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Pathophysiology Week 1 Day 2 Quiz

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which component of the immune system provides a specific defense against pathogens?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Inflammatory response

c)

Intact skin and mucous membranes

d)

Sensitized T lymphocytes

2.

The inflammatory response is best described as a nonspecific response to:

a)

Phagocytosis of foreign material

b)

Local vasodilation

c)

Any tissue injury

d)

Formation of purulent exudate

3.

Which chemical mediators are released early during inflammation?

a)

Albumin and fibrinogen

b)

Growth factors and enzymes

c)

Neutrophils and macrophages

d)

Histamine and prostaglandins

4.

Granulation tissue is best described as:

a)

Highly vascular and fragile tissue

b)

A permanent replacement for damaged tissue

c)

A type of avascular adhesion

d)

Dense connective tissue resistant to infection

5.

Inflammatory edema develops primarily due to:

a)

Increased interstitial fluid and protein

b)

Increased phagocytes in tissue

c)

Decreased capillary permeability

d)

Generalized vasoconstriction

6.

Redness and warmth at an inflamed site result from:

a)

Increased interstitial fluid

b)

Complement activation

c)

White blood cell accumulation

d)

Increased blood flow

7.

What is the correct sequence of events in the inflammatory response?

a)

Vasodilation → Vasoconstriction → Leukocyte migration

b)

Transient vasoconstriction → Vasodilation → Hyperemia → Increased permeability → Leukocyte migration

c)

Leukocyte migration → Vasodilation → Edema

d)

Increased permeability → Vasodilation → Vasoconstriction

8.

Phagocytosis is defined as:

a)

Fluid shift from capillaries

b)

Fibrin mesh formation

c)

Ingestion of pathogens by leukocytes

d)

Migration of erythrocytes

9.

Which is a systemic effect of inflammation?

a)

Redness

b)

Local swelling

c)

Fatigue and fever

d)

Pain at the injury site

10.

Leukocytosis refers to:

a)

Decreased WBC count

b)

Increased WBC count

c)

Increased immature RBCs

d)

Altered WBC ratios only

11.

Fever occurs primarily due to:

a)

Heat loss mechanisms

b)

Hypothalamic injury

c)

Viral invasion

d)

Pyrogen release

12.

Which mechanism lowers an elevated body temperature?

a)

Cutaneous vasodilation

b)

Shivering

c)

Increased metabolism

d)

Tachycardia

13.

Replacement of damaged tissue with identical functional cells is called:

a)

Fibrosis

b)

Regeneration

c)

Resolution

d)

Repair

14.

Scar tissue is composed mainly of:

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Capillaries

c)

Collagen fibers

d)

Smooth muscle

15.

Which condition promotes rapid wound healing?

a)

Approximated wound edges

b)

Foreign material in wound

c)

Radiation exposure

d)

Vasoconstriction

16.

Glucocorticoids reduce inflammation by:

a)

Increasing prostaglandins

b)

Decreasing capillary permeability

c)

Increasing leukocyte production

d)

Enhancing immune response

17.

Long-term glucocorticoid therapy causes all EXCEPT:

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Muscle wasting

c)

Opportunistic infections

d)

Increased leukocyte production

18.

A burn involving the epidermis and part of the dermis is classified as:

a)

First-degree

b)

Superficial partial-thickness

c)

Deep partial-thickness

d)

Full-thickness

19.

A full-thickness burn typically appears:

a)

Red and blistered

b)

Painful with bleeding

c)

Swollen and erythematous

d)

Dry, firm, and leathery

20.

Hyperemia occurs due to:

a)

Increased blood flow

b)

Increased permeability

c)

Histamine-induced pain

d)

Leukocyte accumulation

21.

Which is a local effect of inflammation?

a)

Fever

b)

Malaise

c)

Anorexia

d)

Swelling

22.

Ice application reduces edema by:

a)

Enhancing lymph drainage

b)

Causing vasoconstriction

c)

Accelerating repair

d)

Causing systemic vasodilation

23.

Neutrophil levels increase primarily to:

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Regulate allergy

c)

Promote phagocytosis

d)

Activate T cells

24.

Which are common causes of inflammation?

a)

Trauma only

b)

Infection only

c)

Allergy only

d)

Trauma, infection, and allergy

25.

Which is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a)

Redness

b)

Swelling

c)

Loss of function

d)

Nausea

26.

Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:

a)

Fever

b)

Malaise

c)

Local swelling

d)

Anorexia

27.

Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytosis?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Basophils

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

T lymphocytes

28.

Which mediator prolongs inflammation?

a)

Bradykinin

b)

Histamine

c)

Leukotrienes

d)

Chemotactic factors

29.

Which statement about wound healing is incorrect?

a)

Resolution occurs with minimal damage

b)

Granulation tissue is permanent

c)

Regeneration requires mitosis

d)

Scar tissue forms when cells cannot divide

30.

Which cell type is increased during allergic responses?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Macrophages

31.

Microbial mutation means that

a)

Genetic information has changed

b)

Pathogens become nonpathogens

c)

The microbe survives but cannot replicate

d)

The immune response is strengthened

32.

The structure of a virus includes

a)

Cell wall and membrane

b)

Metabolic enzymes

c)

Protein coat and DNA or RNA

d)

Slime capsule and cilia

33.

