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PIPE SET 17

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is the primary function of industrial instrumentation?

a)

Measure, monitor, and control process variables

b)

Increase fuel consumption

c)

Control human resources

d)

Design plant layout

2.

Which of the following is a primary process variable?

a)

Temperature, pressure, flow, level

b)

Color, shape, texture, odor

c)

Cost, profit, labor, materials

d)

Weight, volume, structure, design

3.

Which law governs the operation of a thermocouple?

a)

Faraday's law

b)

Pascal's law

c)

Bernoulli's theorem

d)

Seebeck effect

4.

Which device measures pressure using a column of liquid?

a)

Bourdon gauge

b)

Strain gauge

c)

Manometer

d)

Transducer

5.

Which unit is used for measuring pressure?

a)

Joule

b)

Tesla

c)

Pascal

d)

Watt

6.

Which flow measurement device is based on Bernoulli's principle?

a)

Rotameter

b)

Orifice meter

c)

Ultrasonic meter

d)

Magnetic flow meter

7.

Which equation represents Bernoulli's principle?

a)

F = ma

b)

PV = nRT

c)

Q = m × Cp × ΔT

d)

P + ½ρv² + ρgh = constant

8.

Which flow meter uses a float moving in a tapered tube?

a)

Orifice meter

b)

Venturi meter

c)

Rotameter

d)

Pitot tube

9.

Which type of control system automatically adjusts output to a desired setpoint?

a)

Manual control

b)

Feedback control

c)

Feedforward control

d)

Open-loop control

10.

Which element in a control loop directly manipulates the process?

a)

Final control element

b)

Sensor

c)

Transmitter

d)

Controller

11.

Which of the following is a final control element?

a)

Control valve

b)

Pressure gauge

c)

Thermocouple

d)

RTD

12.

Which type of signal is used in pneumatic instrumentation?

a)

4–20 mA

b)

3–15 psi

c)

1–5 V

d)

Digital pulses

13.

Which type of signal is standard for electronic instrumentation?

a)

3–15 psi

b)

10–50 psi

c)

4–20 mA

d)

220 V AC

14.

Which sensor measures strain in materials?

a)

RTD

b)

Thermocouple

c)

Orifice plate

d)

Strain gauge

15.

Which sensor uses change in resistance with temperature?

a)

Thermocouple

b)

RTD

c)

Pressure gauge

d)

Ultrasonic transducer

16.

Which device measures temperature by change in emf?

a)

RTD

b)

Bimetallic thermometer

c)

Thermocouple

d)

Infrared sensor

17.

Which control mode eliminates steady-state error?

a)

Proportional action

b)

On-off control

c)

Derivative action

d)

Integral action

18.

Which control mode anticipates future error?

a)

Integral action

b)

Proportional action

c)

Derivative action

d)

Feedback control

19.

Which controller combines P, I, and D actions?

a)

PID controller

b)

On-off controller

c)

PI controller

d)

PD controller

20.

Which device is used for continuous level measurement of liquids?

a)

Sight glass

b)

Dipstick

c)

Ruler

d)

Differential pressure transmitter

21.

Which type of control system uses no feedback?

a)

Open-loop system

b)

Closed-loop system

c)

Cascade system

d)

Ratio control system

22.

Which of the following is an example of open-loop control?

a)

Washing machine timer

b)

Boiler drum level control

c)

Turbine governor

d)

Air conditioner thermostat

23.

Which control strategy uses one variable to control another related variable?

a)

Ratio control

b)

Cascade control

c)

Feedforward control

d)

Feedback control

24.

Which device converts physical quantity into electrical signal?

a)

Transducer

b)

Transmitter

c)

Sensor

d)

Controller

25.

Which device amplifies, conditions, and sends a signal to controller?

a)

Transmitter

b)

Sensor

c)

Valve

d)

Motor

26.

Which device in a control loop maintains process at setpoint?

a)

Final control element

b)

Controller

c)

Transmitter

d)

Sensor

27.

Which element of ISA control loop symbol is a circle?

a)

Process

b)

Controller only

c)

Instrument

d)

Actuator only

28.

Which control strategy uses secondary loops to improve performance?

a)

Ratio control

b)

Open-loop control

c)

Feedforward control

d)

Cascade control

29.

