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APP JAN 2026

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Below are navigation facilities exist in Djalaluddin Airport, except..

a)

VOR

b)

ILS

c)

NDB

d)

GNSS

2.

Frequency of VOR/DME Gorontalo is

a)

113.5 MHz

b)

113.3 MHz

c)

115.3 MHz

d)

115.5 MHz

3.

Frequency of ILS Gorontalo is

a)

110.10 MHz

b)

111.01 MHz

c)

110.10 MHz

d)

110.01 MHz

4.

Based on the AIP, the operating hours for GTL VOR/DME are …

a)

2300-0900

b)

2100-1100

c)

24 Hours

d)

2100-0900

5.

What is the primary function of DME for approach control operation..

a)

Provide heading guidance

b)

Determine aircraft altitude

c)

Provide distance information from a ground station

d)

Transmit weather information

6.

Primary and Secondary Frequency in Djalaluddin tower are

a)

122.2 MHz and 118.3 MHz

b)

122.6 MHz and 118.6 MHz

c)

122.6 MHz and 118.3 MHz

d)

122.2 MHz and 118.6 MHz

7.

For an aircraft coming from radial 200, the correct MSA will be…

a)

8900

b)

8400

c)

5500

d)

3800

8.

For an aircraft coming from radial 300, the correct MSA will be…

a)

8900

b)

8400

c)

5500

d)

3800

9.

If arriving aircraft is using the ILS approach and has left point PIPOK to commence on radial 128, their correct altitude should be…ft

a)

6000

b)

5000

c)

4000

d)

3000

10.

Point UDEVA located on radial….GTL

a)

316

b)

306

c)

216

d)

206

11.

Point OLSAG located on radial….GTL

a)

136

b)

147

c)

163

d)

174

12.

What does Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OCA) means

a)

Minimum altitude that provides obstacle and terrain clearance

b)

Altitude defining controlled airspace limits

c)

Minimum en route cruising altitude

d)

Altitude used for aircraft separation

13.

Minimum flight altitude for an aircraft destination to WAMM using W51 is

a)

GND/WATER

b)

6000

c)

10000

d)

F240

14.

A pilot reports wind shear on final approach. What should the controller do?

a)

Ignore the report if wind is within limits

b)

Relay the information to other aircraft

c)

Reduce runway separation

d)

Cancel all departures

15.

Based on Airport Regulation in AIP, maximum Take off and Landing aircraft type in Djalaludin airport is…

a)

B737-800

b)

B737-600

c)

B777

d)

B737-900

16.

80% of the airspace capacity per hour in the Gorontalo sector is..

a)

8

b)

7

c)

6

d)

9

17.

90% of the runway capacity per hour in the Gorontalo is..

a)

8

b)

7

c)

6

d)

9

18.

Why do different aircraft performance characteristics affect approach sequencing?

a)

Aircraft have different climb and descent capabilities

b)

Faster aircraft require longer runways

c)

Performance differences are irrelevant during approach

d)

Only heavy aircraft require separation

19.

Why must approach controllers consider wake turbulence when sequencing arriving aircraft?

a)

To reduce controller workload

b)

To allow aircraft to land closer together

c)

To ensure safety between different aircraft categories

d)

To increase arrival rate

20.

Which airspace class provides advisory service but no full ATC separation?

a)

Class B

b)

Class C

c)

Class F

d)

Class G

21.

Which airspace class may exist where ATC service is provided to IFR flights only, while VFR flights are not required to contact ATC?

a)

Class B

b)

Class C

c)

Class D

d)

Class E

22.

Which TMA is directly adjacent to GTO TMA?

a)

PALU TMA

b)

UJUNG PANDANG TMA

c)

KENDARI TMA

d)

TERNATE TMA

23.

Following points located exactly on the boundary between Gorontalo and Manado TMA, except

a)

ARITO

b)

GOTSA

c)

GONTA

d)

LUANG

24.

