WorksheetsState Board Theory Exam Notes — Worksheet Questions (2025–2026)
Total questions: 73
Worksheet time: 37mins
Personal hygiene is defined as the daily maintenance of cleanliness by practicing good healthful habits. Which statement best reflects this definition in the context of a healthy professional?
Maintaining cleanliness through daily healthful habits
Wearing fashionable clothing only at work
Avoiding any contact with clients
Relying on disinfectants instead of washing
Choose clothing for success by selecting attire that is functional, comfortable, and stylish. Which option best follows this guidance for a professional image?
Clothing that is functional, comfortable, and stylish
Clothing that is trendy but impractical
Clothing focused only on company colors
Clothing that prioritizes fashion over comfort
Professional image is the impression you project through both your outward appearance and your conduct in the workplace. Which statement aligns with this description?
It includes appearance and workplace behavior
It is limited to hairstyle and makeup
It refers only to social media presentation
It is defined solely by technical skill
Proper posture guidelines include keeping the neck elongated and balanced above the shoulders, lifting the chest so the upper body is out and up (do not slouch), and holding the shoulders level and relaxed while sitting with a straight back. Which actions exemplify proper posture? Select all that apply.
Neck elongated and balanced above shoulders
Upper body slouched with chest collapsed
Shoulders level and relaxed, back straight when sitting
Shoulders scrunched and uneven
Ergonomics is the science of designing the workplace, its equipment, and tools to make specific body movements more comfortable, efficient, and safe. What is the primary focus of ergonomics?
Designing work to improve comfort, efficiency, and safety
Setting legal penalties for unsafe practices
Training only on chemical handling
Rating fashion choices for professionals
Cleaning is a mechanical process (scrubbing) using soap and water or detergent and water to remove visible dirt, debris, and many disease-causing germs; it also removes invisible debris that interferes with disinfection. Which description best matches cleaning?
Mechanical removal of visible dirt and debris using soap and water
Chemical process to reduce germs to a safe level
Government registration of disinfectants
Sterilization using dry heat only
Sanitizing is a chemical process for reducing the number of disease-causing germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level. Which option defines sanitizing?
Chemical reduction of germs on cleaned surfaces to a safe level
Mechanical scrubbing to remove visible soil
Using labels to identify hazards
Complete elimination of all microorganisms
OSHA, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration within the U.S. Department of Labor, regulates and enforces safety and health standards to protect employees in the workplace. Which statement best describes OSHA’s role?
Regulates and enforces workplace safety and health standards
Issues cosmetology licenses
Manufactures disinfectant products
Conducts academic exams
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) include sections for first‑aid measures and for handling and storage. Which SDS section lists precautions for safe handling and storage, including incompatibilities?
Handling and storage
First‑aid measures
Hazard identification
Regulatory information
State regulatory agencies can issue penalties against salons and cosmetologists that vary and include warnings, fines, probation, and suspension or revocation of licenses. What is essential for professionals regarding state laws and rules?
Understand and follow state laws and rules at all times
Ignore updates unless audited
Rely solely on federal agencies
Leave compliance to product manufacturers
EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) requires that disinfectants be registered; look for an EPA registration number on the label. What should you check to confirm a disinfectant is EPA‑registered?
The EPA registration number on the product label
The product color and fragrance
A manufacturer’s marketing claim
A store receipt
Laws are written by federal and state legislatures to determine scope of practice and to establish guidelines for regulatory agencies to make rules; laws are also called statutes. Which option correctly defines laws in this context?
Statutes defining scope of practice and guiding rulemaking
Agency memos that can be ignored
Informal customs among employees
Manufacturer instructions only
Rules establish specific standards of conduct and can be changed or updated frequently; they are written by the regulatory agency or state board to determine how the law must be applied. Which statement describes rules?
Agency‑written standards that detail how laws are applied
Permanent statutes passed by legislatures
Voluntary suggestions with no enforcement
International treaties on trade
Pathogenic bacteria are harmful microorganisms that can cause disease or infection in humans when they invade the body. Which option identifies pathogenic bacteria?