Which signal standard minimizes noise interference?

a)

4–20 mA

b)

1–5 V DC

c)

0–10 V AC

d)

220 V AC

30.

Which device is commonly used to measure vibration?

a)

Thermocouple

b)

Accelerometer

c)

Manometer

d)

Orifice plate

31.

Which instrument measures very high pressure accurately?

a)

High cost

b)

Large size

c)

High maintenance

d)

Low efficiency and poor starting torque

32.

Which single-phase motor is widely used in household fans?

a)

Capacitor start capacitor run motor

b)

Shaded pole motor

c)

Split phase motor

d)

Repulsion motor

33.

What is the universal motor capable of operating on?

a)

Only AC supply

b)

Both AC and DC supply

c)

Only DC supply

d)

Only low frequency supply

34.

Which factor determines torque of DC motors?

a)

Voltage × Resistance

b)

Frequency × Current

c)

Flux × Armature current

d)

Speed × Power factor

35.

What is the effect of increasing load on DC shunt motor speed?

a)

Constant speed

b)

Large increase

c)

Zero change

d)

Slight decrease

36.

Which motor is used in traction applications?

a)

DC series motor

b)

DC shunt motor

c)

Universal motor

d)

Induction motor

37.

What is the synchronous speed of a 4-pole motor at 50 Hz?

a)

3000 rpm

b)

1500 rpm

c)

1000 rpm

d)

750 rpm

38.

Which motor has nearly constant speed regardless of load?

a)

DC series motor

b)

Universal motor

c)

Synchronous motor

d)

Slip ring motor

39.

What is the effect of slip on rotor frequency of induction motors?

a)

fr=ff_r = f

b)

fr=fsf_r = \dfrac{f}{s}

c)

fr=(1−s)×ff_r = (1 - s) \times f

d)

fr=s×ff_r = s \times f

40.

Which loss is dominant in DC machines at high load?

a)

Copper loss

b)

Hysteresis loss

c)

Eddy current loss

d)

Friction loss

41.

What is armature reaction in DC machines?

a)

Increase in rotor resistance

b)

Effect of armature flux on main field flux

c)

Heating of windings

d)

Friction losses

42.

Which factor reduces armature reaction effect?

a)

Increasing flux

b)

Reducing commutator segments

c)

Compensating windings

d)

Increasing speed

43.

What is the maximum efficiency condition of DC machine?

a)

Iron loss > Copper loss

b)

Iron loss < Copper loss

c)

Friction loss = Copper loss

d)

Iron loss = Copper loss

44.

Which test is used to determine efficiency of large DC machines?

a)

Hopkinson's test

b)

Brake test

c)

Swinburne's test

d)

Open circuit test

45.

What is the power equation of 3-phase induction motor?

a)

Pi=V×I×cos⁡θP_i = V \times I \times \cos\theta

b)

Pe=(1−s)×PgapP_e = (1 - s) \times P_{gap}

c)

Po=T×ωP_o = T \times \omega

d)

Pr=fRP_r = fR

46.

Which method controls speed of DC shunt motor?

a)

Load torque control

b)

Frequency control

c)

Armature voltage control and field flux control

d)

Resistance control of stator

47.

Which type of braking is used in DC motors?

a)

Hydraulic braking

b)

Pneumatic braking

c)

Magnetic only

d)

Regenerative, dynamic, and plugging

48.

What is the condition for zero voltage regulation in alternators?

a)

Operation at leading power factor

b)

Operation at lagging power factor

c)

Operation at unity power factor

d)

No excitation condition

49.

Which factor increases efficiency of synchronous machines?

a)

Increasing slip

b)

Proper excitation control

c)

Low power factor

d)

Overloading

50.

Which type of flow sheet provides a simple block representation of process steps?

a)

Block flow diagram

b)

Process flow diagram

c)

Piping and instrumentation diagram

d)

Mechanical layout

51.

What type of flow sheet shows equipment, streams, and operating conditions?

a)

Process flow diagram (PFD)

b)

Block diagram

c)

Gantt chart

d)

Mechanical drawing

52.

