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IS worksheeet 1

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following enzymes generated through respiratory burst converts oxygen to hypochlorite ions?

a)

iNOS

b)

Lysosomal proteases

c)

NADPH oxidase

d)

Myeloperoxidase

2.

Aside from the clinical findings associated with SIRS, what would characterize septic shock syndrome?

a)

evidence of organ dysfunction

b)

severe drop in blood pressure

c)

infection

d)

None of the above

3.

Mannose binding lectin in the lectin pathway with the help of MASP-1 & MASP-2 activates which complement protein?

a)

C2

b)

C3

c)

C4

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

4.

The following are cytokines primarily involved in adaptive immune response, EXCEPT:

a)

IL-4

b)

TNF-β

c)

IL-3

d)

IL-5

5.

Which of the following is a good hapten but not immunogen?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

6.

What is measured in the CH50 assay?

a)

RBC quantity needed to agglutinate 50% of antibody

b)

complement needed to lyse 50% of RBCs

c)

complement needed to lyse 50% of antibody-sensitized RBCs

d)

antibody and complement needed to sensitize 50% of RBCs

7.

Which of the following cells is NOT involved during an inflammatory response?

a)

mast cells

b)

neutrophils

c)

dendritic cells

d)

lymphocytes

e)

None of the above

8.

Which complement component allows the elimination of immune complexes from cell surfaces like RBCs?

a)

C3b

b)

C5a

c)

C3d

d)

C4b

9.

An invariant chain is initially attached to:

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

both

d)

neither

10.

The following symptoms are part of the criteria for diagnosis of SIRS, EXCEPT:

a)

Heart rate higher than 90 bpm

b)

Body temperature higher than 38 degrees Celsius

c)

Respiratory rate higher than 20 bpm

d)

Total WBC count of more than 12.0x109/L12.0 x 10^9/L

e)

None of the above

11.

Endothelial cells lining the blood vessels express adhesion molecules in response to:

a)

IL-1 & tumor necrosis factor

b)

Selectins

c)

IL-6 & IL-12

d)

Complement proteins

12.

What type of cytokine are immunomodulators, as well as antiviral and antineoplastic agents?

a)

Tumor necrosis factor

b)

Interferon

c)

Adipokine

d)

Colony-stimulating factor

13.

What complement protein of the alternative pathway fragments Factor B that has attached to C3b?

a)

Properdin

b)

Factor H

c)

Factor I

d)

Factor D

14.

What cytokine effect is exhibited when a T lymphocyte secretes IL-2 to induce that same cell to undergo clonal proliferation?

a)

Autocrine

b)

Endocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Interactive

15.

What is the positive reaction in the AH50 Assay?

a)

Agglutination

b)

Precipitation

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Color change

16.

What type of cell involved in adaptive immunity is most effective against extracellular antigen?

a)

B lymphocyte

b)

Helper T lymphocyte

c)

Dendritic cell

d)

A & B only

17.

Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen?

a)

HLA-SB

b)

HLA-C

c)

HLA-DR

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

18.

Which of the following complement controls is NOT bound to cell surface?

a)

C1 INH

b)

DAF

c)

S protein

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

19.

Monoclonal antibodies for immunotherapy was first directed towards management of:

a)

Uncontrolled infectious diseases

b)

Autoimmune disorders

c)

Inflammatory responses

d)

All of the above

20.

Homologous restriction factor can inactivate the:

a)

classical pathway of complement

b)

alternative pathway of complement

c)

lectin pathway of complement

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

21.

Which of the following tests may be used to quantitate C9?

a)

Flow cytometry

b)

CH50 Assay

c)

Both

d)

Neither

22.

There are types of light chains.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

23.

Viral mechanism to evade MHC presentation include the following, EXCEPT:

a)

remove MHC molecules from the mitochondria

b)

inhibit transcription of MHC genes

c)

blocking peptide transport by the TAP

d)

None of the above

24.

Hypercytokinemia is beneficial to enhance an inflammatory response against a microorganism.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

In what part of the lymph nodes are most naive B lymphocytes found?

a)

Paracortex

b)

Secondary follicles

c)

Primary follicles

d)

Cortex

26.