Main purpose of airspace classification is..

a)

Separate civil and military aircraft

b)

Standardize aircraft performance requirements

c)

Ensure safety and orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Limit access to certain aircraft types

25.

Why is Class G airspace classified as uncontrolled?

a)

Because no flights are permitted

b)

Because ATC separation is not provided

c)

Because IFR flight is prohibited

d)

Because radar cannot be used

26.

How do lateral and vertical airspace limits support coordination between ATC units?

a)

Reducing the need for communication

b)

By clearly defining control responsibility and transfer points

c)

By increasing aircraft spacing automatically

d)

By eliminating handover procedures

27.

Below are the VFR routes for WAMG-WAFY, except :

a)

paleleh

b)

dago

c)

matua

d)

santigi

28.

From options below, choose the correct VFR routes for WAMG-WAFM in order

a)

PONTOLO – LOYO – BOHABAK – LOLAK – POPOH – TENGA – WENANG

b)

LOYO – PONTOLO – BOHABAK – LOLAK – TENGA – POPOH – WENANG

c)

PONTOLO – LOYO – BOHABAK – LOLAK – TENGA – POPOH – WENANG

d)

PONTOLO – LOYO – BOHABAK – POPOH – LOLAK – TENGA – WENANG

29.

The distance of the Missed Approach Point (MAPt) when the arrival aircraft is using an ILS/LOC approach runway 27 is…

a)

1.3 DME

b)

3.7 DME

c)

7.6 DME

d)

8.2 DME

30.

Choose the correct missed approach procedure when using VOR approach RWY 27

a)

Climb straight ahead until overhead GTL VOR/DME then intercept RDL 300 GTL at D15.0 GTL turn LEFT intercept RDL 180 GTL proceed to PIPOK 6000 ft or as instructed by ATC.

b)

Climb straight ahead until overhead GTL VOR/DME then intercept RDL 270 GTL at D10.0 GTL turn LEFT intercept RDL 136 GTL proceed to PIPOK 6000 ft or as instructed by ATC.

c)

Climb straight ahead until at or above 3000 ft turn LEFT intercept RDL 136 GTL proceed to PIPOK 6000 ft or as instructed by ATC.

d)

Climb on course 277° at or above 3000 ft turn LEFT direct to PIPOK 6000 ft or as instructed by ATC.

31.

Longitudinal separation minima based on distance for aircraft climbing and descending on the

same track while vertical separation does not exist is…

a)

5 NM

b)

10 NM

c)

15 NM

d)

20 NM

32.

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft climbing and descending on the

same track while vertical separation does not exist is…..minutes

a)

15

b)

10

c)

5

d)

3

33.

Except when .............. vertical separation shall be applied between aircraft holding in flight and other aircraft, whether arriving, departing or en route, whenever the other aircraft concerned are within five minutes flying time of the holding area or within a distance prescribed by the appropriate authority.

a)

Longitudinal separation exists

b)

Lateral separation exists

c)

Requested by pilot

d)

Radar separation is applied

34.

If an arriving aircraft is following an RNAV or RNP instrument flight procedure, a departing aircraft may take off on a departure path that is clear of the arrival protection area for the arriving aircraft provided that, except when

a)

vertical separation is applied until the arriving aircraft has reported passing the compulsory

reporting waypoint on the instrument flight procedure, the location of such waypoint to be

determined by the appropriate ATS authority

b)

the take-off takes place before the arriving aircraft crosses a designated waypoint on the

instrument flight procedure, the location of such waypoint to be determined by the appropriate

ATS authority

c)

the departing aircraft remains clear of the arrival protection area until another form of separation is

established

d)

longitudinal separation is applied until the arriving aircraft has reported passing the compulsory

reporting waypoint on the instrument flight procedure

35.

