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Health Assessment Exam 1 Review Spring 2026

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following scenarios captures the definition of Health?

a)

A person with no current physical diseases but suffers from undiagnosed anxiety and claims their friends are the only support they need but their anxiety prevents them from interacting in career advancements

b)

A person with no current physical diseases or mental health conditions, diagnosed or undiagnosed, but just moved to a new city 500 miles away from their family and is struggling finding a sense of community and belonging

c)

A person with a large and spatially close family who visits regularly and is content in life but has unmanaged type 2 diabetes which is provoked by their families bar-b-que meetings every sunday

d)

A person who just underwent an amputation and is working with physical therapy and prosthetics, whose siblings visit them during lunchtime and is progressively working towards a healthy lifestyle by adhering to their physical therapy schedule and attends monthly group coping sessions

2.

True or False: The purpose of health assessment is solely to determine a person's health status.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which of the following are examples of health beliefs? (Select all that apply)

a)

“I shouldn’t have the slice of pizza because it is high in fat”

b)

“I walked a mile today and will run a mile tomorrow”

c)

“I shouldn’t smoke because it smells bad and makes your teeth yellow”

d)

“I try my best to maintain a diet high in fiber and greens”

4.

The following statement encompasses which dimension of health? Donating to those who are less fortunate brings me good karma and will help me achieve absolution.

a)

Social

b)

emotional

c)

Spiritual

d)

financial

5.

Which of the following are components of the SDOH? (Select all that apply)

a)

neighborhood/built environment

b)

Economic stability

c)

Education

d)

Occupational roles

6.

Which of the following are examples of acute illnesses? (Select all that apply)

a)

A patient who comes into the emergency for tonsillitis, whose mother claims they started having difficulty breathing 30 minutes ago

b)

A patient with nasal congestion that has not gotten better and reports having symptoms that started 2 months ago

c)

A patient who has COPD who requires oxygen via nasal cannula when SPO2 drops below 88

d)

A patient who is attending their yearly endocrinologist appointment and has type one diabetes and explains they have been experiencing frequent lows every night for the past year

7.

Health assessment consists of a comprehensive History and a complete physical exam. True or False

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Taking your patient’s vital signs is considered collecting ______ data, and asking about your patients’ allergies and pain is considered collecting ______ data.

a)

subjective; objective

b)

objective; subjective

c)

objective; objective

d)

subjective; subjective

9.

A patient is being transferred from the emergency department to the med surg unit. As a nurse on the med-surg unit what kind of assessment should you complete?

a)

Focused

b)

Comprehensive

c)

emergency

d)

Mixed

10.

What does ADPIE stand for?

a)

assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation

b)

auscultation, diagnosis, palpation, inspection, evaluation

c)

assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, education

d)

Ambulate, disease, population, intervention, education

11.

You are educating women at a health clinic about the importance of continuing exercise to reduce the risk of osteoporosis. What kind of prevention is this?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

Quaternary

12.

IPPA (in correct order) stands for?

a)

Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

b)

inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation

c)

investigation, pain, percussion, assessment

d)

Intervention, planning, palpating, assessing

13.

When examining a patient you should inspect from ______ to ______

a)

right, left

b)

left, right

c)

Proximal to distal

d)

Posterior to anterior

14.

Which of the following highlights the difference between nursing assessments and medical assessments? (MD vs. RN)

a)

Nursing is focused on treatment of the actual/potential human response

b)

Nursing is focused on the treatment of diseases

c)

Nursing is focused on recognizing disease patterns and diagnosing diseases

d)

Nursing is focused on prescribing medications to alleviate patient responses

15.

A nurse is preparing a health education session on secondary prevention. Which of the following activities is a prime example of secondary prevention?

a)

Eating a balanced diet and exercising regularly

b)

Performing a monthly breast self- examination

c)

Attending a cardiac rehabilitation program after a heart attack

d)

Receiving an annual flu vaccination

16.

Who gets screened for substance/alcohol abuse/misuse? (Select all that apply)

a)

Those with substance use disorders

b)

Pregnant women who have had three previous deliveries

c)

Teenagers who have a history of being on the principles list

d)

Those at risk of turning to substances for an escape

17.

During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient is difficult to wake, requires loud noises or vigorous shaking, and is confused upon arousal. Which level of consciousness should be documented?

a)

Lethargic

b)

Coma

c)

Stupor

d)

Obtunded

18.

When taking the blood pressure the first sound is ______ and the last sound you hear is ______

a)

systolic, diastolic

b)

diastolic, systolic

c)

primary, secondary

d)

Contraction, relaxation

19.

Which of the following is a normal VS reading?

a)

Temp: 99.6 degrees fahrenheit obtained via axillary

b)

BP: 150/99

c)

Pulse: 50 bpm

d)

RR: 33 breaths per minute

20.