Microorganisms that cause disease when invading the body
Harmless organisms that perform useful functions
Viruses that require host cells to reproduce
Human defense cells in the immune system
Non‑pathogenic bacteria are harmless organisms that may perform useful functions and are safe to come in contact with because they do not cause disease or harm. Which description matches non‑pathogenic bacteria?
Harmless, often useful organisms that do not cause disease
Harmful organisms that cause infection
Viruses that rely on host cells
Parasites living on or inside humans
Bloodborne pathogens can be spread through haircutting, chemical burns, shaving, nipping, clipping, facial treatments, waxing, and tweezing, particularly when the skin is broken. Which activities present a risk of spreading bloodborne pathogens during services? Select all that apply.
Shaving
Clipping
Combing without skin break
Waxing
Cutting living skin is outside the scope of a cosmetologist’s licensed practices; only qualified medical professionals may cut living skin. What is the correct practice regarding trimming or cutting the skin around the nail plate?
Do not trim or cut living skin; refer to medical professionals
Trim the skin if requested by the client
Trim only when using sterile tools
Trim after applying moisturizer
Three types of hepatitis of concern in the salon are hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. Which set lists these types?
Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, hepatitis C
Hepatitis D, hepatitis E, hepatitis F
Hepatitis A, hepatitis D, hepatitis E
Hepatitis B, influenza, norovirus
Hepatitis B is the most difficult to kill on a surface; check disinfectant labels to ensure effectiveness against it. Which virus is noted as most difficult to kill on surfaces in this context?
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis C
Influenza A
HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) and HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) are highly contagious and can be transmitted directly and indirectly; they can spread through skin‑to‑skin contact and indirectly via items like a wax pot. Which statements are accurate for both HPV and HSV? Select all that apply.
Transmission can be direct and indirect
Spread through skin‑to‑skin contact
Only sexually transmitted with no other routes
Can spread indirectly via shared items like a wax pot
Bacteria are one‑celled microorganisms that have both plant and animal characteristics. Which definition best matches bacteria?
One‑celled microorganisms with plant and animal characteristics
Multi‑cellular parasites
Viruses lacking cellular structure
Human epithelial cells
Staphylococci grow in clusters like bunches of grapes and can cause abscesses, pustules, and boils; MRSA is highly resistant and highly contagious. How do staphylococci typically grow?
In clusters like bunches of grapes
In pairs as spherical cells
In curved lines resembling beads
As spiral or corkscrew shapes
Bacilli are short, rod‑shaped bacteria and are common producers of diseases such as tetanus, typhoid fever, tuberculosis, and diphtheria. Which form describes bacilli?
Short, rod‑shaped bacteria
Spherical pairs of cells
Curved bead‑like chains
Spiral or corkscrew‑shaped
Spirilla are spiral or corkscrew‑shaped bacteria that cause diseases such as syphilis and Lyme disease. Which description identifies spirilla?
Spiral or corkscrew‑shaped bacteria
Rod‑shaped bacteria
Spherical pairs
Clusters of grape‑like cells
A contagious (communicable) disease spreads from one person to another. Which option defines a contagious disease?
A disease that spreads from person to person
A condition caused only by genetic factors
A non‑infectious injury
A disease limited to animals
Pus is a fluid containing white blood cells, bacteria, and dead cells; it is a byproduct of the infectious process. Which description identifies pus?
Fluid of white blood cells, bacteria, and dead cells from infection
Clear plasma produced by healthy tissue
Pure bacterial colonies with no cells
Sterile saline used in cleaning
One difference between viruses and bacteria is that a virus can live and reproduce only by taking over other cells and becoming part of them, while bacteria can live and reproduce on their own. Which statement correctly contrasts viruses and bacteria?
Viruses require host cells; bacteria can reproduce independently
Both viruses and bacteria reproduce independently
Bacteria require host cells; viruses reproduce independently
Neither requires living cells to reproduce
Fungi are single‑celled organisms that grow in irregular masses including molds, mildews, and yeasts. Which description defines fungi here?