Which of the following correctly states the lateral separation minima when using a VOR on intersecting tracks or ATS routes

a)

Both aircraft are established on radials diverging by at least 10 degrees, regardless of their distance from the VOR

b)

Both aircraft are established on the same VOR radial and separated only by time.

c)

Both aircraft are established on radials diverging by at least 15 degrees and at least one aircraft is at a distance of 28 km (15 NM) or more from the facility.

d)

Both aircraft are established on radials diverging by at least 20 degrees, provided radar separation is applied.

36.

Essential traffic information shall includes the following elements, except:

a)

fuel endurance remaining of the aircraft concerned

b)

direction of flight of aircraft concerned

c)

type and wake turbulence category (if relevant) of aircraft concerned

d)

cruising level, estimated time over nearest reporting point, and actual position of aircraft concerned

37.

What is the main difference between RNAV and RNP?

a)

RNAV is only used for approach procedures

b)

RNAV requires on board performance monitoring and alerting, RNP does not

c)

RNP requires on board performance monitoring and alerting, RNAV does not

d)

RNP does not require operational approval

38.

What is the purpose of providing Expected Approach Time (EAT) to arriving aircraft?

a)

To inform pilots about the active runway

b)

To help arrival sequencing and traffic delays

c)

To provide aircraft approach path

d)

To reduce controller workload

39.

Why must ATC be familiar with the aerodrome emergency plan?

a)

To perform rescue operations directly

b)

To manage aircraft maintenance activities

c)

To investigate aircraft accidents

d)

To provide accurate information and support emergency response

40.

Why is accurate and timely information from ATC important during search and rescue operations?

a)

To support effective decision making by rescue units

b)

To increase flight efficiency

c)

To reduce pilot workload

d)

To eliminate communication

41.

Explain the difference between primary and secondary frequencies and their significance in having both of them in ATS operations

4 lines
42.

What could happen if an ATC unit operated beyond its lateral or vertical airspace limits without coordinating with adjacent unit?

4 lines
43.

Why must we, as ATC, anticipate missed approach procedures especially during poor weather conditions?

4 lines
44.

The current weather condition at Djalaluddin Airport is heavy rain with visibility of 500 meters. Incoming traffic BTK6244 is descending to A100 and had previously requested an RNP approach. The ATC on duty instructs BTK6244 to hold over point PIPOK and maintain A100. BTK6244 complies with the instruction and requests information regarding weather improvement in order to plan their next action. Who are the parties or units that need to be coordinated in this situation? And IF BTK6244 requests diversion, what is the procedure?

4 lines
45.

Explain how the use of STAR supports both traffic flow management and safety?

4 lines
46.

What is the difference between visual descend and visual approach?

4 lines
47.

Explain the procedures for handling the operation of unmanned aircraft in relation to air navigation services, in accordance with the applicable Standard Operating Procedures

4 lines
48.

Why is effective coordination essential between ATC and emergency services during an aircraft emergency?

4 lines
49.

“The current time is 06:03. Inbound traffic ATR 72 PKAAA, route WAAA–WAMG, has an ETA of 05:30. The last communication with ATC was at 05:11. The last reported position was proceeding to PIPOK, crossing radial 180 at 50 NM, maintaining FL150. Radio communication attempts on the assigned frequency are unsuccessful, and no distress message or abnormal information has been received. There is also overflying traffic PKBBB, route WAMM–WAAA, at FL180, estimating LUANG at 06:13”

 

How would you classify the above case, and as an ATC, what actions would you take?

4 lines
50.

An aircraft B737, callsign PKCCC, route WAAA-WAMG instructed by ATC to descend to F150, at passing F200 at on route they report rapid cabin depressurization and requests an immediate emergency descent to A100. There is other traffic PKDDD also B737 who is sequence number one, last position is passing F140, 10 nm to PIPOK crossing radial 170, also controller already give PKDDD clearance for approach

 

How would you handle this situation? (It should be noted that PKCCC did not transmit any distress message using “MAYDAY”)

4 lines