Engulfed antigen is presented to _ lymphocyte through _.

a)

helper T lymphocyte/ MHC II

b)

helper T lymphocyte/ MHC I

c)

cytotoxic T lymphocyte/ MHC II

d)

cytotoxic T lymphocyte/ MHC I

27.

The theory of cellular immunity was introduced by:

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Emil von Behring

c)

Almont Wright

d)

Elie Metchnikoff

28.

Which of the following is NOT a pre-formed antigen receptor?

a)

toll-like receptor

b)

KAR

c)

NOD-like receptor

d)

none of the above

29.

A longer immune response is achieved through which of the following?

a)

active immunization

b)

passive immunization

c)

infection

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

30.

The following are true about eosinophils, EXCEPT:

a)

Has FcεR for recognition of IgE-coated helminths

b)

Contains major basic protein in the granules

c)

Responsible for symptoms associated with allergic reactions

d)

None of the above

31.

After engulfment, the bacteria was able to escape the phagolysosome. For an effective immune response, the macrophage should present the bacterial protein through which MHC molecule?

a)

MHC I

b)

MHC II

c)

Either

d)

Neither

32.

The J chain is present in which type of antibody?

a)

IgM

b)

IgE

c)

IgA

d)

A & B only

e)

A & C only

33.

Follicular dendritic cells are found in the:

a)

lymph nodes

b)

thymus

c)

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

34.

What test is expected to have abnormal result in C3 deficiency? 1) AH50 Assay 2) ELISA 3) CH50 Assay 4) RID

a)

If statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b)

If statements 1 & 3 are correct

c)

If statements 2 & 4 are correct

d)

If only statement number 4 is correct

e)

If all four statements are correct

35.

Monoclonal antibodies have all the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a)

Purified antibodies

b)

Cloned from a single cell

c)

Engineered to bind to a single specific antigen

d)

Frequent occurrence in nature

36.

An NK cell has which of the following receptors? 1) KAR 2) Fcγ 3) KIR 4) complement receptor

a)

If statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b)

If statements 1 & 3 are correct

c)

If statements 2 & 4 are correct

d)

If only statement number 4 is correct

e)

If all four statements are correct

37.

Genetically different individuals of the same species are referred to as:

a)

Xenogenic

b)

Heterogenic

c)

Autogenic

d)

Isogenic

38.

Which of the following cells has both CD4 & CD25 surface markers?

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

Regulatory T cells

c)

Th2 lymphocytes

d)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

39.

Staphylococcal complement inhibitor inhibits complement by binding to:

a)

Factor H

b)

C3 convertase

c)

C1 complex

d)

C5 convertase

40.

An antigen that can activate 7 subsets of lymphocyte would be classified as:

a)

oligoclonal activator

b)

polyclonal activator

c)

either

d)

neither

41.

The hinge region is not present in which antibody isotype?

a)

IgM & IgA

b)

IgG & IgD

c)

IgA & IgE

d)

IgM & IgE

42.

Release of acute phase proteins during inflammation is mediated by what cytokines?

a)

IL-1, IL-6, TNF

b)

IL-6, IL-12, TNF

c)

IL-2, IL-4, IL-6

d)

Type I IFN & IL-12

43.

A phagocyte that engulfs the bacteria after recognizing and binding to the mannose in the bacterial cell wall is an example of what type of phagocyte recognition?

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

44.

Which IgG subclass is lowest in concentration in a newborn infant?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgG2

c)

IgG3

d)

IgG4

45.

A superantigen, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), bypasses the normal antigen processing stage by binding to and cross linking:

a)

A portion of an immunoglobulin molecule and complement component C1

b)

Toll-like receptors and an MHC class I molecule

c)

A portion of an immunoglobulin and a portion of a T-cell receptor

d)

A portion of a T-cell receptor and an MHC class II molecule

46.

Neutrophil extracellular traps are formed by:

a)

Activated neutrophils when microorganisms are introduced into the tissues

b)

Dead neutrophils when nuclear contents are released

c)

A combination of opsonized neutrophils and dying neutrophils

d)

A combination of granulocytes and macrophages

47.

