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Cosmetology II SGO

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of the integumentary system?

a)

The integumentary system provides protective covering and regulates body temperature.

b)

The integumentary system coordinates all other body systems, allowing them to work efficiently and react to the environment.

c)

The integumentary system controls blood movement throughout the body.

d)

The integumentary system makes blood and oxygen available to body structures.

2.

A cosmetologist is designing a new eye makeup style for a client. Which bones will affect the appearance of the eye makeup that is applied?

a)

the zygomatic bones and the lacrimal bones

b)

the parietal bone and the occipital bone

c)

the metacarpus and the phalanges

d)

the metatarsals and the tarsals

3.

Which of these sets of bones is found in the arms and hands?

a)

phalanges, metacarpus, and radius

b)

phalanges, metatarsals, and talus

c)

fibula, tibia, and patella

d)

thorax, sternum, and clavicle

4.

A cosmetologist is performing a hand massage during a manicure service. Which scenario describes a correct approach?

a)

When massaging the adductors, pressure is directed from the muscle’s origin to the insertion.

b)

When massaging the soleus, pressure is directed from the muscle’s insertion to the origin.

c)

When massaging the opponens, pressure is directed from the muscle’s insertion to the origin.

d)

When massaging the trapezius, pressure is directed from the muscle’s origin to the insertion.

5.

What muscle action is controlled by the autonomic nervous system and controls body functions such as breathing and digestion?

a)

voluntary muscles

b)

anterior muscles

c)

cardiac muscles

d)

involuntary muscles

6.

The levator palpebrae superioris and the levator anguli oris are muscles of the ______.

a)

face, nose, and mouth

b)

shoulders and arms

c)

lower legs and feet

d)

scalp and neck

7.

How do veins function in the circulatory system?

a)

Veins pump blood through the entire circulatory system.

b)

Veins carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart.

c)

Veins transport oxygen-poor blood and waste products.

d)

Veins take oxygen from air and transfer it into blood.

8.

Which of the body’s systems functions to remove waste material from the body cells to the blood?

a)

circulatory system

b)

excretory system

c)

lymphatic system

d)

digestive system

9.

A cosmetologist is discussing possible treatments for dry scalp with a client. In order to make informed decisions about scalp treatments, which body system should the cosmetologist understand?

a)

integumentary system

b)

lymphatic system

c)

muscular system

d)

skeletal system

10.

Select the body system that includes the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands.

a)

integumentary system

b)

lymphatic system

c)

excretory system

d)

endocrine system

11.

A collection of similar cells that perform a function is called a(n) _____.

a)

tissue

b)

structure

c)

organ

d)

organism

12.

The word integument means _____.

a)

blood vessels

b)

hormone

c)

natural covering

d)

gland

13.

Which sentence best defines melanin?

a)

This fibrous, connective tissue is made from protein that gives the skin form and strength.

b)

These tiny grains of pigment are produced by melanocytes in the stratum germinativum.

c)

This fatty or oily substance lubricates the skin and preserves hair’s softness.

d)

This fibrous protein of cells is also the principal component of skin, hair, and nails.

14.

Lately, a client has noticed body sweat much more than typical in the past. Which situation could explain this increased perspiration?

a)

The client has allowed the hair to grow longer than the usual hairstyle.

b)

The client is taking a new prescription drug.

c)

The client started using a new oil-based nail polish.

d)

The client is using sunscreen with sun protection factor (SPF) of 30 or higher.

15.

The layer of skin that is seen and treated by the cosmetologist is the _____.

a)

stratum corneum

b)

keratin

c)

melanin

d)

stratum spinosum

16.

Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles?

a)

sensory

b)

motor

c)

secretory

d)

central

17.

All of the following are examples of primary lesions EXCEPT ________.

a)

cysts

b)

pustules

c)

ulcers

d)

tumors

18.

All of the following are examples of disorders of the sudoriferous glands EXCEPT __________.

a)

anhidrosis

b)

acne vulgaris

c)

ayperhidrosis

d)

miliaria rubra

19.

