wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

N/V and Complex N/V

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following agents is OTC-approved for the prevention of motion-related nausea and vomiting?

a)

Scopolamine transdermal patch

b)

Promethazine

c)

Meclizine

d)

Tradipitant

2.

Which OTC antihistamine is described as less sedating and longer-acting than dimenhydrinate?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Doxylamine

c)

Meclizine

d)

Cetirizine

3.

Which of the following is NOT effective for treating motion sickness–related nausea?

a)

Dimenhydrinate

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Meclizine

d)

Loratadine

4.

Which patient should NOT be managed with OTC antiemetics?

a)

Adult with mild nausea after overeating

b)

Adult with nausea and dark urine and yellow sclera

c)

Adult with motion sickness during travel

d)

Adult with nausea relieved by crackers

5.

Which OTC product contains phosphorated carbohydrates and works by direct local action on the GI tract?

a)

Pepto-Bismol

b)

Emetrol

c)

Sea-Band

d)

Meclizine

6.

Which patient should avoid phosphorated carbohydrate solutions such as Emetrol without physician advice?

a)

Patient with GERD

b)

Patient with uncontrolled diabetes

c)

Patient with motion sickness

d)

Patient with mild indigestion

7.

Which statement regarding bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) is correct?

a)

Approved for children under 12

b)

Safe during pregnancy

c)

Can cause black tongue and stool

d)

Contains calcium carbonate

8.

Which agent is a transdermal prescription medication effective for prolonged motion exposure?

a)

Dimenhydrinate

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Meclizine

d)

Diphenhydramine

9.

Which population is at highest risk for scopolamine-associated hyperthermia?

a)

Adults aged 30–50

b)

Adolescents 12–17

c)

Children <17 and adults >60

d)

Pregnant women

10.

Which is the most appropriate initial recommendation for nausea during pregnancy?

a)

OTC antihistamines

b)

Bismuth subsalicylate

c)

Nonpharmacologic measures

d)

Phosphorated carbohydrate solution

11.

When should OTC antihistamines be taken for motion sickness prevention?

a)

At symptom onset only

b)

Immediately after exposure begins

c)

30–60 minutes before exposure

d)

Only at bedtime before exposure

12.

Which duration of vomiting in adults requires referral, even if symptoms seem mild?

a)

> 12 hours

b)

> 24 hours

c)

> 48 hours

d)

> 72 hours

13.

Which patient should avoid acupressure or nerve-stimulating wristbands?

a)

Patient with GERD

b)

Patient with asthma

c)

Patient with pacemaker

d)

Patient with diabetes

14.

Why are antacids generally poor choices for nausea management?

a)

Delayed onset

b)

Limited efficacy for N/V

c)

Significant CNS effects

d)

Risk of addiction

15.

Which physiologic change commonly occurs before vomiting?

a)

Increased GI motility

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Sweating and pallor

d)

Bronchodilation

16.

Overeating-induced nausea is primarily caused by:

a)

Increased gastric acid secretion

b)

Dopamine receptor stimulation

c)

Distention activating mechanoreceptors

d)

Serotonin release in the vestibular system

17.

Which etiology of nausea does NOT originate from the GI tract or vestibular system?

a)

Viral gastroenteritis

b)

Motion sickness

c)

Anxiety and anticipation

d)

NSAID irritation

18.

An adult with nausea, vomiting, dehydration, and urine ketones should be:

a)

Given OTC antiemetics

b)

Advised oral rehydration

c)

Referred immediately for medical care

d)

Treated with bismuth subsalicylate

19.

Which OTC antiemetic class may be misused for psychiatric effects?

a)

Antacids

b)

Phosphorated carbohydrate solutions

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Oral rehydration solutions

20.

Which activity may reduce motion sickness symptoms?

a)

Sitting in the back seat

b)

Reading during travel

c)

Driving the vehicle

d)

Using a phone screen

21.

Where should Sea-Band pressure be applied?

a)

Over the radial artery

b)

Two fingers above the elbow

c)

Over the P6 (Nei-Kuan) point

d)

On the dorsum of the wrist

22.

Which medication causes nausea and vomiting due to toxic drug levels, requiring referral rather than OTC treatment?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Digoxin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Loperamide

23.

Which condition increases risk when using antihistamine antiemetics?

a)

Seasonal allergies

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

24.

Severe right upper quadrant pain after a fatty meal suggests:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Cholecystitis

c)

IBS

d)

GERD

25.

What is the maximum duration phosphorated carbohydrate solutions (e.g., Emetrol) should be used?

a)

24 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

1 hour

d)

48 hours

26.

Which withdrawal state may cause nausea and vomiting?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Antihistamines

d)

Proton pump inhibitors

27.

Which medication may have increased seizure risk when combined with antihistamine antiemetics?

a)

Metformin

b)

Bupropion

c)

Omeprazole

d)

Warfarin

28.

Concurrent use of antihistamine antiemetics with ipratropium increases risk of:

a)

Hypotension

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Anticholinergic toxicity

d)

Hepatotoxicity

29.

