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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which function of management involves setting goals and deciding how best to achieve them?

a)

Leading

b)

Organizing

c)

Planning and Decision Making

d)

Controlling

2.

A group of people working together in a structured and coordinated fashion to achieve goals is defined as a(n):

a)

Management team

b)

Organization

c)

Hierarchy

d)

System

3.

Which level of management is responsible for creating the organization's overall strategy and operating policies?

a)

First-line managers

b)

Middle managers

c)

Top managers

d)

Operations managers

4.

Management is the set of activities directed at an organization's resources with the aim of achieving goals efficiently and effectively.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Technical skills are most essential for which type of work?

a)

Motivating groups

b)

Thinking in the abstract

c)

Understanding specific kinds of work done in an organization

d)

Visualizing situational responses

6.

Which management skill refers to the ability to communicate with and motivate both individuals and groups?

a)

Diagnostic skills

b)

Interpersonal skills

c)

Conceptual skills

d)

Technical skills

7.

Effective management means making the right decisions and successfully implementing them.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which management perspective consists of two branches: scientific management and administrative management?

a)

Classical perspective

b)

Behavioral perspective

c)

Systems perspective

d)

Contingency perspective

9.

The perspective that emphasizes individual attitudes, behaviors, and group processes is the:

a)

Classical perspective

b)

Behavioral perspective

c)

Quantitative perspective

d)

Contingency perspective

10.

Which view of management assumes that problems can be approached using rational, logical, objective, and systematic ways?

a)

Management as an Art

b)

Management as a Science

c)

Human Relations movement

d)

Theory X

11.

According to the systems perspective, what is the term for two or more subsystems working together to produce more than the sum of their individual parts?

a)

Entropy

b)

Synergy

c)

Feedback

d)

Transformation

12.

The "Human Relations" movement proposed that workers respond primarily to:

a)

Mathematical production models

b)

The social context of work

c)

Piecework pay systems

d)

Physical lighting conditions

13.

Which management perspective focuses on decision making, mathematical models, and the use of computers?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Quantitative

c)

Administrative

d)

Classical

14.

Theory Y is a pessimistic view of workers consistent with the views of scientific management.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What is the primary focus of "Scientific Management"?

a)

Managing the total organization

b)

Improving the performance of individual workers

c)

Understanding group dynamics

d)

Implementing global strategies

16.

Which concept suggests that appropriate managerial behavior depends on unique elements in a given situation?

a)

Contingency perspective

b)

Systems perspective

c)

Scientific Management

d)

Human Relations movement

17.

A limitation of the Classical Management Perspective is that it:

a)

Is too complex for simple organizations

b)

Slightly ignores the role of the individual in organizations

c)

Overemphasizes the importance of the social context

d)

Relies too heavily on intuition and instinct

18.

In the systems perspective, "Entropy" refers to:

a)

A system that interacts with its environment

b)

A normal process leading to system decline

c)

The conversion of resources into products

d)

The ability to think in the abstract

19.

Which perspective is particularly useful in the areas of planning and controlling through decision-making tools?

a)

Behavioral

b)

Classical

c)

Quantitative

d)

Human Relations

20.

The "Art of Management" relies heavily on which set of skills?

a)

Technical and Diagnostic

b)

Mathematical and Logical

c)

Conceptual and Communication

d)

Rational and Objective

21.

The "Hawthorne Studies" initially focused on lighting but ultimately confirmed the importance of:

a)

Scientific selection of employees

b)

Human behavior in the workplace

c)

Eliminating "soldiering"

d)

Administrative guidelines

22.

Which organizational behavior topic addresses how individuals view themselves versus how others see them?

a)

Theory X

b)

The Johari Window

c)

Synergy

d)

Bounded Rationality

23.

Contemporary behavior science in management draws from which of the following fields?

a)

Mathematics and Engineering

b)

Physics and Chemistry

c)

Psychology, Sociology, and Anthropology

d)

History and Law

24.

Theory X assumes that managers must:

a)

Rely on internal motivation of workers

b)

Coerce and threaten employees to get them to work

c)

View work as a natural part of life

d)

Encourage innovation and responsibility

25.