Single‑celled organisms growing in irregular masses such as molds, mildews, and yeasts
Rod‑shaped bacteria causing tetanus
Viruses that require host cells
Parasites living only on animals
Tinea is the technical term for ringworm and is characterized by itching, scales, and sometimes painful circular lesions. What is the technical term for ringworm?
Tinea
Folliculitis
Pediculosis
Scabies
Folliculitis barbae is an inflammation of hair follicles caused by a bacterial infection. Which condition matches this description?
Folliculitis barbae
Tinea pedis
Tinea capitis
HSV infection
Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp characterized by red papules or spots at the opening of hair follicles. Which condition is described?
Tinea capitis
Tinea pedis
Folliculitis barbae
Pediculosis capitis
Tinea pedis is a ringworm fungus of the foot. Which condition corresponds to tinea pedis?
Ringworm fungus of the foot
Inflammation of hair follicles
Scalp infection with papules
Itch‑mite infestation
Parasites are organisms that grow, feed, and shelter on or inside another organism while contributing nothing to the survival of that organism; they can live on or inside humans and animals. Which option defines parasites?
Organisms living on or in a host while contributing nothing to the host’s survival
Free‑living beneficial bacteria
Non‑living chemical agents
Human immune cells
Head lice are also called pediculosis capitis. What is another name for head lice?
Pediculosis capitis
Tinea capitis
Folliculitis barbae
Scabies
Scabies is a contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite, which burrows under the skin. Which description identifies scabies?
Contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite burrowing under the skin
Bacterial inflammation of follicles
Viral infection spread only by contact
Allergic rash from cosmetics
In nail anatomy, the nail plate is the hardened keratin plate that sits on and covers the nail bed and is the most visible and functional part of the nail unit. Which term best matches this description?
Free edge
Nail plate
Matrix
Nail groove
Which part of the nail plate extends over the tip of the finger or toe?
Free edge
Sidewall
Hyponychium
Lunula
Which term refers to the living skin at the base of the natural nail plate covering the matrix area?
Hyponychium
Perionychium
Eponychium
Sidewall
Which term refers to the living skin bordering the root and sides of a fingernail or toenail?
Perionychium
Hyponychium
Nail groove
Cortex
Which slightly thickened layer of skin lies between the fingertip and the free edge of the nail plate?
Eponychium
Hyponychium
Sidewall
Proximal nail fold
Furrows that form around the nail plate on each side of the nail are known as what?
Nail grooves
Sidewalls
Nail folds
Matrix
In the normal adult, what is the average rate of nail growth per month?
About 1/20th of an inch (1.25 mm)
About 1/10th to 1/8th of an inch (2.5 mm to 3 mm)
About 1/4th of an inch (6 mm)
About 1/2 inch (12 mm)
Ordinarily, how long does replacement of a natural fingernail take?
One to two months
About four to six months
About eight to ten months
More than one year
Visible depressions running across the width of the natural nail plate that may result from major illness, adverse drug reaction, surgery, or high fever are called what?
Eggshell nails
Beau’s lines
Splinter hemorrhage
Onychorrhexis
A dark purplish spot under the nail plate caused by a blood clot due to small injuries to the nail bed is best described as what?
Bruised nail bed
Melanonychia
Onychophagy
Plicatured nail
Noticeably thin, white nail plates that are more flexible than normal, often weaker and curving over the free edge, are called what?
Eggshell nails
Hangnails
Onychorrhexis
Onychophagy
A condition in which the living tissue surrounding the nail plate splits or tears is known as what?
Hangnail (agnail)
Splinter hemorrhage
Onychia
Onychomadesis
Darkening of the fingernails or toenails that may appear as a black band within the nail plate from the base to the free edge is called what?
Melanonychia
Onychophagy
Onychorrhexis
Tinea pedis
Which term is also known as bitten nails?
Onychorrhexis
Onychophagy
Onychia
Onychomycosis
Which term refers to split or brittle nails?