What method do viruses use to replicate?

a)

Binary fission

b)

Budding

c)

Spores

d)

Host cell replication

34.

Which of the following is a characteristic of resident (normal) flora?

a)

Exists everywhere

b)

Differs by body site

c)

Provides no benefit

d)

Includes only bacteria

35.

The term nosocomial infection means

a)

Vector-borne

b)

Hospital-acquired

c)

Fomite

d)

Direct lesion contact

36.

Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes

a)

Countertop

b)

Sexual intercourse

c)

Water

d)

Dust

37.

What does the term carrier mean?

a)

Active infection

b)

Objects

c)

Hand contamination

d)

Asymptomatic host

38.

Opportunistic infection may develop when

a)

Organisms cannot colonize

b)

There is an imbalance in the normal resident flora

c)

Host resistance is increased

d)

Pathogens are ingested with food

39.

The period when a person feels they are coming down with something is the

a)

Subclinical period

b)

Eclipse period

c)

Prodromal period

d)

Presymptomatic period

40.

Universal Precautions are based on

a)

Disinfect always

b)

Avoid lesions

c)

Sterilize all

d)

Assume all fluids are infectious

41.

The incubation period refers to the time between

a)

Entry of the pathogen to the first signs of disease

b)

Prodrome to peak of symptoms

c)

Symptoms of recovery

d)

Acute to chronic stages

42.

What does bacteremia refer to?

a)

Reproducing pathogens

b)

Sepsis

c)

Multiple infections

d)

Microbes present in the blood

43.

Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

a)

Fever

b)

Headache

c)

Pain and swelling

d)

Nausea

44.

Culture and sensitivity tests are used to

a)

Identify the microbe only

b)

Determine the growth medium

c)

Identify the causative microbe and effective antimicrobial

d)

Identify host cells

45.

Leukocytosis frequently indicates

a)

Immunosuppression

b)

Acute bacterial infection

c)

Bone marrow failure

d)

Severe anemia

46.

Primary difference between antiseptic and disinfectant

a)

Living vs nonliving

b)

Antiseptic stronger

c)

Allergy risk

d)

Endospore effect

47.

Neutrophils

a)

Phagocytic

b)

Histamine

c)

Antibodies

d)

Allergy elevated

48.

Which cells process and present antigens?

a)

T-helper

b)

Macrophages

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

49.

Humoral immunity is mediated by

a)

NK cells

b)

T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Neutrophils

50.

A secondary immune response differs because

a)

Faster, stronger

b)

Slower

c)

Same time

d)

Only allergies

51.

Immunity provided by vaccination is

a)

Active natural

b)

Active artificial

c)

Passive natural

d)

Passive artificial

52.

IgE-mediated allergic reactions are

a)

Cytotoxic

b)

Immune complex

c)

Type I

d)

Type IV

53.

Role of memory cells

a)

Antibody secretion

b)

Immediate antibodies

c)

Recognize antigen

d)

Bind complement

54.

Anaphylaxis is caused by

a)

Severe allergy

b)

Type III

c)

Cell-mediated

d)

Immune deposits

55.

An autoimmune disease is

a)

Excess antibodies

b)

Harmless response

c)

Food/drug

d)

Self vs nonself

56.

Incompatible blood transfusions result in

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Type I

c)

Deposits

d)

Deficiency

57.

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by

a)

Allergy

b)

Immune deficiency

c)

T-cell deficiency

d)

Immune complexes

58.

Distinguishing feature of SLE

a)

Multi-organ inflammation

b)

No blood test

c)

Nonprogressive

d)

Chest rash

59.

An HIV-positive diagnosis means

a)

Low T cells

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

AIDS

d)

Virus + antibodies

60.

HIV infection impairs

a)

Humoral

b)

Cell-mediated

c)

Both

d)

Neither

61.

Opportunistic infections are

a)

Opportunistic

b)

Prophylactic

c)

Abnormal

d)

Transient

62.

Serious infections in AIDS include:

a)

TB & PCP

b)

TB & Tetanus

c)

PCP & flu

d)

Flu & tetanus

63.

CD4 helper T cells function by

a)

Cytotoxic

b)

Coordinate immunity

c)

Produce Ig

d)

Inactivate allergens

64.

Which complication is NOT common in AIDS?

a)

Kaposi

b)

Wasting

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Polyarthritis

65.

HIV window period refers to

a)

Virus to symptoms

b)

Virus to antibodies

c)

Virus to CD4 drop

d)

HIV to AIDS

66.

Seroconversion means

a)

Virus found

b)

Antibodies detected

c)

HIV in lymphocytes

d)

Active infection

67.

TRUE statement about HIV-positive patients

a)

No meds needed

b)

Antibodies prevent spread

c)

Antibodies indicate virus

d)

RNA not converted

68.

TRUE statement regarding immunoglobulins

a)

Unique AA sequence

b)

Made in the bone marrow

c)

Mucosal attached

d)

IgA binds allergens

69.

NOT a cause of immunodeficiency

a)

Thymus hypoplasia

b)

Delayed hypersensitivity

c)

Immunosuppressive drugs

d)

Lymph node atrophy

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