What is the name given to the chronic skin disease characterized by moderate to severe inflammation, scaling, and sometimes severe itching?

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

rosacea

c)

impetigo

d)

eczema

20.

The following are all treatments for mild forms of acne EXCEPT ________.

a)

exfoliation treatments that gently slough dead skin cells

b)

harsh facial cleansers that remove the buildup of sebum

c)

foamy rinse-off products that remove dirt, debris, and oil

d)

toners that treat excessively oily skin

21.

What is one way that sun exposure negatively affects the skin?

a)

The natural weakening of collagen and elastin fibers happens at a much faster rate.

b)

The sudoriferous glands discharge foul-smelling perspiration, usually noticeable in the armpits or on the feet.

c)

The epidermis acquires superficial thickening in patches.

d)

The skin develops hypopigmented spots and splotches.

22.

All of the following can affect the amount of time that a sunscreen offers protection to the skin EXCEPT _____.

a)

overuse of alcoholic beverages

b)

the altitude of the location

c)

the clothing worn

d)

the time of day

23.

_____ is an allergic reaction created by repeated exposure to a chemical or a substance.

a)

Sensitization

b)

Impetigo

c)

Anhidrosis

d)

Conjunctivitis

24.

Which element of hair design relates to the mass or general outline of a hairstyle?

a)

space

b)

form

c)

line

d)

texture

25.

Which design lines are repeating lines in a hairstyle that can be curved or straight?

a)

contrasting lines

b)

transitional lines

c)

parallel lines

d)

directional lines

26.

The hair design principle of emphasis is defined as ________.

a)

the focus that first draws the eye

b)

a recurrent pattern of movement in a design

c)

the design’s unity

d)

establishing appropriate proportion in a design

27.

What negative outcome could result if a cosmetologist fails to consider emphasis when designing a hairstyle?

a)

The style could have too many points of focus, which keeps the hairstyle from having an area of interest.

b)

The style could be too small or large in comparison to the client’s head and body.

c)

The hairstyle may be too different from one part of the head to another.

d)

The hairstyle will have a pattern that is inconsistent.

28.

If a cosmetologist places a comb flat against the nape, the location where the comb leaves the head is the ______.

a)

occipital bone

b)

parietal ridge

c)

apex

d)

crest

29.

What is a problem when trying to style straight, fine hair?

a)

Straight, fine hair can appear dense, making it difficult to design a style that uses long hair.

b)

Straight, fine hair hugs the head shape, which can separate the hair, revealing the scalp if the hair is too long.

c)

Straight, fine hair becomes heavy when wet, so a style must accommodate the way it will hang when wet.

d)

Straight, fine hair lacks body and has limited elasticity, so there are limited styling options if left in its natural state.

30.

The length of sideburns should be _______.

a)

parallel with the top of the upper lip

b)

aligned with the occipital bone

c)

equal on each side of the face

d)

adjusted to appear even in length

31.

Why should a stylist cut curly, coarse hair when it is dry?

a)

Curly, coarse hair is moisture resistant, so it won’t be fully wet, making cuts uneven if styled wet.

b)

Curly, coarse hair straightens as it dries, so it will appear much longer if cut wet.

c)

Curly, coarse hair shrinks as it dries, so it will appear much shorter if cut wet.

d)

Curly, coarse hair gains volume as it dries, so hair will be more voluminous than desired if cut wet.

32.

The five basic elements of three-dimensional hair design are line, form, space, design texture, and _____.

a)

pattern

b)

proportion

c)

color

d)

balance

33.

_____ lines are positioned between horizontal and vertical lines and are often used to emphasize or minimize facial features.

a)

Parallel

b)

Transitional

c)

Curved

d)

Diagonal

34.

Each of the following is a benefit of scalp massage EXCEPT _____.

a)

increased scalp microcirculation

b)

calming and relaxing

c)

decreased natural hair loss

d)

minimized flaking

35.