One major challenge faced by managers today is:

a)

Implementing piecework pay systems

b)

An increasingly diverse workforce

c)

Returning to "rule-of-thumb" methods

d)

Ignoring the external environment

26.

Everything outside an organization's boundaries that might affect it is the:

a)

Internal environment

b)

Task environment

c)

External environment

d)

General environment

27.

Which dimension of the general environment refers to the methods available for converting resources into products?

a)

Economic

b)

Technological

c)

Political-legal

d)

Internal

28.

Whoever pays money to acquire an organization's products or services is a:

a)

Supplier

b)

Competitor

c)

Customer

d)

Regulator

29.

True or False: Ethics are an individual's personal beliefs about whether a behavior is right or wrong.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The governing body elected by stockholders to oversee a firm's management is the:

a)

Interest group

b)

Board of directors

c)

Strategic partners

d)

Regulators

31.

True or False: A tariff is a limit placed on the number of goods that can be traded.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Organizational culture is the set of:

a)

Laws and regulations governing a firm

b)

Values, beliefs, and behaviors that help members understand what the firm stands for

c)

Financial disclosures required by law

d)

Physical conditions within a workplace

33.

Which of the following is part of the Task Environment?

a)

Economic dimension

b)

Competitors and Suppliers

c)

Technological dimension

d)

Owners and Employees

34.

An organization working with another in a joint venture is known as a:

a)

Regulator

b)

Strategic partner

c)

Competitor

d)

Board of directors

35.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires CEOs to personally vouch for:

a)

Their employees' happiness

b)

The truthfulness of their firm's financial disclosures

c)

The quality of their marketing

d)

Their competitors' practices

36.

What is Social Responsibility?

a)

The goal to maximize profit only

b)

Obligations to protect and enhance the social context in which a firm functions

c)

The internal culture of a management team

d)

Compliance with international tax laws

37.

Which international business level involves making a product domestically and selling it abroad?

a)

Importing

b)

Exporting

c)

Direct investment

d)

Licensing

38.

True or False: Whistle-blowing is the disclosure by an employee of illegal or unethical conduct within the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which trade agreement was intended to reduce barriers and make it easier for all nations to compete?

a)

NAFTA

b)

GATT

c)

EU

d)

MFN

40.

A firm that builds or purchases operating facilities in a foreign country is engaging in:

a)

Exporting

b)

Direct investment

c)

Licensing

d)

Strategic alliance

41.

What is the Most Favored Nation principle?

a)

Giving preference to domestic producers

b)

Extending preferential trade treatment to all signatories of an agreement

42.

Which of the following is a formal dimension for managing social responsibility?

a)

Organizational culture

b)

Ethical compliance

c)

Whistle-blowing

d)

Leadership style

43.

"Maquiladoras" are assembly plants in Mexico that are often:

a)

Owned by the government

b)

Given special tax breaks by the Mexican government

c)

Only used for high-tech research

d)

Located far from the U.S. border

44.

Which dimension of culture determines the organization’s "feel"?

a)

Legal compliance

b)

Strategic goals

c)

Organizational culture

d)

Economic dimension

45.

A common argument against social responsibility is that:

a)

Corporations are citizens

b)

Business creates problems and should solve them

c)

Involvement in social programs gives business too much power

d)

Business has the resources necessary to solve problems

46.

What is the primary starting point for an organization's culture?

a)

Government regulation

b)

The organization's founder

c)

Current market trends

d)

The technological dimension

47.

Difficulties in international business can arise when there is little overlap between:

a)

Tariffs and quotas

b)

A manager's home culture and the culture where business is conducted

c)

Suppliers and customers

d)

Strategic goals and tactical plans

48.

Which organization includes 164 member nations and establishes procedures for trade disputes?

a)

The United Nations

b)

The World Trade Organization (WTO)

c)

The European Union

d)

The Global Trade Council

49.

An informal dimension of managing social responsibility is:

a)

Philanthropic giving

b)

Legal compliance

50.