For motion sickness, promethazine should be administered via which routes only?

a)

Oral and IV

b)

Oral and rectal

c)

IM and rectal

d)

IV only

30.

Promethazine is contraindicated in patients with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

GERD

c)

Asthma

d)

Diabetes

31.

Which group of neurotransmitter receptors is involved in nausea and vomiting?

a)

GABA, NMDA, AMPA

b)

Cholinergic, histaminic, dopaminergic, serotonergic, neurokinin

c)

Adrenergic, opioid only

d)

Prostaglandin and leukotriene

32.

Which symptom duration defines chronic nausea and vomiting?

a)

>2 weeks

b)

>3 weeks

c)

>1 month

d)

>6 months

33.

Which condition is classified as an intraperitoneal cause of nausea and vomiting?

a)

Vestibular disorder

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

d)

Anxiety disorder

34.

Complex nausea and vomiting typically requires:

a)

Single-agent therapy

b)

Non-pharmacologic treatment only

c)

Combination therapy using different mechanisms

d)

Avoidance of prescription medications

35.

Which antacid is MOST associated with diarrhea?

a)

Aluminum hydroxide

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Magnesium hydroxide

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

36.

Which medication is MOST useful for motion sickness?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Meclizine

c)

Ondansetron

d)

Metoclopramide

37.

Which adverse effect is associated with phenothiazines?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Renal failure

38.

Which phenothiazine has a BBW for severe tissue injury?

a)

Prochlorperazine

b)

Chlorpromazine

c)

Promethazine

d)

Haloperidol

39.

Which 5-HT3 antagonist dosing is NO LONGER recommended due to QT risk?

a)

Ondansetron 4 mg PO

b)

Ondansetron 8 mg IV

c)

Ondansetron 16 mg IV

d)

Granisetron PO

40.

Which antiemetic requires EKG prior to administration?

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Droperidol

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Dexamethasone

41.

Which medications carry a BBW for increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis?

a)

Ondansetron and metoclopramide

b)

Haloperidol and olanzapine

c)

Dexamethasone and aprepitant

d)

Scopolamine and meclizine

42.

Which condition is metoclopramide MOST useful for?

a)

Motion sickness

b)

GERD only

c)

Diabetic gastroparesis

d)

Vestibular neuritis

43.

What is the maximum recommended duration of metoclopramide therapy?

a)

4 weeks

b)

8 weeks

c)

12 weeks

d)

No limit

44.

A patient with ≥3 PONV risk factors should receive:

a)

Ondansetron alone

b)

Two agents from the same class

c)

3–4 agents from different classes

d)

Rescue therapy only

45.

When should a scopolamine patch be applied for PONV prophylaxis?

a)

End of surgery

b)

During induction

c)

At least 2 hours before surgery

d)

Post-op only

46.

First-line pharmacologic therapy for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy is:

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Promethazine

c)

Pyridoxine ± doxylamine

d)

Metoclopramide

47.

Which finding BEST suggests cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome?

a)

One episode of vomiting daily

b)

Weekly cannabis use

c)

Relief with hot showers

d)

Positive pregnancy test

48.

Administering 10 mEq of potassium chloride is expected to increase serum potassium by approximately:

a)

0.05 mmol/L

b)

0.1 mmol/L

c)

0.5 mmol/L

d)

1.0 mmol/L

49.

Which medication is a common offender for drug-induced nausea?

a)

Metformin

b)

Lubiprostone

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Warfarin

50.

Which medication mainly used in PONV prolongs QT AND increases prolactin levels?

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Amisulpride

c)

Haloperidol

d)

Droperidol

51.

Which antiemetic blocks dopamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and histamine receptors?

a)

Prochlorperazine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Droperidol

52.

Which class is MOST associated with extrapyramidal symptoms?

a)

5-HT3 antagonists

b)

Antacids

c)

Dopamine antagonists

d)

NK-1 antagonists

53.

NK-1 receptor antagonists primarily augments the activity of:

a)

Antihistamines and Antacids

b)

Dopamine antagonists and Phenothiazines

c)

5-HT3 antagonists and corticosteroids

d)

Benzodiazepines and opioids

54.

Which NK-1 antagonist is sometimes administered IV prior to anesthesia for PONV?

a)

Netupitant

b)

Rolapitant

c)

Aprepitant

d)

Fosnetupitant

55.

Cannabinoids are NOT first-line antiemetics due to:

a)

Lack of efficacy

b)

Risk of QT prolongation

c)

Risk of cyclic nausea and vomiting with chronic use

d)

Lack of oral formulations

56.

Which acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with prolonged vomiting?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory acidosis

57.

Which complication of nausea and vomiting can independently worsen QT-related arrhythmia risk?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Hyperglycemia

58.

Which complication may require hospitalization in pregnancy?

a)

Mild nausea

b)

Morning-only vomiting

c)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

d)

Food aversion

59.

Which condition requires avoidance of amisulpride?

a)

Hepatic impairment

b)

Severe renal impairment

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

GERD

60.

Which factor MOST strongly favors use of non-oral antiemetics?

a)

High cost

b)

Mild nausea

c)

Active vomiting

d)

Young age