A _____ draping is also known as a wet draping.

a)

shampoo

b)

color service

c)

scalp treatment

d)

cape

36.

What are the two basic requirements for a maintaining a healthy scalp?

a)

sunlight and nutrition

b)

scrubbing and oiling

c)

washing and drying

d)

cleanliness and stimulation

37.

If a cosmetologist is analyzing the diameter of hair, they must consider _____.

a)

whether the hair is coarse, medium, or fine

b)

whether the hair is oily, dry, hard, soft, rough, or smooth

c)

whether the hair straight, wavy, curly, or coily

d)

whether the hair is able to retain a hairstyle

38.

What is the cleansing conditioner that refreshes and adds moisture to the hair in-between the weekly shampoo routine?

a)

co-style

b)

curl ’n’ go

c)

serum

d)

co-wash

39.

How is a spring iron different from a Marcel iron?

a)

A spring iron has a small barrel size, and a Marcel iron has larger barrel sizes.

b)

A spring iron can operate at a range of temperatures, and a Marcel iron operates only at high temperatures.

c)

A spring iron is used to curl long hair, and a Marcel iron is used to curl short hair.

d)

A spring controls the clamp pressure on a spring iron, and the stylist manually controls the clamp pressure on a Marcel iron.

40.

If a client is growing locs and a bulb can be felt at the end of each loc, in which developmental stage of locs is their hair?

a)

beginning locs

b)

preloc stage

c)

sprouting stage

d)

growing stage

41.

Which component of a pin curl should be considered if a stylist wants to change the mobility of a hairstyle?

a)

the center

b)

the stem

c)

the circle

d)

the base

42.

Before beginning an updo, a stylist should consider _____ to build the shape, design the style, and customize the hairstyle.

a)

balance

b)

sectioning

c)

texture

d)

pinning

43.

The _____ is a classic hairstyle with a ponytail as the base that can be ornamented with flowers or kept simple.

a)

fishtail braid

b)

bun

c)

chignon

d)

French pleat

44.

When executing an updo, inspect the shape from every angle to make sure it is _____.

a)

full and unique

b)

simple and flat

c)

well-balanced and proportioned

d)

round and full

45.

Which tool opens the hair shaft’s cuticle layer so that protein conditioners and botanical oils can penetrate the cortex layer to hydrate, moisturize, and condition the hair while drying?

a)

hackle

b)

hooded dryer

c)

steamer

d)

diffuser

46.

Which of the following describes a fishtail braid?

a)

two-strand braid in which the strands are twisted around each other

b)

single free-hanging braid that uses an underhand or overhand technique

c)

two-strand braid that adds hair from the sides as the strands cross each other

d)

double-strand twisted or coil-twisted hair that is wrapped around itself

47.

What is the process for creating spiral curls on the ends of single braids that use extensions made with synthetic fibers?

a)

Singe the ends with a keratin glue hot tool.

b)

Wrap the ends with a curling rod and dip them in hot water.

c)

Add a bead to the end and heat with a ceramic flat iron.

d)

Cut the ends while moving up the shaft and soak in cold water.

48.

The invisible braid, also known as the _____ braid, is a three-strand braid that is produced with an overhand technique or overlapping the strands of hair.

a)

box

b)

fishtail

c)

inverted

d)

visible

49.

A client wants to have underarm hair removed, but the client has sensitive skin and a low tolerance for pain. The client works two jobs, spends free time in the pool, and is environmentally conscious. In consideration of these factors, which service should be recommended?

a)

shaving

b)

depilatory

c)

waxing

d)

sugaring

50.

Which method of removing hair from the eyebrows requires specialized training beyond the standard cosmetology license?

a)

threading

b)

tweezing

c)

shaving

d)

waxing

51.

For proper application, wax should be ________.

a)

hot enough to melt away vellus hair

b)

cool enough to apply without applicators

c)

thicker in consistency, like caramel sauce

d)

thinner in consistency, like pasta water

52.