Managers can maintain organizational culture by:

a)

Ignoring symbols and stories

b)

Rewarding people whose behaviors are consistent with the existing culture

c)

Changing the board of directors yearly

d)

Focusing solely on technical skills

51.

A statement of an organization’s fundamental purpose is its:

a)

Strategic plan

b)

Mission

c)

Tactical goal

d)

Operational plan

52.

SWOT stands for:

a)

Success, Wellness, Output, Timing

b)

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

c)

Systems, Work, Organization, Training

d)

Strategy, Wisdom, Objectives, Technology

53.

Which strategy seeks to distinguish an organization from competitors through product quality?

a)

Overall cost leadership

b)

Focus strategy

c)

Differentiation strategy

d)

Single-product strategy

54.

True or False: Strategic goals are set by and for an organization's top management.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The range of markets in which an organization will compete is known as its:

a)

Distinctive competence

b)

Scope

c)

Resource deployment

d)

Synergy

56.

True or False: A tactical plan is aimed at achieving tactical goals and is developed to implement parts of a strategic plan.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which plan is developed for activities that recur regularly over a period of time?

a)

Single-use plan

b)

Standing plan

c)

Program

d)

Project

58.

Goals set by and for middle managers that focus on operationalizing actions are:

a)

Strategic goals

b)

Tactical goals

c)

Operational goals

d)

Mission statements

59.

In the BCG Matrix, a business with a high market share in a low-growth market is a:

a)

Star

b)

Question Mark

c)

Cash Cow

d)

Dog

60.

The stage of the Product Life Cycle where demand slows down and the number of new firms producing the product declines is:

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

61.

Which strategy type involves an organization operating in several businesses that are somehow linked?

a)

Single-product strategy

b)

Related diversification

c)

Unrelated diversification

d)

Cost leadership

62.

Strategic management is a process aimed at:

a)

Setting short-term goals only

b)

Formulating and implementing effective strategies

c)

Eliminating all competition

d)

Managing lower-level employees only

63.

True or False: A program is a single-use plan for a large set of activities.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What component of strategy refers to how an organization distributes its resources across areas?

a)

Scope

b)

Distinctive competence

c)

Resource deployment

d)

Implementation

65.

Which generic strategy involves reducing costs below those of competing firms?

a)

Focus

b)

Differentiation

c)

Overall cost leadership

d)

Synergy

66.

A distinctive competence is an organizational strength that is:

a)

Possessed by all competing firms

b)

Possessed by only a small number of competing firms

c)

Related to the decline stage of the PLC

d)

Found only in non-profit organizations

67.

A primary disadvantage of unrelated diversification is that:

a)

It increases economic risk

b)

Managers may not know enough about the businesses to provide guidance

c)

It requires shared ownership

d)

It focuses too much on synergy

68.

Which portfolio management technique evaluates businesses along Industry Attractiveness and Competitive Position?

a)

BCG Matrix

b)

GE Business Screen

c)

SWOT Analysis

d)

Product Life Cycle

69.

In SWOT analysis, the best strategies exploit ______ while neutralizing ______.

a)

Weaknesses; Opportunities

b)

Strengths; Threats

c)

Threats; Strengths

d)

Weaknesses; Threats

70.

Tactical planning must specify:

a)

Only broad mission statements

b)

Resources and time frames

c)

National origins of competitors

d)

The board of directors' personal goals

71.

To properly execute a tactical plan, a manager must ensure:

a)

No communication exists between departments

b)

Vertical and horizontal communication are present

c)

Every employee makes their own strategy

d)

Decisions are made without follow-up

72.

Which standing plan outlines steps to be followed in particular circumstances?

a)

Policy

b)

Standard operating procedure

c)

Rules and regulations

d)

Project

73.

Strategy implementation focuses on:

a)

The content of strategies

b)

The processes through which strategies are achieved

c)

Creating new industries

d)

Generating mission statements

74.

A weakness of the single-product strategy is that:

a)

It fails to exploit synergy

b)

If the product is not accepted by the market, the firm will suffer

c)

It requires too many resources

d)

It is too complex for top managers

75.