Onychophagy
Onychorrhexis
Onychomadesis
Onychauxis
A highly curved nail usually caused by injury to the matrix, also known as a folded nail, is called what?
Plicatured nail
Eggshell nail
Hangnail
Onychogryphosis
A bacterial infection on the nail plate typically progresses from a yellow‑green spot and then does what?
Fades to white
Turns bright red
Gets darker in color
Disappears immediately
For reusable nail implements, what is the recommended practice regarding the disinfection solution?
Change weekly
Change after each client
Always change daily
Never change unless contaminated
Which gloves are most often used by cosmetologists when working with harsh cleaning solutions?
Latex gloves
Cotton gloves
Nitrile gloves
Vinyl gloves
Thickening of nails that may require more frequent manicures is referred to as what?
Onychogryphosis
Onychauxis
Onychosis
Onychia
An enlargement of the fingernails or toenails accompanied by increased thickening and curvature, also known as ram’s horn or claw nails, is called what?
Onychogryphosis
Onychauxis
Onychomadesis
Onychorrhexis
Any deformity or disease of the natural nails is referred to by which term?
Onychia
Onychosis
Onychomycosis
Tinea pedis
Inflammation of the nail matrix followed by shedding of the natural nail is called what?
Onychia
Onychomycosis
Onychosis
Onychophagy
Fungal infection of the natural nail plate is referred to as what?
Onychomycosis
Melanonychia
Splinter hemorrhage
Onychauxis
Athlete’s foot, a red, itchy rash on the bottom of the feet and/or between the toes, usually found between the fourth and fifth toe, is medically known as what?
Onychomadesis
Onychogryphosis
Tinea pedis
Onychorrhexis
Before beginning any nail service, a hand and nail analysis should be performed to identify disease, disorders, and signs of infection such as pain, redness, swelling, throbbing, and pus. What is the main purpose of this analysis?
To choose nail polish colors
To determine needed services and whether a service should be performed
To speed up appointment time
To avoid using gloves
Lifting of the nail plate from the nail bed without shedding, often due to physical injury, trauma, or allergic reaction of the nail bed, is called what?
Onychomadesis
Onycholysis
Onychia
Onychogryphosis
The separation and falling off of a nail plate from the nail bed affecting fingernails and toenails is called what?
Onycholysis
Onychia
Onychomadesis
Onychauxis
Which field is the scientific study of hair and its diseases and care?
Dermatology
Trichology
Cosmetology
Mycology
Which part of the hair projects above the epidermis?
Hair root
Hair shaft
Dermal papilla
Arrector pili muscle
Which tube‑like depression or pocket in the skin or scalp contains the hair root and is distributed all over the body except on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?
Hair follicle
Dermal papilla
Hair cuticle
Cortex
The outermost layer of hair, consisting of a single overlapping layer of transparent, scale‑like cells that look like shingles on a roof, is called what?
Cortex
Hair cuticle
Medulla
Hair shaft
Which middle layer of the hair is a fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells containing melanin pigment?
Cuticle
Medulla
Cortex
Dermal papilla
Which small, involuntary muscle located in the base of the hair follicle is responsible for goosebumps?
Arrector pili muscle
Dermal papilla
Sebaceous gland
Hair bulb
Which set lists the five elements that make up human hair, skin, tissue, and nails?
Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
Calcium, sodium, potassium, magnesium, iron
Carbon, calcium, hydrogen, nitrogen, chlorine
Oxygen, phosphorus, sulfur, calcium, sodium
Which weak, physical, cross‑link side bond in hair is easily broken by water or heat?
Disulfide bond
Hydrogen bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Hydroxide chemical hair relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to lanthionine bonds when the relaxer is rinsed from the hair. What is true of disulfide bonds treated by hydroxide relaxers?
They can be reformed with neutralizers
They are temporarily weakened
They are broken permanently and can never be reformed
They convert back to peptide bonds
Which term describes the overall shape of hair strands, such as straight, wavy, curly, and extremely curly?
Hair shaft
Wave pattern
Follicle orientation
Cuticle layering