Toll-like receptors are found on which cells? 1) Dendritic cells 2) B lymphocytes 3) Mast cells 4) T lymphocytes

a)

If statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct

b)

If statements 1 & 3 are correct

c)

If statements 2 & 4 are correct

d)

If only statement number 4 is correct

e)

If all four statements are correct

48.

Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

No MHC molecule is necessary

49.

Which of the following is not a property of adaptive immune response?

a)

Rapid response to antigen

b)

Enhanced responses to recurrent infection

c)

Specialized response to antigen

d)

Clonal expansion

50.

Which of the following specimens may be used to test for the function of the alternative pathway?

a)

Serum

b)

Inactivated serum

c)

EDTA anticoagulated blood

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

51.

IgG is normally found in the:

a)

blood

b)

lymphatic fluid

c)

CSF

d)

A & B only

e)

A, B & C

52.

Which of the following is the main contribution of Edelman & Porter to the field of Immunology?

a)

Antibody structure

b)

Monoclonal antibodies

c)

Principle of precipitation

d)

Discovery of complement proteins

53.

C-reactive protein level will start to increase _ hours following inflammation.

a)

2–4

b)

4–6

c)

6–8

d)

24–72

54.

The process by which phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance, such as a bacterial peptide is called:

a)

Diapedesis

b)

Degranulation

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Opsonization

55.

Precipitation is an example of what type of interaction between antigen and antibody?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

56.

Which antibody would have the highest avidity when bound to antigen?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

all antibodies have equal avidity

57.

Proper diet, exercise and adequate sleep can enhance which of the following?

a)

phagocytic activity of phagocytes

b)

specificity of lymphocytes

c)

both

d)

neither

58.

Which type of cell has the lowest concentration of MHC I?

a)

lymphocytes

b)

hepatocytes

c)

macrophages

d)

spleen cells

59.

What type of cell preferentially activates monocytes, macrophages & other cells against intracellular pathogens?

a)

Th1 lymphocytes

b)

Natural killer cells

c)

Regulatory T cells

d)

Th2 lymphocytes

60.

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Complement

c)

Immunoglobulin

d)

Cytokines

61.

Which of the following is an example of a natural passive way of developing adaptive immunity?

a)

Infusion of plasma

b)

Vaccination

c)

Infection

d)

All of the above

62.

All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins EXCEPT:

a)

Neutralizing toxic substances

b)

Facilitating phagocytosis through opsonization

c)

Interacting with TC cells to lyse viruses

d)

None of the above

63.

What complement protein forms the transmembrane pore that allows water to freely enter the cell and cause lysis?

a)

C5a678

b)

C9

c)

C8 & C9

d)

C1

64.

Which of the following is the C5 convertase of the lectin pathway?

a)

C3bBb3b

b)

C4b2a

c)

C4b2a3b

d)

C3bBb

65.

What type of IgG subclass can bind complement? 1) IgG1 2) IgG2 3) IgG3 4) IgG4

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 4

66.

Eosinophils recognize target helminths through which method?

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Adaptive

67.

What is the most common cause of inflammation?

a)

Hypersensitivity reactions

b)

Tissue necrosis

c)

Microbial infections

d)

Physical agents

68.

CXCL3 is an example of what cytokine?

a)

Interleukin

b)

Interferon

c)

Lymphokine

d)

Chemokine

69.

Which of the following antibodies is also a surface immunoglobulin?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

None of the above

70.

Which of the following is present in tears and saliva to control the growth of gram positive bacteria?

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Lactoferrin

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Defensin

71.

What type of interferon primarily provides protection against viral infection?

a)

Alpha interferon

b)

Beta interferon

c)

Both

d)

Neither

72.

Swelling of the inflamed area is due to:

a)

Increase in blood flow to the area

b)

Leakage of plasma to the tissues

c)

Release of chemicals from damaged tissues

d)

Increased phagocyte metabolism

73.

What complement deficiency is most associated with increased susceptibility to Neisseria infection?

a)

C2 deficiency

b)

C3 deficiency

c)

C1 deficiency

d)

C5 deficiency

74.

IL-4 downregulates the production of IL-12 and thus inhibiting Th1 differentiation. This is an example of what action of cytokines?

a)

Pleiotropy

b)

Antagonism

c)

Redundancy

d)

Synergy

75.