Which of the following would result in contributing to rising temperature? (Select all that apply)

a)

Menstrual cycle

b)

Aging

c)

Exercising

d)

Diurnal cycles

21.

A pulse is reported as thready; you, as the expert nurse you are, know this means ______.

a)

This pulse is a 1+ and is regular and considered normal

b)

This pulse is a 2+ and is considered regular and normal

c)

This pulse is a 1+ and disappears upon palpation inconsistently

d)

This pulse is a 3+ and is felt easily with barely any pressure applied

22.

A normal Pulse ox is considered 95% or higher. True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

When noting respirations you should also note its ______ and ______.

a)

Rate and Depth

b)

Rate and Rhythm

c)

Depth and Rhythm

d)

Strength and Depth

24.

You obtain a patient's blood pressure and get 110/76. What is the pulse pressure for this patient?

a)

186 mmHg

b)

34 mmHg

c)

110 mmHg

d)

76 mmHg

25.

Which of the following values is considered hypertensive crisis?

a)

140/120

b)

130/80

c)

110/80

d)

120/90

26.

Which of the following can cause a false high blood pressure? Select all that apply.

a)

A bladder less than 80% of the arm

b)

A cuff bladder that is too large

c)

Cuff is secured too loosely

d)

Pressing the stethoscope too tightly

27.

A patient's pulse is noted to be irregular. What is the correct procedure for measuring the pulse rate?

a)

Estimate the rate based on the overall rhythm

b)

Count for a full minute

c)

Count for 30 seconds and multiply by 2

d)

Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4

28.

A nurse assessing a rash on the flexor surface of the elbow suspects _____.

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Eczema

c)

Tinea corporis

d)

Contact dermatitis

29.

A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned patient for signs of inflammation. Which findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

a)

Visible blanching

b)

Increased warmth

c)

Edema

d)

Hyperpigmentation compared to surrounding skin

30.

A nurse notes a patient has clubbing. This finding is associated with:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Chronic hypoxia

c)

Acute hypoxia

d)

Acute infection

31.

A nurse assessing for central cyanosis should examine which area?

a)

Fingertips

b)

Nail beds

c)

Lips and tongue

d)

Feet

32.

A nurse is assessing an 82-year-old patient for dehydration. Which action is most appropriate when evaluating skin turgor?

a)

Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for tenting

b)

Assess skin turgor over the sternum for the most accurate result

c)

Check for tenting on the forearm because it is less affected by aging

33.

A nurse documents a 4 mm indentation that rebounds in 10 seconds. Which edema grade is appropriate?

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

34.

These primary skin lesions are fluid-filled. Select all that apply.

a)

Nodules

b)

Vesicles

c)

Pustules

d)

Patch

e)

Cysts

35.

This type of secondary skin lesion is characterized by a linear crack in the skin.

a)

Fissure

b)

Erosion

c)

Atrophic scar

d)

Keloid

36.

Urticaria is an example of which lesion pattern of arrangement?

a)

Grouped/clustered

b)

Gyrate

c)

Dermatomal

d)

Confluent

37.

A nurse is teaching a patient about warning signs of melanoma. Which findings should the patient report? Select all that apply.

a)

A mole with irregular, uneven borders

b)

A mole that is symmetrical

c)

A mole larger than 6 mm

d)

A mole with multiple colors

e)

A mole that has changed in size

38.

True or False: The American Cancer Society and American Academy of Dermatology recommend full-body skin assessments for patients over the age of 40 and at high risk for skin cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

A patient presents with a vesicular rash that follows a single nerve root distribution on their torso. The nurse recognizes this dermatomal pattern as a characteristic of which condition?

a)

Tinea corporis (ringworm)

b)

Scabies

c)

Urticaria (hives)

d)

Herpes zoster (shingles)

40.

A patient presents with a skin lesion that is flat, nonpalpable, and greater than 1.0 cm in diameter. How should this primary lesion be described?

a)

Nodule

b)

Macule

c)

Plaque

d)

Patch

41.

A patient is found to have tiny, pinpoint, non-blanching red spots on their chest. This finding should be documented as:

a)

Wheals

b)

Vesicles

c)

Petechiae

42.

A patient with an infection has drainage from a wound that is thin, clear, and watery. The nurse should document this exudate as:

a)

Purulent

b)

Sanguineous

c)

Serous

43.

A nurse is assessing a patient with dark skin for pallor. Which assessment finding would be most indicative of pallor in this patient?

a)

A bluish tint to the lips

b)

Redness and warmth of the skin

c)

A grayish or ashen skin tone

d)

A yellowing of the hard palate

44.