A cosmetologist should avoid light treatments, such as intense pulsed light, if the client has ________.

a)

an allergy

b)

a pacemaker

c)

hemophilia

d)

epilepsy

53.

A client has extremely small pores throughout the face and skin that is rough, thin, and tight to the touch. What is the client’s skin type?

a)

normal

b)

oily

c)

dry

d)

combination

54.

Which characteristics are associated with oily skin types?

a)

overproduction of sebum, clogged pores, and open and closed comedones

b)

enlarged and clogged pores and comedones on the forehead, nose, and chin

c)

insufficient lipid activity and pores that are not visible to the naked eye

d)

few imperfections, no sensitivities, barely visible pores, and a radiant complexion

55.

Flakiness on the cheeks and temples and enlarged pores in the center of the face are signs associated with which skin type?

a)

oily

b)

alipidic

c)

normal

d)

combination

56.

Which treatment is a form of mechanical exfoliation that involves shooting aluminum oxide or other crystals at the skin with a hand‑held device in order to remove buildup of dead cells?

a)

petrissage

b)

microdermabrasion

c)

electrotherapy

d)

iontophoresis

57.

When performing a massage, which technique should be used at the beginning and the end of the massage?

a)

tapotement

b)

petrissage

c)

effleurage

d)

friction

58.

What is petrissage?

a)

a kneading movement performed by lifting, squeezing, and pressing skin tissues with a light, firm pressure

b)

a rubbing movement in which pressure is applied on the skin while the fingers and palms move over underlying structures

c)

a series of light, rapid tapping movements made by the fingertips using even force on the tissue

d)

a quick shaking movement in which the balls of the fingertips are pressed firmly on the application point

59.

A highly stimulating technique that includes a rapid shaking movement while the balls of the fingertips are firmly pressed on the application point is ________.

a)

contraction

b)

percussion

c)

vibration

d)

insertion

60.

In which direction should the muscle be massaged?

a)

from the insertion point toward the origin

b)

from the origin toward the insertion point

c)

from the length of one insertion point to the next insertion point

d)

from the end of one origin to the start of the next origin

61.

What is one purpose of a service record form?

a)

to release cosmetologists from liability

b)

to document treatment risks

c)

to record notes about the skin analysis

d)

to identify the method of payment

62.

Why is it necessary for every client to fill out a client intake form?

a)

It allows cosmetologists to document the client’s previous facial treatments and products used.

b)

It provides cosmetologists with written proof that the client was advised about treatment risks.

c)

It gives cosmetologists the opportunity to discuss directions for home care following treatment.

d)

It enables cosmetologists to review the client’s health history or potential allergens.

63.

Why is it important to stress the program part of a successful skin care program?

a)

because skin care involves more than a facial treatment at the salon

b)

because skin care requires the use of specific products to be successful

c)

because some clients will be unable to invest financially in skin care treatments

d)

because some clients might think proper skin care is difficult

64.

A condition that prevents clients from having certain treatments and procedures or using certain products because it causes unwanted side effects is known as a ________.

a)

contraindication

b)

treatment blocker

c)

counter‑treatment

d)

prerequisite indicator

65.

When a client is using an exfoliating drug such as Renova, the esthetician should avoid all of the following EXCEPT ________.

a)

microdermabrasion

b)

brushing machines

c)

light therapy

d)

peeling agents

66.

A client who has a goatee is receiving a facial treatment. What can the esthetician do to help ensure a successful outcome?

a)

Work products like moisturizer into the client’s facial hair using upward and inward movements to ensure thorough coverage.

b)

Offer to shave the client’s existing facial hair or any areas near the client’s facial hair to create a smooth surface for treatment.

c)

Discuss tips for aftercare while performing the service so the client knows how best to care for the skin and facial hair at home.

d)

Use sponges or towels instead of cotton pads on areas with excess facial hair.

67.

What is the primary determinant of whether an individual’s complexion is considered warm, cool, or neutral?

a)

undertone

b)

aging

c)

heredity

d)

texture

68.

