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Biology 112 Cell Biology Exam I & 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following represents a weak chemical bond?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

None of the above

2.

Which of the following describes a negatively charged atom?

a)

Cation

b)

Anion

c)

Electron

d)

Neutron

3.

In the periodic table, the atomic number refers to what?

a)

Number of neutrons

b)

Number of electrons

c)

Number of protons

d)

None of the above

4.

Which of the following is (are) a domain in the phylogenetic tree?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Eukarya

d)

All the above

5.

Which of the following represents the hierarchy of biological organization from most complex to least complex?

a)

Organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population

b)

Organ, organism, tissue, organelle, molecule

c)

Organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ

d)

Biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, organism

6.

A suggested, testable explanation for an event is referred as a

a)

Control

b)

Variable

c)

Theory

d)

Hypothesis

7.

Which of the following best describes the scientific method?

a)

Descriptions of an event usually in mathematical terms

b)

A thoroughly tested and confirmed explanation for observed phenomena

c)

Research with defined steps that include experiments and careful observation

d)

A form of logical thinking that uses related observations to arrive at conclusion

8.

Which of the following best describes the field of science?

a)

A form of logical thinking that uses related observations to arrive at conclusion

b)

A set of technological innovations that have taken place over a defined time period

c)

Knowledge about the natural world

d)

None of the above

9.

Which of the following is the smallest unit of biological structure that meets the functional requirements of life?

a)

Organ

b)

Organelle

c)

Cell

d)

Macromolecule

10.

Viruses are not considered to be “living” due to which of the following reasons?

a)

A virus can attack a living organism.

b)

A virus can reproduce inside that organism and cause disease.

c)

A virus is not composed of cells.

d)

A virus cannot reproduce on its own.

11.

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the properties of life?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Sensitivity or response to stimuli

c)

Reproduction

d)

None of the above

12.

Which of the following are thought to have been the first forms of life to appear on earth?

a)

Primitive plants

b)

Fungi

c)

Microorganisms

d)

Slime molds

13.

Which of the following describes homeostasis?

a)

The changing of body functions to mirror external conditions

b)

The response of an organism to stimuli

c)

The maintaining of a stable internal environment despite external changes

d)

None of the above

14.

An atom is defined as which of the following?

a)

A large molecule formed by combining smaller units

b)

The smallest and most fundamental unit of matter that retains the properties of the element

c)

Two or more subatomic particles held together by bonds

d)

None of the above

15.

Which of the following is true regarding prokaryotic microorganisms?

a)

They have membrane bound organelles.

b)

They lack a membrane bound nucleus but have membrane bound organelles.

c)

They have a region known as a nucleoid where its chromosome is found.

d)

They have chromosomes that are composed of RNA not DNA.

16.

Which of the following organizations of cells is in the correct order from lowest to highest?

a)

Tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

b)

Organs, tissues, organ systems, organisms

c)

Organs, tissues, organisms, organ systems

d)

Organ systems, organs, tissues, organisms

17.

The tails of phospholipid molecules in the cell membrane are composed of what?

a)

phosphate group

b)

fatty acid groups

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleic acid

18.

A population is defined as which of the following?

a)

All the biotic and abiotic things living in a particular area

b)

All the ecosystems on earth

c)

All the individuals of a species living in a particular area

d)

None of the above

19.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding evolution?

a)

It is the gradual change of new species arising from old species.

b)

It has led to the great diversity of life on earth.

c)

It affects all levels of life except the microscopic world.

d)

None of the above.

20.

In which taxonomic categories are the members most closely related?

a)

Genus

b)

Species

c)

Family

d)

Domain

21.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the binomial naming system?

a)

Binomial names always consist of a genus and species.

b)

Binomial names always consist of a family and order.

c)

Binomial names always consist of class and phylum.

d)

All the above.

22.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the phylogenetic tree?

a)

It is a diagram showing the evolutionary relationship among biological species.

b)

It is composed of branch points, or nodes, and branches.

c)

Its internal nodes are points at which an ancestor is thought to have diverged to form a new species.

d)

All the above.

23.

Active transport must function continuously because...?

a)

cells are in continuous motion.

b)

plasma membranes wear out.

c)

facilitated transport opposes active transport.

d)

diffusion is constantly moving the solutes in the opposite direction.

24.

Which of the following methods do scientists use to try to explain the world?

a)

A. Inductive reasoning

b)

B. Deductive reasoning

c)

Both A&B

d)

None of the above

25.

