the width of the natural nail plate that may result from major illness, adverse drug reaction, surgery, or high fever are called what?

a)

Eggshell nails

b)

Beau’s lines

c)

Splinter hemorrhage

d)

Onychorrhexis

45.

A dark purplish spot under the nail plate caused by a blood clot due to small injuries to the nail bed is best described as what?

a)

Bruised nail bed

b)

Melanonychia

c)

Onychophagy

d)

Plicatured nail

46.

Noticeably thin, white nail plates that are more flexible than normal, often weaker and curving over the free edge, are called what?

a)

Eggshell nails

b)

Hangnails

c)

Onychorrhexis

d)

Onychophagy

47.

A condition in which the living tissue surrounding the nail plate splits or tears is known as what?

a)

Hangnail (agnail)

b)

Splinter hemorrhage

c)

Onychia

d)

Onychomadesis

48.

Darkening of the fingernails or toenails that may appear as a black band within the nail plate from the base to the free edge is called what?

a)

Melanonychia

b)

Onychophagy

c)

Onychorrhexis

d)

Tinea pedis

49.

Which term is also known as bitten nails?

a)

Onychorrhexis

b)

Onychophagy

c)

Onychia

d)

Onychomycosis

50.

Which term refers to split or brittle nails?

a)

Onychophagy

b)

Onychorrhexis

c)

Onychomadesis

d)

Onychauxis

51.

A highly curved nail usually caused by injury to the matrix, also known as a folded nail, is called what?

a)

Plicatured nail

b)

Eggshell nail

c)

Hangnail

d)

Onychogryphosis

52.

A bacterial infection on the nail plate typically progresses from a yellow‑green spot and then does what?

a)

Fades to white

b)

Turns bright red

c)

Gets darker in color

d)

Disappears immediately

53.

For reusable nail implements, what is the recommended practice regarding the disinfection solution?

a)

Change weekly

b)

Change after each client

c)

Always change daily

d)

Never change unless contaminated

54.

Which gloves are most often used by cosmetologists when working with harsh cleaning solutions?

a)

Latex gloves

b)

Cotton gloves

c)

Nitrile gloves

d)

Vinyl gloves

55.

Thickening of nails that may require more frequent manicures is referred to as what?

a)

Onychogryphosis

b)

Onychauxis

c)

Onychosis

d)

Onychia

56.

An enlargement of the fingernails or toenails accompanied by increased thickening and curvature, also known as ram’s horn or claw nails, is called what?

a)

Onychogryphosis

b)

Onychauxis

c)

Onychomadesis

d)

Onychorrhexis

57.

Any deformity or disease of the natural nails is referred to by which term?

a)

Onychia

b)

Onychosis

c)

Onychomycosis

d)

Tinea pedis

58.

Inflammation of the nail matrix followed by shedding of the natural nail is called what?

a)

Onychia

b)

Onychomycosis

c)

Onychosis

d)

Onychophagy

59.

Fungal infection of the natural nail plate is referred to as what?

a)

Onychomycosis

b)

Melanonychia

c)

Splinter hemorrhage

d)

Onychauxis

60.

Athlete’s foot, a red, itchy rash on the bottom of the feet and/or between the toes, usually found between the fourth and fifth toe, is medically known as what?

a)

Onychomadesis

b)

Onychogryphosis

c)

Tinea pedis

d)

Onychorrhexis

61.

Before beginning any nail service, a hand and nail analysis should be performed to identify disease, disorders, and signs of infection such as pain, redness, swelling, throbbing, and pus. What is the main purpose of this analysis?

a)

To choose nail polish colors

b)

To determine needed services and whether a service should be performed

c)

To speed up appointment time

d)

To avoid using gloves

62.

Lifting of the nail plate from the nail bed without shedding, often due to physical injury, trauma, or allergic reaction of the nail bed, is called what?

a)

Onychomadesis

b)

Onycholysis

c)

Onychia

d)

Onychogryphosis

63.

The separation and falling off of a nail plate from the nail bed affecting fingernails and toenails is called what?

a)

Onycholysis

b)

Onychia

c)

Onychomadesis

d)

Onychauxis

64.

Which field is the scientific study of hair and its diseases and care?

a)

Dermatology

b)

Trichology

c)

Cosmetology

d)

Mycology

65.

Which part of the hair projects above the epidermis?

a)

Hair root

b)

Hair shaft

c)

Dermal papilla

d)

Arrector pili muscle

66.

Which tube‑like depression or pocket in the skin or scalp contains the hair root and is distributed all over the body except on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?

a)

Hair follicle

b)

Dermal papilla

c)

Hair cuticle

d)

Cortex

67.

The outermost layer of hair, consisting of a single overlapping layer of transparent, scale‑like cells that look like shingles on a roof, is called what?

a)

Cortex

b)

Hair cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Hair shaft

68.

Which middle layer of the hair is a fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells containing melanin pigment?

a)

Cuticle

b)

Medulla

c)

Cortex

d)

Dermal papilla

69.

Which small, involuntary muscle located in the base of the hair follicle is responsible for goosebumps?

a)

Arrector pili muscle

b)

Dermal papilla

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Hair bulb

70.

Which set lists the five elements that make up human hair, skin, tissue, and nails?

a)

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur

b)

Calcium, sodium, potassium, magnesium, iron

c)

Carbon, calcium, hydrogen, nitrogen, chlorine

d)

Oxygen, phosphorus, sulfur, calcium, sodium

71.

Which weak, physical, cross‑link side bond in hair is easily broken by water or heat?

a)

Disulfide bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Ionic bond

72.

Hydroxide chemical hair relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to lanthionine bonds when the relaxer is rinsed from the hair. What is true of disulfide bonds treated by hydroxide relaxers?

a)

They can be reformed with neutralizers

b)

They are temporarily weakened

c)

They are broken permanently and can never be reformed

d)

They convert back to peptide bonds

73.

Which term describes the overall shape of hair strands, such as straight, wavy, curly, and extremely curly?

a)

Hair shaft

b)

Wave pattern

c)

Follicle orientation

d)

Cuticle layering