In normal phagocyte activity, what is the expected result when performing the NBT dye test?

a)

yellow precipitate

b)

blue/black precipitate

c)

loss of fluorescence

d)

increase in radioactivity

76.

In anticytokine therapy, the monoclonal antibodies are directed against:

a)

cytokine receptors

b)

inhibitors of cytokine

c)

cytokine

d)

A & C only

e)

A, B & C

77.

What part of the antibody is recognized by phagocytes during phagocytosis?

a)

Carboxy terminal

b)

Amino terminal

78.

A patient with C2 deficiency is prone to which of the following?

a)

Neisseria infection

b)

recurrent pyogenic infection

c)

Lupus-like syndrome & other autoimmune disorders

d)

Hereditary angioedema

79.

Which of the following is stabilized by calcium?

a)

C1qrs

b)

C3 convertase

c)

C5 convertase

d)

MAC

80.

The following are pre-formed receptors for antigen recognition, EXCEPT:

a)

B cell receptor

b)

KAR

c)

Pattern recognition receptor

d)

None of the above

81.

Which cell is effective in eliminating extracellular antigens?

a)

phagocyte

b)

plasma cell

c)

both

d)

neither

82.

Immunoassay for cytokines may be performed using which of the following specimen?

a)

serum

b)

saliva

c)

CSF

d)

all of the above

83.

Which acute phase protein is used as a biomarker for sepsis?

a)

ceruloplasmin

b)

mannose-binding lectin

c)

procalcitonin

d)

C-reactive protein

84.

When testing for NK cell function, increased radioactivity means

a)

The NK cell can lyse target cells

b)

The NK cell cannot lyse target cells

85.

Mast cells have longer lifespan than basophils.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Heterophile antigens:

a)

have different origin but identical in structure

b)

have different origin and different in structure

c)

have the same origin but different in structure

d)

have the same origin and identical in structure

87.

Acute phase proteins are produced by which organ?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Kidneys

88.

Two antibodies may have the same allotype but different isotype.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Intracellular cytokines may be detected using which of the following tests?

a)

ELISA

b)

Nanoparticle-modified aptamers

c)

Bioassay

d)

Flow cytometry

90.

After a booster shot for Hepatitis B, the patient wanted to know whether he/she is protected. What test can be done to know this?

a)

Measure IgM levels of the patient

b)

Measure IgG levels of the patient

c)

Perform Boyden micropore chamber test

d)

Measure lymphocyte population through flow cytometry

91.

What type of antibody has no interchain disulfide bonds?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

e)

IgD

92.

How is complement activity destroyed in vitro?

a)

Heating serum at 56C for 30 minutes

b)

Heating serum at 37C for 45 minutes

c)

Freezing serum at 0C for 24 hours

d)

A & B only

e)

A & C only

93.

Which MHC molecule is composed of an alpha chain and a Β2-microglobulin?

a)

MHC 1

b)

MHC 2

c)

both

d)

neither

94.

How are cytotoxic and natural killer cells similar?

a)

effective against virally infected cells

b)

recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers

c)

Both

d)

Neither

95.

After an immune response to a microorganism, which of the following cells is generated?

a)

memory cells

b)

effector cells

c)

naïve cells

d)

antigen presenting cells

96.

Which of the following is an indirect effect of antibodies?

a)

Agglutination

b)

Neutralization

c)

Complement activation

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

97.

Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?

a)

IL-1 and IL-6

b)

γ-Interferon

c)

IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10

d)

IL-3 & IL-7

98.

Defined as the resistance to infectious disease.

a)

Immunology

b)

Immunity

c)

Immune organs

d)

Immune response

99.

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement, EXCEPT:

a)

Induction of an antiviral state

b)

Opsonization

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

anaphylatoxin formation

e)

None of the above

100.

The following are anti-inflammatory cytokines, EXCEPT:

a)

adiponectin

b)

TGF-β

c)

IL-35

d)

None of the above

101.

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?

a)

VH

b)

CH

c)

VL

d)

CL

102.

What is the gold standard test for cytokines?

a)

Flow cytometry

b)

Bioassay

c)

ELISA

d)

RID

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