Which of the following methods of logical thinking is (are) used in scientific research?

a)

A. Descriptive science

b)

B. Hypothesis based science

c)

Both A&B

d)

None of the above

26.

Which of the following are cell categories?

a)

A. Prokaryotes

b)

B. Eukaryotes

c)

C. Protists

d)

Both A&B

27.

Which of the following is NOT among common components shared by all cells?

a)

Plasma membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cell Wall

28.

Which of the following fibers are part of the cytoskeleton of a cell?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Microfilaments

d)

All the above

29.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the cytoplasm of a cell?

a)

A. It is composed of 70-80% water with a semisolid consistency.

b)

B. It is located in the cell between the plasma membrane and nuclear envelope.

c)

C. It gives the cell its characteristic shape.

d)

Both A&B.

30.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the nucleus of a cell?

a)

A. It is found only in Prokaryotic cells.

b)

B. It is the most prominent organelle in a eukaryotic cell.

c)

C. It contains the cell’s DNA.

d)

Both B&C are true.

31.

Which is true regarding Ribosomes?

a)

They are the cellular structures that are responsible for protein synthesis.

b)

In prokaryotes, they are found attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

In eukaryotes, they are found in the cytoplasm.

d)

They have a key function in cell division.

32.

Which of the following distinguishes plant cells from animal cells?

a)

Plant cells have a cell wall constructed of glucose molecules and protein.

b)

Animal cells have a cell wall composed of cellulose.

c)

Plant cells have chloroplasts but lack mitochondria.

d)

Animal cells have mitochondria but lack chloroplasts.

33.

Which of the following is the difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic plant and animal cells?

a)

Autotrophic plant cells lack a cell wall.

b)

Heterotrophic animal cells lack a cell wall but can make their own food.

c)

Autotrophic plant cells can make their own food and have a cell wall but lack mitochondria.

d)

None of the above.

34.

The concept of endosymbiosis is used to explain which of the following?

a)

A. How chloroplasts were originally free-living bacteria that were engulfed by larger cells and started living symbiotically

b)

B. How mitochondria were originally free-living cells that were engulfed by larger cells and started living symbiotically

c)

Both A&B

d)

None of the above

35.

Which of the following are examples of intracellular junctions?

a)

Plasmodesmata

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Gap junctions

d)

All the above

36.

The fluid mosaic model applies to which of the following?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

All the above

37.

Which of the following is true regarding the plasma membrane?

a)

The plasma membrane is composed primarily of integral proteins.

b)

The plasma membrane is composed primarily of phospholipids.

c)

The interior of the plasma membrane is hydrophilic while the exterior is hydrophobic.

d)

None of the above.

38.

Integral proteins serve as which of the following in the plasma membrane?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Pumps

c)

Channels

d)

All the above

39.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding peripheral proteins?

a)

They are found on interior or exterior surfaces of the cell.

b)

They are attached to integral proteins or phospholipids.

c)

Both integral and peripheral proteins may serve as enzymes.

d)

All the above.

40.

What is (are) true regarding carbohydrates in the cell?

a)

They are always found on the exterior of the cell.

b)

They are the third major components of the cell membrane.

c)

They form specialized structures on the cell surface that function in recognition.

d)

All the above.

41.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the permeability of the plasma membrane?

a)

The plasma membrane is "selectively permeable".

b)

The plasma membrane will allow some substances through but not others.

c)

The function of selective permeability is important to the cell.

d)

All the above.

42.

Which of the following is true regarding diffusion?

a)

It is a form of passive transport into a cell from a high concentration to a low concentration.

b)

It is a naturally occurring phenomenon in which substances move from a lower concentration to a higher concentration.

c)

It is an energy intensive process.

d)

It is present only in eukaryotic cells.

43.

Which is true regarding the selective permeability of the cell membrane?

a)

Plasma membranes are symmetrical, meaning the inside and outside of the membrane are identical.

b)

The hydrophobic/hydrophilic regions of the membrane allow some materials to move through the membrane while others are hindered.

c)

Fat soluble substances and molecules with no charge cannot pass through the membrane.

d)

None of the above.

44.

Which of the following is (are) a factor that affects the rate of diffusion?

a)

The concentration gradient, i.e., the greater the difference, the greater the rate of diffusion.

b)

The mass of the molecule diffusing

c)

Temperature

d)

All the above

45.