The depth of color seen on the surface of the skin is known as ________.

a)

skin pigment

b)

skin undertone

c)

skin texture

d)

skin tone

69.

What is one of the four primary factors used to select colors that will enhance a client’s appearance?

a)

natural lip color

b)

bone structure

c)

hair color tone

d)

sun exposure

70.

During a makeup consultation, why would a cosmetologist ask about the location of an event the client plans to attend?

a)

to identify how the lighting will affect the appearance of the client’s makeup

b)

to determine the client’s makeup preferences based on the importance of the event

c)

to address any concerns the client has about the makeup routine

d)

to assess how much time it will take to apply and refresh the client’s makeup

71.

All of these statements describe proper techniques for makeup application EXCEPT:

a)

Use short, hairlike strokes when applying brow color.

b)

Apply foundation to the areas of the face needing the most coverage first.

c)

Choose concealer that is at least three shades lighter than the client’s skin.

d)

Use a contour color to minimize fullness and elongate the eye when applying eyeshadow.

72.

Which eyeshadow colors come in matte finishes, accent areas like the brow bone, and increase the width between the eyes?

a)

base colors

b)

transition colors

c)

highlight colors

d)

contour colors

73.

The procedure for applying sets of individual eyelashes along the lash line is called ________.

a)

eyelash tinting

b)

eye tabbing

c)

eyelash perming

d)

eye clustering

74.

Knowing when to take a sick day when you feel ill is an important responsibility regarding ______.

a)

your coworkers

b)

your clients

c)

yourself

d)

your coworkers and your clients

75.

______ refers to the processes involved in taking in nutrients and assimilating and using them.

a)

Nutrition

b)

Exercise

c)

Work

d)

Dieting

76.

Which of the following is considered a protein food by the USDA in the MyPlate program?

a)

milk

b)

bananas

c)

eggs

d)

wheat bread

77.

Approximately how much fluid does the human body require each day?

a)

2 cups

b)

2 pints

c)

2 liters

d)

2 gallons

78.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three most important factors that play a part in the health of the immune system?

a)

proper nutrition

b)

adequate sleep

c)

not smoking

d)

exercise

79.

Which of the following is NOT recommended for those who work long hours standing in one place?

a)

flip-flops or sandals

b)

compression hose or stockings

c)

staying hydrated

d)

proper ergonomics

80.

Which of the following should you do when your client tells you they are pregnant?

a)

Ask them not to return for any treatment until after they deliver the baby.

b)

Tell them that you can only continue their treatments at home until they deliver the baby.

c)

Review with them the chemicals being used in their services and allow them to read all labels.

d)

Tell them they must produce a doctor’s note of permission in order to continue services.

81.

Which of the following is TRUE of electricity and the beauty and wellness industry?

a)

Most beauty professionals will not interact directly with electricity.

b)

Most of the equipment that beauty professionals deal with is very dangerous.

c)

Electricity use in the beauty industry is limited to clippers and blowdryers.

d)

Advanced electrical machines require an understanding of electrical theory.

82.

Which of the following is a good example of an insulator?

a)

copper

b)

tap water

c)

wood

d)

steel

83.

Which of the following should you do if you receive a light shock sensation while using an electrical appliance?

a)

Continue using the appliance with caution.

b)

Attempt to repair the appliance immediately.

c)

Unplug the appliance from the wall.

d)

Give the appliance a short break before using it again.

84.

Which of the following BEST differentiates a positive electrode from a negative electrode?

a)

The positive electrode is called a cathode; the negative electrode is called an anode.

b)

The positive electrode is called an anode; the negative electrode is called a cathode.

c)

The positive electrode has an electric charge; the negative electrode does not.

d)

The positive electrode has no electric charge; the negative electrode does.

85.

Which of the following reactions can be expected when using anaphoresis?

a)

a closing of pores

b)

a stimulation of nerves

c)

a decrease in blood supply

d)

a hardening of tissues