The act of choosing one alternative from among a set of alternatives is:

a)

Planning

b)

Leading

c)

Decision making

d)

Organizing

76.

A decision that is relatively structured or recurs with some frequency is a:

a)

Programmed decision

b)

Nonprogrammed decision

c)

Strategy

d)

Contingency

77.

True or False: Under a state of certainty, the decision maker knows the alternatives and conditions with reasonable certainty.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which situation occurs when a group's desire for cohesiveness overwhelms its desire for a good decision?

a)

Synergy

b)

Satisficing

c)

Groupthink

d)

Bounded rationality

79.

True or False: A Delphi group is a form of decision making where a group arrives at a consensus of expert opinion.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The extent to which a decision maker is willing to gamble is their:

a)

Risk propensity

b)

Escalation of commitment

c)

Bounded rationality

d)

Intuition

81.

Choosing a vacation destination is an example of a:

a)

Programmed decision

b)

Nonprogrammed decision

82.

The tendency to search for alternatives only until one is found that meets a minimum standard is

a)

Optimizing

b)

Satisficing

c)

Risk-taking

d)

Planning

83.

In the rational decision-making process, what is the first step

a)

Identifying alternatives

b)

Selecting the best alternative

c)

Recognizing and defining the decision situation

d)

Implementing the alternative

84.

Which decision model argues that decision makers use incomplete information and are limited by bounded rationality

a)

Classical model

b)

Administrative model

c)

Rational model

d)

Quantitative model

85.

An informal alliance of individuals formed to achieve a common goal is a

a)

Nominal group

b)

Coalition

c)

Subsystem

d)

Task force

86.

When a decision maker stays with a decision even when it appears to be wrong, it is called

a)

Risk propensity

b)

Escalation of commitment

c)

Intuition

d)

Satisficing

87.

Nonprogrammed decisions are relatively unstructured and occur much less often than programmed decisions

a)

True

b)

False

88.

The Classical Decision Model assumes that managers are

a)

Logical and rational

b)

Limited by values and reflexes

c)

Likely to satisfice

d)

Unaware of alternatives

89.

Which group decision-making form involves members openly discussing and agreeing on the best alternative

a)

Delphi group

b)

Interacting group

90.

Evidence-Based Management involves a commitment to:

a)

Using strongly held untested beliefs

b)

Finding and using the best theory and data available

c)

Uncritical benchmarking

d)

Ignoring hard facts

91.

Bounded rationality suggests that decision makers are limited by:

a)

Perfect information

b)

Their values, unconscious reflexes, skills, and habits

c)

The board of directors

d)

Market growth rates

92.

One advantage of group decision making is that:

a)

It is faster than individual decision making

b)

More alternatives are likely to be generated

c)

One person can dominate the group

d)

It always results in compromise

93.

To promote effectiveness in group decision making, a manager should:

a)

Make their position known as early as possible

b)

Assign the role of devil’s advocate to a member

c)

Avoid setting deadlines

d)

Encourage groupthink

94.

A condition of risk is one where:

a)

The decision maker knows all consequences with certainty

b)

Alternatives and payoffs are associated with probability estimates

c)

No alternatives are known

d)

Ambiguity is at its lowest level

95.

Which step of rational decision making involves evaluating an alternative's feasibility and satisfactoriness?

a)

Step 1

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 3

d)

Step 4

96.

A structured technique used specifically to generate creative and innovative ideas is the:

a)

Interacting group

b)

Nominal group

c)

Administrative model

d)

Evidence-based model

97.

Which principle of Evidence-Based Management suggests treating your organization as an unfinished prototype?

a)

Facing hard facts

b)

Encouraging experimentation and learning by doing

c)

Looking for risks

d)

Avoiding uncritical benchmarking

98.

A major disadvantage of group decision making is that:

a)

Less information is available

b)

Compromise decisions resulting from indecisiveness may emerge

c)

It is cheaper than individual decision making

d)

Communication is enhanced