Osmosis is defined as which of the following?

a)

Facilitated transport using an integral protein as a channel

b)

Diffusion across a semi-permeable membrane

c)

The process of moving a substance across a semi-permeable membrane against a concentration gradient

d)

None of the above

46.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding tonicity?

a)

Tonicity describes the amount of solute in solutions.

b)

Tonicity describes the effect of a solute on cell volume.

c)

Tonicity describes solute concentration and the cell membrane’s permeability to those solutes.

d)

All the above.

47.

Osmolarity is described as which of the following?

a)

The rate of diffusion against a concentration gradient.

b)

The specific amount of solute dissolved in a specific volume of solution.

c)

Transport of a solute across a cell membrane using ATP.

d)

The concentration of water required to maintain pressure in a cell membrane.

48.

A cell placed into a hypertonic solution will...

a)

lose water.

b)

gain water.

c)

maintain the same concentration of water.

d)

None of the above.

49.

The effect of placing plant cells in a hypotonic solution would be which of the following?

a)

The water would leave the cell, and the cell membrane would crenate.

b)

Water would enter the cell, eventually rupturing the cell wall and lysing the cell.

c)

Water would enter the cell, forcing the cell membrane against the cell wall, but would not lyse the cell.

d)

None of the above.

50.

Which of the following is true regarding active transport?

a)

Active transport requires the use of ATP to provide energy to move a substance with a concentration gradient.

b)

Active transport is the use of ATP to provide energy to move a substance against a centration gradient.

c)

Active transport is the use of ATP to maintain a cell’s tonicity without the use of energy.

d)

None of the above.

51.

What is the ultimate source of energy for most life forms on earth?

a)

Heat

b)

Lipids

c)

ATP

d)

Sun

52.

Plants do which of the following during photosynthesis?

a)

Consume oxygen and produce carbon dioxide

b)

Consume carbon dioxide and oxygen and produce glucose

c)

Consume oxygen and produce glucose

d)

Consume carbon dioxide and produce glucose and oxygen.

53.

Which of the following defines a metabolic pathway?

a)

A series of chemical reactions that take a starting molecule and modifies it through a series of intermediates that eventually yield a final product

b)

A series of chemical reactions that generate heat, which is used to power the production of ATP

c)

The generation of ATP through the heat generated by chemical reactions

d)

None of the above

54.

Which of the following do photosynthesis and metabolic reactions have in common?

a)

A. Both photosynthesis and metabolic reactions involve many steps.

b)

B. Both photosynthesis and metabolism obtain energy from adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

c)

Both A&B.

d)

None of the above.

55.

Which of the following is true of catabolic pathways?

a)

Catabolic pathways are those that generate energy by breaking down larger molecules.

b)

Catabolic pathways are those that use energy to break down larger molecules.

c)

Catabolic pathways function by producing heat to provide energy for metabolism.

d)

Catabolic pathways are always preceded by anabolic reactions.

56.

Which of the following is true regarding thermodynamics?

a)

Thermodynamics only describes physical reactions that are not associated with living organisms.

b)

Thermodynamics refers to the study of energy and energy transfer involving physical matter.

c)

Thermodynamics refers solely to physical applications of energy, such as transferring heat from one abiotic to process to another.

d)

Thermodynamics refers to the production of heat to accomplish “work”.

57.

In thermodynamics, a “system” refers to which of the following?

a)

The production of heat transferred to the surrounding environment

b)

The production of energy from anabolic reactions

c)

All of the matter relevant to a particular case of energy transfer

d)

All the above

58.

The first law of Thermodynamics states which of the following?

a)

That energy can be created in the form of heat from any catabolic reaction

b)

That metabolism depends upon the production of heat to do “work”

c)

That the total amount of energy in the universe is constant and conserved

d)

That the total amount of energy derived from only biological systems is constant and conserved

59.

Which of the following is not true regarding entropy?

a)

Entropy is the measurement of randomness or disorder in a system.

b)

High entropy means high disorder & low energy.

c)

Living things are highly ordered and, as such, do not require constant energy input to maintain a state of high entropy.

d)

None of the above.

60.

Which of the following are ways living organisms meet the challenge of obtaining energy?

a)

They make use of the chemical energy stored in sugars to obtain energy.

b)

They make use of energy stored in fats to obtain energy.

c)

They transfer and transform energy that can be stored within ATP.

d)

All the above.

61.

