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Chapter 22 Notes: Spine and Traumatic Brain Injuries

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three main regions of the spine?

a)

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar

b)

Sacral, Coccygeal, Thoracic

c)

Cervical, Sacral, Thoracic

d)

Lumbar, Coccygeal, Thoracic

2.

What is a coup-contrecoup injury?

a)

An injury where the head is stationary

b)

An injury where the head is moving rapidly and hits a stationary object

c)

An injury caused by a fall

d)

An injury caused by a car crash

3.

Fill in the blank: The most common modes of traumatic brain (head) injury are ________, struck by an object, and car crashes.

a)

falls

b)

burns

c)

drowning

d)

electrocution

4.

Which of the following is a telltale sign of a concussion?

a)

Headache

b)

Amnesia

c)

Nausea

d)

Dizziness

5.

Signs and symptoms of concussion may not occur until after several days in head injuries.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following lists three symptoms that may indicate a concussion?

a)

Headache, confusion, dizziness

b)

Fever, rash, cough

c)

Nausea, sore throat, sneezing

d)

Blurred vision, runny nose, chills

7.

Monitoring LOC, change in speech, mentation (A&O), and breathing in patients with head injuries is important because:

a)

It helps detect early signs of neurological deterioration.

b)

It prevents all head injuries from occurring.

c)

It guarantees a full recovery for the patient.

d)

It eliminates the need for further medical evaluation.

8.

The purpose of a neuro assessment in nursing care is to:

a)

evaluate a patient's neurological status and detect changes early

b)

monitor a patient's respiratory function

c)

assess a patient's nutritional needs

d)

measure a patient's blood glucose levels

9.

What is a subdural hematoma?

a)

A) A bleed above the dura mater due to a large artery tear

b)

B) A slow bleed under the dura mater from a small blood vessel rupture

c)

C) Blood in the space that surrounds the brain

d)

D) Collection of blood outside of a blood vessel

10.

Which type of hematoma is caused by a head injury that tears a large meningeal artery and results in rapid bleeding above the dura mater?

a)

Subdural hematoma

b)

Epidural hematoma

c)

Intracerebral hematoma

d)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

11.

Fill in the blank: Signs of an epidural hematoma include ___

a)

nausea & vomiting, periorbital ecchymosis (black eye or raccoon eye), and a battle sign (bruising behind the ear)

b)

gradual onset of headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness

c)

persistent cough, hemoptysis, and night sweats

d)

polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss

12.

What is the recommended position to elevate the head for a patient with intracerebral hematoma to prevent fluid overload?

a)

10-15 degrees

b)

20-30 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

Flat

13.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs when blood leaks into the space that surrounds the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is a contusion in the context of brain injuries?

a)

A) A type of hematoma where blood collects outside of a blood vessel

b)

B) A slow bleed under the dura mater

c)

C) Blood in the space that surrounds the brain

d)

D) A rapid bleed above the dura mater

15.

Fill in the blank: CT scan (Computed Tomography Scan) is our go to test for head injuries or brain. It helps us detect ______ changes and disruptions of blood flow in the brain.

a)

structural

b)

chemical

c)

hormonal

d)

genetic

16.

What is the main precaution to take before undergoing an MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)?

a)

Do not eat before the test

b)

Cannot have any metal on you AT ALL

c)

Must be fasting

d)

No water intake

17.

What is the purpose of an EEG (Electroencephalography) test according to the notes?

a)

To check for heart activity

b)

To rule out seizure disorders, sleeping disorders, and brain tumors

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To check for bone fractures

18.

Skull fractures are categorized by location, appearance, degree of compression, and if they provide direct access to sinuses, the oropharynx, the ear or the skull through a skin wound.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Fill in the blank: Fractures that do not cause bone displacement are left to heal without ______ other than what might be needed for injury to the brain.

a)

treatment

b)

surgery

c)

medication

d)

exercise

20.

What is required to remove bone fragments and prevent further brain injury in the case of skull fractures?

a)

Medication

b)

Surgical intervention

c)

Physical therapy

d)

Rest

21.

Open wound means skin is open and they will need antibiotic and tetanus possibly.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following are outward symptoms of scalp injury? Select all that apply.

a)

Bruising

b)

Swelling

c)

Lacerations

d)

Bleeding

23.

Fill in the blank: The actual damage to the underlying brain tissue is not as easy to identify and needs to be assessed ______.

a)

carefully

b)

quickly

c)

rarely

d)

loudly

24.

Which of the following are symptoms of underlying brain tissue damage? Select all that apply.

a)

Amnesia

b)

Headache

c)

Decreased level of consciousness

d)

Hemiplegia and ipsilateral pupil dilation

25.

What is always the way to get rid of extra fluid according to the notes?

a)

Surgery

b)

Diuretics

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Rest

26.

What does a neuro check include?

a)

Checking a full set of vital signs, assessing LOC, assessing pupil reaction, and performing a motor function test.

b)

Only checking blood pressure and temperature.

c)

Assessing only the patient's speech and memory.

d)

Performing an ECG and checking blood glucose levels.

27.

Brain bleeds require immediate surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following is NOT a part of postoperative care to prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a)

A) Keep neck in midline with HOB at 30 degrees

b)

B) Treat increased body temperature

c)

C) Prevent constipation

d)

D) Ignore changes in neurological status

29.

Late signs of increased ICP include:

a)

Headache

b)

Unequal pupils

c)

No response to pain stimuli

d)

All of the above

30.

Mannitol must be given slowly and must be pumped on a pump, not pushed through an IV.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Why is a Foley catheter used in patients receiving Mannitol for increased ICP?

a)

To monitor the exact output of fluid.

b)

To prevent infection.

c)

To administer medication.

d)

To reduce blood pressure.

