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Worksheets

Worksheet Questions Extraction

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following contains only items which are considered fixed charges?

a)

Interest, taxes, amortization, insurance, rent

b)

Amortization, insurance, steam cost, painting, cleaning

c)

Interest, taxes, replacements, labor for repairs

d)

Interest, taxes, rent, power cost, oil cost

2.

An economic study is made of the total amount cost (C) for a series of alternative investment (P) for a given project. If C is plotted as the ordinate versus P, the most desirable occurs when

a)

dC/dP=1dC/dP=1

b)

dC/dP=COdC/dP=CO

c)

dC/dP=0dC/dP=0

d)

dC/dP=+1dC/dP=+1

3.

Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in the general price level.

a)

Devaluation

b)

Deflation

c)

Inflation

d)

Depreciation

4.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

a)

Annuity

b)

Depth

c)

Amortization

d)

Deposit

5.

The place where buyers and sellers come together.

a)

Market

b)

Business

c)

Recreation Center

d)

Buy and sell section

6.

A market whereby there is only one buyer for an item for which there are no good substitute.

a)

Monopsony

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopsony

7.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

a)

Perpetuity

b)

Ordinary annuity

c)

Annuity due

d)

Deferred annuity

8.

The total income equals the total operating cost.

a)

Balanced sheet

b)

In-place value

c)

Check and balance

d)

Break even-no gain no loss

9.

Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

a)

Analytic

b)

Pure

c)

Gratuitous

d)

Private

10.

Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct material cost are the costs of all materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as

a)

GS and A expenses

b)

Operating and maintenance cost

c)

Prime cost

d)

O and M costs

11.

An index of short term paying ability is called

a)

Receivable turn-over

b)

Profit margin ratio

c)

Current ratio

d)

Acid-test ratio

12.

An artificial expenses that spreads the purchase price of an asset or another property over a number of years.

a)

Depreciation

b)

Sinking Fund

c)

Amnesty

d)

Bond

13.

Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

a)

Market value

b)

Fair value

c)

Salvage value

d)

Book value

14.

Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

a)

Physical Inventory

b)

Material update

c)

Technological Assessment

d)

Material Count

15.

Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding date.

a)

Delict

b)

Escalatory

c)

Technological Assessment

d)

Bid bulletin

16.

An evil wrong committed by a person damaged another person’s property or reputation is

a)

Tort

b)

Material breach

c)

Negligence

d)

Fraud

17.

A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

a)

Depreciation

b)

Annuity

c)

Perpetuity

d)

Inflation

18.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Stocks

d)

Goods

19.

Work-in process is classified as

a)

An asset

b)

A liability

c)

An expenses

d)

An owner’s equity

20.

What is the highest position in the corporation?

a)

President

b)

Board of directors

c)

Chairman of the board

d)

Stockholders

21.

Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their own interest.

a)

Equitable

b)

Public

c)

Private

d)

Pure

22.

Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

a)

Inflation

b)

Depletion

c)

Recession

d)

Depreciation

23.

An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-owners for profit.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Company

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

24.

We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as

a)

Nominal rate

b)

Rate of return

c)

Exact interest rate

d)

Effective rate

25.

Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent

a)

Dead persons

b)

Senior citizens

c)

Demented persons

d)

Minors

26.

It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

a)

Discount

b)

Luxury

c)

Necessity

d)

Utility

27.

It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

a)

Fair value

b)

Market value

c)

Book value

d)

Salvage value

28.

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors entering the market.

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Elastic demand

29.

These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

a)

Utilities

b)

Necessities

c)

Luxuries

d)

Product goods and services

30.

These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies considerably.

a)

Utilities

b)

Necessities

c)

Luxuries

d)

Product goods and services

31.

A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Semi-monopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Perfect competition

32.

Grand total of capability of a the assets and operational corporation

a)

Authorized capital

b)

Investment

c)

Subscribed capital

d)

Money market

33.

The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation

a)

Scrap value

b)

Face value

c)

Market value

d)

Book value

34.

Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a)

Discount

b)

Credit

c)

Interest

d)

Profit

35.

Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called

a)

Total assets

b)

Fixed assets

c)

Current assets

d)

None of the above

36.

The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

a)

Physical life

b)

Economic life

c)

Operating life

d)

All of the above

37.

The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost.

a)

Secondary clause

b)

Escalatory clause

c)

Contingency clause

d)

Main clause

38.

The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

a)

Book value

b)

Capital recovery

c)

Depreciation recovery

d)

Sinking fund

39.

Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called

a)

Profit margin

b)

Gross margin

c)

Net income

d)

Rate of return

40.

Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise

a)

Fair value

b)

Market value

c)

Salvage value

d)

Book value

41.

Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern

a)

Initial investment

b)

Current accounts

c)

Working capital

d)

Subscribed capital

42.

A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopsony

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Oligopsony

43.

The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known as

a)

Expected return

b)

Interest

c)

Nominal interest

d)

Effective interest

44.

The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company in a stated region of the country.

a)

Market value

b)

Book value

c)

Goodwill value

d)

Franchise value

45.

The recorded current value of an asset is known as

a)

Scrap value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Book value

d)

Present worth

46.

Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as

a)

Book value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Replacement value

d)

Future value

47.

Sometimes called second hand value

a)

Scrap value

b)

Salvage value

c)

Book value

d)

Going value

48.

An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

a)

Book value

b)

Fair value

c)

Goodwill value

d)

Going value

49.

The value which has a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

a)

Market value

b)

Goodwill value

c)

Fair value

d)

Franchise value

50.

A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period starting from the first period.

a)

Ordinary annuity

b)

Annuity due

c)

Deferred annuity

d)

Perpetuity

51.

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

a)

Deferred annuity

b)

Delayed annuity

c)

Progressive annuity

d)

Simple annuity

52.

A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period.

a)

Ordinary annuity

b)

Annuity due

c)

Deferred annuity

d)

Perpetuity

53.

Which is ordinarily NOT an essential element of an annuity?

a)

The amounts of all payments are equal.

b)

The payments are made at equal interval of time.

c)

The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.

d)

Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

54.

A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate; the present worth of a perpetuity equals which expression?

a)

Ai

b)

Ain

c)

An/i

d)

A/i

55.

A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of one is called

a)

Load factor

b)

Demand factor

c)

Sinking fund

d)

Present worth factor

56.

As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called

a)

Annuity

b)

Capital recovery

c)

Annuity factor

d)

Amortization

57.

The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

a)

Scrap value

b)

Depletion

c)

Depreciation

d)

Book value

58.

A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciation book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

SYD method

d)

Declining balance method

59.

A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

60.

Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

61.

A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.

a)

Straight line method

b)

Sinking fund method

c)

Declining balance method

d)

SYD method

62.

Capitalized cost of any property is equal to

a)

Annual cost

b)

First cost + interest of the first cost

c)

First cost + interest of perpetual maintenance

d)

First cost + salvage cost

63.

The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available, referring to natural resources such as coal and oil.

a)

Depreciation

b)

Depletion

c)

Inflation

d)

Incremental cost

64.

Is the simplest form of a business organization.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Enterprise

d)

Corporation

65.

An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

66.

A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a real person could do.

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Enterprise

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

67.

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partner

c)

Corporation

d)

Enterprise

68.

Which is not a type of business organization?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Corporation

c)

Enterprise

d)

Partnership

69.

What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

70.

GATT stands for

a)

General Agreement of Tariff and Trade

b)

General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

c)

Global Agreement of Tariff and Trade

d)

Global Arrangement of Tariff and Trade

71.

Which of the following is not a code of ethics?

a)

The Ten Commandments

b)

The ancient code of Hammurabi

c)

The Rosetta Stone

d)

The scouting creed

72.

Ethics requires you to take into consideration the effects of your behavior on which groups of people? I. your employer II. the nonprofessionals in society III. other professionals

a)

I only

b)

I and II

c)

II and III

d)

I, II and III

73.

Complete the sentence: Guidelines of ethical behavior among engineers are needed because

a)

Engineers are analytical, and they don’t always think in terms of right or wrong.

b)

All people, including engineers, are inherently unethical.

c)

Rules of ethics are easily forgotten.

d)

It is easy for engineers to take advantage of clients.

74.

Which of the following terms is not related to ethics?

a)

Integrity

b)

Honesty

c)

Morality

d)

Profitability

75.

What actions can be taken by a state-regulating agency against a design professional who violates one or more of its rules of conduct? I. the professional’s license may be revoked or suspended II. notice of the violation may be published in the local newspaper III. the professional may be asked to make restitution IV. the professional may be required to complete a course in ethics

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

I and IV

d)

I, II, III and IV

76.

Which of the following activities is not commonly required by codes of ethics for engineers?

a)

acting as a faithful agent or trustee for the client

b)

accepting payment for services only from the client

c)

submitting competitive bids to the client

d)

spelling out all known conditions of bids and proposals

77.

Which organizations typically do not have codes of ethics for engineers?

a)

technical societies

b)

national professional societies

c)

state professional societies

d)

companies that write, administer and grade licensing exams

78.