Which of the following best describes kinetic energy?

a)

Kinetic energy is energy that is stored.

b)

Kinetic energy is energy associated with objects in motion.

c)

Kinetic energy is energy that is associated with enzyme reactions.

d)

All the above.

62.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding free energy?

a)

Free energy available to do work is considered usable energy.

b)

If energy is released during a chemical reaction, then the products will have less energy than the reactants.

c)

If energy is released during a chemical reaction, then the change in free energy will be negative number.

d)

All the above.

63.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding exergonic and endergonic reactions?

a)

A. Exergonic reactions are reactions in which energy is absorbed.

b)

B. Exergonic reactions are reactions in which energy is released.

c)

C. Endergonic reactions are reactions in which energy is absorbed.

d)

Both B & C are correct.

64.

Most exergonic reactions are referred to as which of the following?

a)

A. Spontaneous reactions

b)

B. Anabolic reactions

c)

C. Catabolic reactions

d)

Both A & C

65.

Which of the following is not true about enzymes?

a)

They are usually consumed by the reactions they catalyze.

b)

They are made of amino acids.

c)

They lower the activation energy of chemical reactions.

d)

Each is specific to the substrate to which it binds.

66.

Activation energy is defined as which of the following?

a)

It is the minimum amount of energy input required for chemical reactions to occur.

b)

It is the minimum amount of energy released during anabolic reactions.

c)

It is the minimum amount of energy released during biological reactions.

d)

None of the above.

67.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding feedback inhibition?

a)

It is the use of the product of a reaction to inhibit its own formation.

b)

It relies on a molecule other than the substrate binding to and blocking the active site of the enzyme.

c)

It can regulate both catabolic and anabolic reactions.

d)

All the above.

68.

Which of the following is true involving the “Lock and key” model of an enzyme?

a)

The substrate must bind to the allosteric site, inducing a change in the shape of the active site.

b)

The substrate must be an exact fit to the active site of the enzyme for the reaction to occur.

c)

The product must bind to the active site of the enzyme, activating the active site.

d)

None of the above.

69.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding types of enzyme regulation?

a)

Noncompetitive inhibition involves an inhibitor binding to the enzyme at a location other than the active site.

b)

Competitive inhibition involves the binding of an inhibitor that is structurally similar to the substrate binding to the active site of the enzyme.

c)

Allosteric inhibition involves binding of a site other than the active site of the enzyme that changes all the active sites, so they perform less efficiently.

d)

All the above.

70.

Which of the following is true regarding homologous chromosomes?

a)

Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes of exactly the same length.

b)

Homologous chromosomes always have the exact same genes in the same locations.

c)

Homologous chromosomes have genes that while coding for the same trait may not be identical.

d)

All the above.

71.

Which of the following best describes the function of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in a cell?

a)

ATP serves as an enzyme in most metabolic reactions.

b)

ATP serves as the primary source of energy in a cell.

c)

ATP serves to provide energy to cellular exergonic reactions only.

d)

All the above.

72.

Chemiosmosis involves which of the following?

a)

The movement of hydrogen across the cell membrane

b)

The movement of electrons across the mitochondrial membrane

c)

The movement of hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial membrane

d)

The movement of glucose across the cell membrane

73.

Which of the following fermentation methods can occur in the skeletal muscles of animals?

a)

Lactic acid fermentation

b)

Alcohol fermentation

c)

ATP fermentation

d)

None of the above

74.

Oxidative phosphorylation refers to which of the following?

a)

The consumption of ATP down the electron transport chain

b)

The use of oxygen as final electron acceptor

c)

The mechanism that converts the energy released through electron transfers into ATP, a useable form of energy for the cell.

d)

All the above

75.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding glycolysis?

a)

Glycolysis is the first step in the breakdown of glucose to obtain energy in many cells.

b)

Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells.

c)

Glycolysis begins with glucose and ends with two three-carbon sugars, (known as pyruvate), two ATP molecules and one NADH.

d)

All the above.

76.

Which of the following is the starting compound of the citric acid cycle?

a)

NADH

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

ATP

d)

None of the above

77.

Oxidative phosphorylation in the electron transport chain includes which of the following?

a)

The oxidation of NADH and FADH to generate an electrochemical gradient across the mitochondrial membrane

b)

The oxidation of ATP that is used to provide hydrogen for the citric acid cycle

c)

The oxidation of glucose that serves as the primary substrate for the electron transport chain

d)

All the above

78.