Which flow sheet contains control instruments and detailed piping?

a)

Piping and instrumentation diagram (P&ID)

b)

Block diagram

c)

Flowchart

d)

Mechanical diagram

53.

What is the main purpose of a flow sheet in process industries?

a)

To represent material and energy flow

b)

To replace machine drawings

c)

To calculate labor cost

d)

To design HVAC systems

54.

Which process is used to separate liquid mixtures based on volatility?

a)

Distillation

b)

Absorption

c)

Filtration

d)

Crystallization

55.

What is the formula for material balance in a steady state process?

a)

Input − Output = Loss

b)

Input = Output + Accumulation

c)

Input + Loss = Output

d)

Output = 0

56.

Which process separates solid-liquid suspensions using a porous medium?

a)

Distillation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Filtration

d)

Extraction

57.

What type of foundation is used when soil has low bearing capacity?

a)

Block foundation

b)

Pile foundation

c)

Shallow foundation

d)

Isolated footing

58.

Which IS code specifies guidelines for machine foundation design?

a)

IS 456

b)

IS 800

c)

IS 2974

d)

IS 2062

59.

What factor is considered to prevent settlement of foundations?

a)

Machine horsepower

b)

Shaft alignment

c)

Belt speed

d)

Safe bearing capacity of soil

60.

Which machine requires special vibration-isolated foundations?

a)

Turbo-generators

b)

Centrifugal pumps

c)

Fans

d)

Cooling towers

61.

What is the typical dynamic load factor used in design of machine foundations?

a)

10 to 12

b)

2 to 3

c)

20 to 25

d)

0.5

62.

Which material is commonly used for machinery foundation construction?

a)

Timber

b)

Aluminum

c)

Reinforced concrete

d)

Glass

63.

What is the main function of grout in machinery foundation?

a)

To provide uniform contact between machine and foundation

b)

To reduce machine size

c)

To cool the machine base

d)

To transmit electrical signals

64.

Which type of vibration occurs at machine start-up?

a)

Transient vibration

b)

Steady-state vibration

c)

Resonance

d)

Damped vibration

65.

What is the recommended factor of safety for foundation bearing capacity?

a)

12

b)

3

c)

5

d)

0.5

66.

Which test determines soil properties for foundation design?

a)

Tensile test

b)

Impact test

c)

Plate load test

d)

Charpy test

67.

What parameter increases if the machine foundation is too flexible?

a)

Amplitude of vibration

b)

Damping

c)

Soil bearing capacity

d)

Resonant frequency

68.

Which type of machinery produces high unbalanced forces requiring heavy foundations?

a)

Reciprocating machines

b)

Centrifugal pumps

c)

Cooling fans

d)

Generators

69.

What parameter is minimized by proper foundation design?

a)

Vibration amplitude

b)

Soil cohesion

c)

Bearing capacity

d)

Machine speed

70.

Which type of foundation is suitable for turbo-machinery?

a)

Block foundation

b)

Pile foundation

c)

Raft foundation

d)

Strip foundation

71.

What is the relation between excitation frequency and foundation natural frequency for safe design?

a)

Excitation = natural frequency

b)

Excitation < 0.5 × natural frequency

c)

Excitation = 2 × natural frequency

d)

Excitation frequency ≠ natural frequency

72.

Which factor increases damping in a foundation system?

a)

Use of elastomer pads

b)

Higher machine speed

c)

Low soil strength

d)

High rigidity

73.

What property of foundation resists overturning moment of machines?

a)

Soil permeability

b)

Mass and geometry of foundation

c)

Machine horsepower

d)

Belt friction

74.

Which type of resonance is dangerous for machine foundations?

a)

Resonance at operating speed

b)

Resonance at zero speed

c)

Resonance at damped frequency

d)

Resonance at low loads only

75.

What is the primary objective of dynamic analysis in machine foundation design?

a)

To check vibration amplitude and resonance

b)

To increase foundation weight

c)

To decrease soil capacity

d)

To reduce structural reinforcement

76.

Which part of the machine transmits load to the foundation?

a)

Baseplate

b)

Rotor

c)

Shaft

d)

Bearings

77.