32.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for increased ICP?

a)

Supportive care

b)

Osmotic diuretics

c)

Furosemide (Lasix)

d)

Antibiotics

33.

Fill in the blank: Dehydration is a huge no no in the treatment of increased ICP because it can lead to _______.

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperkalemia

34.

Which of the following is a complication of increased ICP?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Diabetes Insipidus

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

35.

Extreme restlessness or excitability following a period of apparent calm should be immediately reported in patients with ICP.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Fill in the blank: Hydrocephalus is treated with a ________.

a)

VP Shunt. Ventricular peritoneal shunt.

b)

Pacemaker.

c)

Dialysis machine.

d)

Defibrillator.

37.

What does the term 'Obtundent' mean?

a)

The patient is very drowsy, difficult to arouse and keep awake

b)

The patient does not respond to stimuli

c)

Unequal size of pupils

d)

Leakage of CSF from nose or ear

38.

Fill in the blank: Stupor requires vigorous and repeated stimuli, however patient lapses back into an ________ state when no stimulation occurs.

a)

unresponsive

b)

alert

c)

excited

d)

responsive

39.

What is the highest score possible on the Four Coma scale for coma patients?

a)

16

b)

12

c)

20

d)

8

40.

Which of the following is NOT a finding to immediately report in patients with ICP?

a)

Deepening stupor and decreasing LOC

b)

Headaches that are unrelenting and increasing in intensity

c)

Persistent projectile vomiting

d)

Mild headache that resolves with rest

41.

Fill in the blank: Injury in the _______ and _______ areas of the spine is more common.

a)

cervical, lumbar

b)

thoracic, sacral

c)

coccygeal, thoracic

d)

sacral, coccygeal

42.

What are the two types of spinal cord injuries?

a)

Complete and incomplete

b)

Acute and chronic

c)

Mild and severe

d)

Internal and external

43.

Incomplete injury: possible that motor function may or may not return after spinal cord swelling has subsided.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

List one common cause of spinal cord injury

a)

Automobile accidents

b)

Allergic reactions

c)

Common cold

d)

Tooth decay

45.

Name one main treatment objective for spinal cord injury.

a)

Save the victim’s life

b)

Increase spinal cord pressure

c)

Delay medical attention

d)

Encourage movement of the injured area

46.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of injuries of the spine?

a)

Spinal shock and neurogenic shock

b)

Muscle spasms

c)

Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia)

d)

Diabetes

47.

Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) may cause which of the following symptoms?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Excessive sweating

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Loss of appetite

48.

What is the most common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) according to the text?

a)

Distention of the bladder

b)

Exposure to loud noises

c)

High altitude

d)

Excessive sunlight

49.

What is the emergency treatment for orthostatic hypotension?

a)

Sit the patient upright with legs dangling over the side of the bed

b)

Elevate the head of the bed

c)

Remove any jewelry

d)

Give nitrites, hydralazine, labetalol or nifedipine

50.

Fill in the blank: One of the first things we do for a patient with orthostatic hypotension is to elevate the ______ of the bed and make sure foley tubing has no kinks.

a)

head

b)

foot

c)

side

d)

end

51.

Orthostatic hypotension is checked while lying, sitting, then standing.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is given subcutaneously to prevent deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Warfarin/Coumadin

b)

Levonox

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Nifedipine

53.

List two complications that can arise from immobility according to the notes.

a)

Pressure ulcers and deep vein thrombosis

b)

Hypertension and diabetes

c)

Asthma and eczema

d)

Appendicitis and tonsillitis

54.

Crutchfield tongs are used to immobilize the cervical spine after which type of injury?

a)

Lower spinal cord injury

b)

Neck or upper spinal cord injury

c)

Arm fracture

d)

Leg fracture

55.

Fill in the blank: Crutchfield tongs help align the cervical vertebrae and relieve pressure on the ______ cord.

a)

spinal

b)

optic

c)

vagus

d)

sciatic

56.

Halo traction vest is used to stabilize and align the cervical spine following a neck fracture, spinal surgery, or spinal instability.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Two risks associated with the use of a halo traction vest are:

a)

Pin site infection and nerve injury

b)

Improved mobility and increased appetite

c)

Enhanced bone healing and reduced pain

d)

Decreased risk of pressure sores and better sleep

58.

Fill in the blank: Preventing back pain and disorders begins with proper ______ and the use of correct lifting techniques.

a)

posture

b)

nutrition

c)

hydration

d)

exercise

59.

What is a common symptom of a lumbar herniated disk?

a)

Pain in the shoulder and neck

b)

Low back pain that radiates to the buttocks and down to below the knee

c)

Headache

d)

Chest pain

60.

Cervical herniated disk typically causes pain in which areas?

a)

Lower back and legs

b)

Shoulder and neck, possibly radiating down the arm

c)

Abdomen

d)

Feet

61.

Name two alternative treatments or therapies for herniated disk mentioned in the passage.

a)

Acupuncture and massage therapy

b)

Chemotherapy and radiation

c)

Insulin and blood transfusion

d)

Antibiotics and antiviral drugs

62.

Which of the following is NOT a surgical procedure for herniated disk?

a)

Discectomy

b)

Spinal fusion

c)

Laminectomy

d)

Appendectomy

63.

Repetitive lifting is the biggest risk factor for putting healthcare workers at risk for ______ and back injury.

a)

back pain

b)

headache

c)

allergies

d)

vision loss

64.

List two nursing management considerations for herniated disk mentioned in the passage.

a)

Preoperative and postoperative management

b)

Nutritional therapy and exercise only

c)

Medication administration and wound dressing only

d)

Patient isolation and strict bed rest