Which of the following does the term “genome” refer to?

a)

All the DNA in a cell

b)

All the RNA in a cell

c)

All the protein in a cell

d)

All the above

79.

Chromosomes are defined as which of the following?

a)

Double-stranded DNA molecules

b)

Several double-stranded linear RNA molecules bound with protein

c)

A single, circular strand of RNA bound with proteins in prokaryotes

d)

All the above

80.

Which of the following describes an ordered series of events involving cell growth and division?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Homologous genes

c)

Cell cycle

d)

Cellular metabolism

81.

A diploid cell has how many chromosomes as compared to a haploid cell?

a)

One-fourth as many

b)

Half as many

c)

Twice as many

d)

Four times as many

82.

In which phase of the growth cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

83.

Individual chromosomes become visible with a light microscope in which phase?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prometaphase

84.

Cytokinesis describes which of the following?

a)

The formation of homologous chromosomes

b)

The replication of DNA

c)

The occurrence of the transfer of genes from one homologous chromosome to another

d)

The division of cytoplasm following mitosis to form two daughter cells

85.

Which of the following are true regarding the G₀ phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Chromosomes are being replicated.

b)

The cell is preparing to divide cytoplasm from one cell into two cells.

c)

The cells are not actively dividing.

d)

None of the above.

86.

Which phase of the cell cycle is referred to as interphase?

a)

G₁-phase

b)

S-phase

c)

G₂-phase

d)

All the above

87.

Which of the following takes place during the mitotic phase?

a)

A. Mitosis

b)

B. Cytokinesis

c)

C. Interphase

d)

Both A&B

88.

Which of the following describes the difference in cytokinesis between plant and animal cells?

a)

Plant cells form a cell plate from Golgi vesicles while animal cells do not.

b)

Animal cells form a cell plate while plant cells form a cleavage furrow.

c)

There are no differences in the process of cytokinesis between plant and animal cells.

d)

None of the above.

89.

Which of the following describes differences in cell division between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes undergo binary fission while eukaryotes undergo mitosis.

b)

Prokaryotes replicate a single circular chromosome while eukaryote’s replicate multiple linear chromosomes.

c)

Prokaryotic DNA replication proceeds in two directions simultaneously while eukaryotic DNA replication proceeds in only one direction.

d)

All the above.

90.

Meiosis I is defined by which of the following?

a)

The division of homologous chromosomes as the final step in formation of haploid gametes.

b)

The division of the replicated chromosomes resulting in two identical daughter cells.

c)

The reduction-division of chromosomes as a step in the formation of gametes

d)

None of the above

91.

Which of the following are categories of cycles in multicellular organisms?

a)

Diploid-dominant

b)

Haploid-dominant

c)

Alternation of generation

d)

All the above

92.

Crossing over is defined as which of the following?

a)

The replication of homologous chromosomes

b)

The formation of Tetrads

c)

The exchange of chromosome segments between two non-sister, homologous chromatids.

d)

None of the above

93.

In which of the following do enzyme mediated reactions take place in anabolic reactions?

a)

A. allosteric site

b)

B. active site

c)

C. catabolic site

d)

both A & B

94.

Meiosis in diploid multicellular organisms results in which of the following types of cells?

a)

Two haploids

b)

Two diploids

c)

Four haploids

d)

Four diploids

95.

Which of the following life cycles have both haploid and diploid multicellular stages?

a)

Asexual life cycle

b)

Diploid dominant

c)

Haploid dominant

d)

Alternation of generations

96.

If a muscle cell in a multicellular organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in the gamete of the same organism?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

32

d)

64

97.

Which of the following provides the most opportunities for genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

Cross over

b)

Random assortment

c)

Mutation

d)

All the above

98.

The difference between catabolic and anabolic reactions includes which of the following?

a)

A. Catabolic reactions are exergonic while anabolic reactions are endergonic.

b)

B. Catabolic reactions are endergonic while anabolic reactions are exergonic.

c)

C. Anabolic reactions require enzymes to break large molecules apart.

d)

Both A&C are correct.

99.

What type of energy is required for all chemical reactions to occur?

a)

Exothermic energy

b)

Endothermic energy

c)

Activation energy

d)

None of the above.

100.

Why is lactic acid fermentation important in metabolism?

a)

It serves to regenerate 2NAD+ from 2 NADH.

b)

It provides a reserve supply of ATP.

c)

It serves as a form of anaerobic respiration in oxygen-starved muscle cells.

d)

None of the above.