What is the main effect of inadequate anchoring bolts in foundations?

a)

Machine misalignment and vibration

b)

Increased soil capacity

c)

Reduced machine weight

d)

Higher natural frequency

78.

Which factor influences natural frequency of foundations?

a)

Stiffness and mass

b)

Color and shape

c)

Soil moisture only

d)

Machine horsepower

79.

What method is used to isolate sensitive equipment from vibrations?

a)

Vibration isolation pads

b)

Grouting

c)

Heavy reinforcement

d)

Soil compaction only

80.

Which design principle prevents resonance in machine foundations?

a)

Separation of natural frequency and operating frequency

b)

Matching excitation with foundation frequency

c)

Minimizing soil capacity

d)

Reducing safety factor

81.

What is the primary purpose of foundation mass in dynamic machines?

a)

To absorb vibration energy

b)

To reduce soil density

c)

To increase machine speed

d)

To change shaft diameter

82.

Which soil parameter must be known for vibration analysis?

a)

Dynamic modulus of elasticity

b)

Plasticity index

c)

Cohesion

d)

Liquid limit

83.

What factor increases foundation settlement?

a)

Weak soil compressibility

b)

Heavy reinforcement

c)

High damping

d)

Balanced mass distribution

84.

Which type of analysis is performed for heavy impact machines?

a)

Dynamic impact analysis

b)

Static load analysis

c)

Fluid flow analysis

d)

Thermal analysis

85.

What is the unit of dynamic modulus?

a)

Joule

b)

N/m2N/m^2 (Pa)

c)

Watt

d)

rpm

86.

Which part of foundation transmits load to soil?

a)

Anchor bolt hole

b)

Grout layer

c)

Base slab

d)

Shaft coupling

87.

What is the primary objective of machine alignment on foundation?

a)

Increase machine weight

b)

Reduce soil moisture

c)

Improve grout strength

d)

Reduce vibration and wear

88.

Which IS code provides design recommendations for foundations of rotary machines?

a)

IS 2974 Part 3

b)

IS 800

c)

IS 456

d)

IS 1343

89.

Which vibration control method is used for precision instruments?

a)

Block foundation

b)

Spring foundation system

c)

Raft foundation

d)

Strip footing

90.

What is the role of inertia block in machine foundations?

a)

To reduce soil bearing capacity

b)

To increase resonance

c)

To provide stability and absorb vibrations

d)

To decrease machine life

91.

Which factor determines size of inertia block?

a)

Soil permeability only

b)

Color of concrete

c)

Anchor bolt size only

d)

Machine dynamic forces and operating frequency

92.

What is the most common failure mode in machine foundations?

a)

Excessive vibration and settlement

b)

Concrete cracking due to heat

c)

Loss of color in concrete

d)

Low reinforcement ratio

93.

Which foundation type is used in machines requiring frequent relocation?

a)

Raft foundations

b)

Spring or vibration-isolated foundations

c)

Pile foundations

d)

Block foundations

94.

What is the recommended design frequency ratio for rotary machines?

a)

fn=operating frequencyf_n = \text{operating frequency}

b)

fn≤0.5×operating frequencyf_n \le 0.5 \times \text{operating frequency}

c)

fn≥1.25×operating frequencyf_n \ge 1.25 \times \text{operating frequency}

d)

fn=2×operating frequencyf_n = 2 \times \text{operating frequency}

95.

Which method is used to study dynamic behavior of machine foundations?

a)

Thermal analysis

b)

Hydraulic analysis

c)

Fatigue test

d)

Vibration analysis

96.

What is the primary role of anchor bolts in machine foundation?

a)

To fix machine securely and resist vibration forces

b)

To transmit soil load

c)

To increase grout strength

d)

To change natural frequency

97.

Which property of grout is essential for machine foundations?

a)

High water absorption

b)

High compressive strength and shrink resistance

c)

Low modulus of elasticity

d)

Poor bonding

98.

Which type of machines require block-type massive foundations?

a)

Centrifugal pumps only

b)

Light fans

c)

Reciprocating engines and compressors

d)

HVAC ducts

99.

What factor must be checked to avoid soil resonance in foundation design?

a)

Soil color

b)

Moisture content only

c)

Machine shaft speed

d)

Soil natural frequency

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