Which client would be best suited for a FLACC assessment?

a)

A nonverbal teenager with a wound on their foot

b)

An obtunded elderly patient recovering from a car accident

c)

An infant suffering from a contusion

d)

A middle-aged man undergoing chemotherapy

45.

A client admitted for a severe headache states, "It hurts so much that I started vomiting last night." Which of the following OLDCART assessments would this best fulfill?

a)

Onset

b)

Location

c)

Characteristics

d)

Associated manifestations

46.

A client admitted for a severe headache states, "The pain is constant but it’s worse in the morning." Which of the following OLDCART assessments would this best fulfill?

a)

Onset

b)

Duration

c)

Characteristics

d)

Relieving/Aggravating Factors

47.

A client admitted for a severe headache states “When I look down, the pain goes away for a little bit.” Which of the following OLDCART assessments would this best fulfill?

a)

Characteristics

b)

Associated Manifestations

c)

Relieving/Aggravating Factors

d)

Treatment

48.

Select all that apply: Which of the following factors might explain why a middle-aged man with severe burns on his right foot would report their pain level as a 1 out of 10?

a)

Toxic masculinity

b)

He believes pain is punishment for sinners

c)

He has a long history of mismanaged diabetes mellitus 2

d)

He is a professional fire-walker

e)

He recently received a high dose of fentanyl

49.

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected cholecystitis. Where should the nurse expect the client to report pain?

a)

Lower right abdomen superior to the iliac crest

b)

Right upper abdomen inferior to the rib cage

c)

Left lower quadrant proximal to the pelvis

d)

Right shoulder superior to the clavicle

50.

Select all that apply: Which of the following signs and symptoms might a client in the ER present with after breaking their tibia 2 hours ago?

a)

HR 122

b)

Sweating

c)

BP 114/73

d)

Change in appetite

e)

Pacing and vocalizing anger about their wait time

51.

A patient complains of left shoulder pain whenever they are experiencing a gallbladder attack. This phenomenon, where pain is felt in a location different from its source, is known as:

a)

Phantom Pain

b)

Acute Pain

c)

Chronic Pain

d)

Referred Pain

52.

Hotspot: Pick the location that is distal to the elbow and on the medial side of the arm. Use the labeled arm illustration with points A, B, C, and D to select the correct area.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

What joint on the body is used the most?

a)

Shoulder

b)

Hip

c)

Temporomandibular

d)

Ankle

54.

You are testing the range of motion and strength of a patient’s arms. Upon examination, you find that their right arm has full range of motion against resistance, and their left arm has full range of motion with passive motion. How do you document your findings?

a)

Right: 5/5. Left: 2/5.

b)

Right: 1/5. Left: 4/5.

c)

Right: 2/5. Left: 5/5.

d)

Right: 4/5. Left: 1/5.

55.

In class, you raise your hand to ask a question. This is an example of:

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Circumduction

56.

The FLACC scale is more beneficial for assessing:

a)

Pain in children aged 3-5

b)

Stage of pressure injury

c)

Level of consciousness

d)

Pain in infants

57.

What is this called?

a)

Genu Varum

b)

Genu Verus

c)

Genu Valgus

d)

Genu Velgem

58.

An abnormal posterior rounding of the upper spine is called:

a)

Roundosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Lordosis

d)

Scoliosis

59.

You are assessing a client who presents with right ankle pain after rolling it while walking down the stairs. Match each letter of OLDCART with the appropriate statement:

  1. 1 “It hurts on the outside of my ankle.”

2 “The pain started like an hour ago.”

3 “The pain is constant since it happened.”

4 “ I took some Ibuprofen before coming in.” 

5 “It’s swollen like a softball, and looks purple.”

6 “Yeah, putting weight on it hurts really bad.”

7 “I feel a sharp pain when I try to walk.”

4 lines
60.
  • A nurse inspects a patient’s spine and notes an exaggerated inward curve in the lumbar region. This finding is documented as which spinal abnormality?

a)

Crepitus

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Lordosis

61.
  • When testing muscle strength, a patient is able to complete the full range of motion only with passive assistance from the nurse. What grade should be assigned to this finding?

a)

0/5

b)

3/5

c)

2/5

d)

1/5

62.
  • During a musculoskeletal exam, the nurse palpates a grating sensation in the patient's knee joint during movement. This abnormal finding is known as:

a)

Sublaxation

b)

Crepitus

c)

Hypotonicity

d)

Hypertonicity

63.

Which type of synovial joint allows for the most movement, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction?

a)

Gliding joint

b)

Ball and socket joint

c)

Hinge joint

d)

Pivot joint

64.

A patient with psoriasis often has lesions on the extensor surfaces of their body. Which area is an example of an extensor surface?

a)

The front (posterior aspect) of the elbow

b)

The back of the knee

c)

The armpit

d)

The inside of the elbow