Plan stamping is best defined as

a)

the legal action of signing off on a project you didn’t design but are taking full responsibility for

b)

the legal action of signing off on a project you didn’t design or check but didn’t accept money for

c)

the illegal action of signing off on a project you didn’t design but did check

d)

the illegal action of signing off on a project you didn’t design or check

79.

Complete the sentence: “The U.S. Department of Justice’s successful action in the 1970s against engineering codes of ethics that formally prohibited competitive bidding was based on the premise that”

a)

competitive bidding allowed minority firms to participate.

b)

competitive bidding was required by many government contracts.

c)

the prohibitions violated antitrust statutes.

d)

engineering societies did not have the authority to prohibit competitive bidding.”

80.

An engineer working for a big design firm has decided to start a consulting business, but it will be a few months before she leaves. How should she handle the impending change?

a)

The engineer should discuss her plans with her current employer.

b)

The engineer may approach the firm’s other employees while still working for the firm.

c)

The engineer should immediately quit.

d)

The engineer should return all of the pens, pencils, pads of paper and other equipment she has brought home over the years.

81.

During the day, an engineer works for a scientific research laboratory doing government research. During the night, the engineer uses some of the lab’s equipment to perform testing services for other consulting engineers. Why is this action probably unethical?

a)

The laboratory has not given its permission for the equipment use.

b)

The government contract prohibits misuse of misappropriation of the equipment.

c)

The equipment may wear out or be broken by the engineer and the replacement cost will be borne by the government contract.

d)

The engineer’s fees to the consulting engineers can undercut local testing services’ fees because the engineer has a lower overhead.

82.

Which of the following methods of charging for professional services is unethical?

a)

lump sump at the start of the job

b)

per diem, billed monthly in advance

c)

per hour, billed at the end of each week

d)

retainer, plus per hour billed at the end of each week

83.

An engineer spends all of his free time (outside of work) gambling illegally. Is this a violation of ethical standards?

a)

No, the engineer is entitled to a life outside of work.

b)

No, the engineer’s employer, his clients and the public are not affected.

c)

No, not as long as the engineer stays debt-free from the gambling activities.

d)

Yes, the engineer should associate only with reputable persons and organizations.

84.

During routine inspections, a field engineer discovers that one of the company’s pipelines is leaking hazardous chemicals into the environment. The engineer recommends that the line be shut down so that seals can be replaced and the pipe can be inspected more closely. His supervisor commends him on his thoroughness and says the report will be passed on to the company’s maintenance division. The engineer moves on to his next job, assuming things will be taken care of in a timely manner. While working in the area again several months later, the engineer notices that the problem hasn’t been corrected and is in fact getting worse. What should the engineer do?

a)

Give the matter some more time. In a large corporate environment, it is understandable that some things take longer than people would like them to.

b)

Ask the supervisor to investigate what action has been taken on the matter.

c)

Personally speak to the director of maintenance and insist that this project be given high priority.

d)

Report the company to the EPA for allowing the situation to worsen without taking any preventive measures.

85.

A senior licensed professional engineer with 30 years of experience in geotechnical engineering is placed in charge of a multidisciplinary design team consisting of a structural group, a geotechnical group, and an environmental group. In this role, she is responsible for supervising and coordinating the efforts of the groups when working on large, interconnected projects. In order to facilitate coordination, designs are prepared by the groups under the direct supervision of the group leader, and then they are submitted to her for review and approval. This arrangement is ethical as long as

a)

she signs and seals each design segment only after being fully briefed by the appropriate group leader.

b)

she signs and seals only those design segments pertaining to geotechnical engineering.

c)

each design segment is signed and sealed by the licensed group leader responsible for its preparation.

d)

she signs and seals each design segment only after it has been reviewed by an independent consulting engineer who specializes in the field in which it pertains.

86.

A relatively new engineering firm is considering running an advertisement for their services in the local newspaper. An ad agency has supplied them with four concepts. Of the four types of ads, which one(s) would be acceptable from the standpoint of professional ethics? I. an advertisement contrasting their success over the past year with their nearest competitors’ failures II. an advertisement offering a free television to anyone who hires them for work valued at over $10,000 III. an advertisement offering to beat the price of any other engineering firm for the same services IV. an advertisement that tastefully depicts their logo against the backdrop of the Golden Gate Bridge

a)

I and III

b)

I, III and IV

c)

II, III and IV

d)

neither I, II, III, nor IV

87.

An engineer works at a large firm for several years during which he participates in the development of a new production technique. After leaving the company to start a consulting business, a competitor of his original employer ask for help with a similar problem, and the engineer is sure that the only solution is to use the process developed by his previous employer. Can the engineer ethically accept the job?

a)

No. This would constitute accepting payment from more than one party for the same project.

b)

No. The engineer would have to use information obtained while working for his original employer.

c)

Yes. Because he is no longer employed by the original company, any nondisclosure agreements are invalid.

d)

Yes. It is understood that consulting engineers often work for competing clients, and that some knowledge transfer is inevitable.

88.

An engineering firm receives much of its revenue from community construction projects. Which of the following activities would be ethical for the firm to participate in?

a)

Contribute to the campaigns of local politicians.

b)

Donate money to the city council to help finance the building of a new city park.

c)

Encourage employees to volunteer in community organizations.

d)

Rent billboards to increase the company’s name recognition.

89.

A building designed by an engineer-architect team leaks during heavy rains. The building’s owner may not be able to recover the cost of repairs because of

a)

an act-of God clause in the owner’s building insurance policy.

b)

a hold-harmless clause in the contract between the engineer and the architect.

c)

the statute of limitations.

d)

insolvency of the construction bonding company.

90.

Rebecca works for a company in its laboratory division. She is required to keep accurate records of the results of her experimental work. What is the first thing Rebecca should log into her lab notebook?

a)

her name

b)

her position

c)

the date and time

d)

her supervisor’s name

91.

You are engineer in charge of receiving bids for an upcoming project. One of the contractors bidding the job is your former employer. The former employer laid you off in a move to cut costs. Which of the following should you do? I. say nothing II. inform your present employer of the situation III. remain objective when reviewing the bids

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II only

d)

II and III

92.

To whom/what is a registered engineer’s foremost responsibility?

a)

client

b)

employer

c)

state and federal laws

d)

public welfare

93.

If one is aware that a registered engineer willfully violates a state’s rule of professional conduct, one should

a)

do nothing.

b)

report the violation to the state’s engineering registration board.

c)

report the violation to the employer.

d)

report the violation to the parties it affects.

94.

Which of the following acts would normally not be permitted by an engineering code of conduct?

a)

revealing facts, data or information obtained in a professional capacity without the consent of the client or employer

b)

approving and sealing only those documents and surveys that conform to accepted engineering standards

c)

providing the state board information of a violation of its engineering code of conduct by a registered engineer

d)

undertaking assignments requiring assistance to complete some elements outside your area of expertise

95.

Which would be considered an ethical gift for an engineer to accept from a supplier?

a)

paid trip to an industry trade show

b)

ticket for a trip to Europe

c)

coffee mug with supplier’s corporate logo

d)

a $100 check

96.

In dealing with suppliers, an engineer may

a)

unduly delay vendor performance if the client agrees

b)

spend personal time outside of the contract to ensure adequate performance

c)

prepare plans containing ambiguous design-build references as cost-saving measures

d)

enforce plans and specifications to the letter, without regard to fairness

97.

You are a city engineer in charge of receiving bids on behalf of the city council. A contractor’s bid arrives with two tickets to a professional football game. The bid is the lowest received. What should you do?

a)

Return the tickets and accept the bid.

b)

Return the tickets and reject the bid.

c)

Discard the tickets and accept the bid.

d)

Discard the tickets and reject the bid.

98.

Mr. S.W. Frank, PE, is the owner and founder of Frank and Sons Engineering, Inc., a state corporation in compliance with state laws. None of Mr. Frank’s sons or employees are professional engineers. Mr. Frank, now 94 years old and with failing eyesight, comes into office daily and asks questions about the projects. When his sons complete their reports and plans, he applies engineer’s seal (stamp) to them.

a)

This mode of operation is permitted as long as the company’s name contains Mr. Frank’s name.

b)

This mode of operation is permitted as long as Mr. Frank’s sons work for him.

c)

This mode of operation is permitted as long as Mr. Frank continues to ask questions about the projects.

d)

This mode of operation is not permitted.

99.

Seventeen years ago, Susan designed a corrugated steel culvert for a rural road. Her work was accepted and paid for by the county engineering department. Last winter, the culvert collapsed as a loaded logging truck passed over. Although there were no injuries, there was damage to the truck and roadway, and the county tried unsuccessfully to collect on Susan’s company’s bond. The judge denied the claim on the basis that the work was done too long ago. This defense is known as

a)

privity of contract

b)

duplicity of liability

c)

statute of limitations

d)

caveat emptor

100.

What is the best description of “going along with the crowd” and “doing what the Romans do”?

a)

ethical behavior

b)

legal behavior

c)

moral behavior

d)

mob action