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Second Trimester 3/3

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are the fetal eyes and orbits evaluated during an ultrasound exam?

a)

To determine fetal presentation and measure placental thickness

b)

To assist with fetal dating and detect facial anomalies

c)

To measure placental thickness and to assist with fetal dating

d)

To assess amniotic fluid volume and detect facial anomalies

2.

Measurements of the fetal orbits are primarily used for which purpose?

a)

Dating the fetus and identifying abnormal orbital spacing

b)

Estimating fetal weight and dating the fetus

c)

Confirming fetal gender and estimating fetal weight

d)

Measuring skull thickness and identifying abnormal orbital spacing

3.

Abnormal spacing of the fetal orbits may indicate which conditions?

a)

Microcephaly and macrocephaly

b)

Anencephaly and spina bifida

c)

Hypotelorism and hypertelorism

d)

Hydrocephalus and ventriculomegaly

4.

Which measurements are used when evaluating fetal orbital spacing?

a)

Biocular distance and interocular distance

b)

Biparietal and occipitofrontal diameters

c)

Head circumference and facial angle

d)

Nasal bone length and mandibular width

5.

Which fetal facial structures are evaluated when imaging the lower part of the face?

a)

Orbits and lenses

b)

Nares and upper lip

c)

Mandible and maxilla only

d)

Ears and temporal bones

6.

In which imaging plane is the lower fetal face best visualized?

a)

Oblique coronal section

b)

Axial plane

c)

Midline sagittal plane

d)

Transverse facial plane

7.

What congenital abnormalities can be detected when evaluating the lower fetal face?

a)

Microcephaly

b)

Craniosynostosis

c)

Cleft lip or cleft palate

d)

Hydrocephalus

8.

What fetal functions can be assessed when visualizing the tongue during facial during?

a)

Breathing movements

b)

Sucking and swallowing

c)

Heart rate

d)

Limb movement

9.

Which imaging plane allows visualization of the fetal chin and nose?

a)

Midline sagittal view

b)

Coronal plane through the lips

c)

Axial plane through the orbits

d)

Oblique transverse plane

10.

What part of the fetal ear can be visualized on ultrasound?

a)

Cochlea

b)

Auditory canal

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

Pinna of the ear

11.

How does the appearance of the fetal ear change as gestational age increases?

a)

It remains smooth throughout pregnancy

b)

It is ridged early and becomes smooth with decreasing gestational age

c)

It becomes smaller and less defined with decreasing gestational age

d)

It is smooth initially and becomes ridged with increasing gestational age

12.

In which imaging planes should the fetal neck be examined on ultrasound?

(a)  

13.

What is the primary abnormal finding the sonographer is assessing for when evaluating the fetal neck?

a)

Cardiac malposition

b)

Abnormal lung echogenicity

c)

Spinal cervature

d)

Protrusions or masses arising from the neck

14.

Which additional structures may be evaluated during a third-trimester fetal neck assessment?

a)

Cerebellum and cisterna magna

b)

Normal neck vasculature and thyroid gland

c)

Facial bone and cerebellum

d)

Renal arteries and thyroid gland

15.

By what gestational age can the fetal vertebrae typically by well visualized on ultrasound?

a)

10 weeks

b)

12 weeks

c)

16 weeks

d)

20 weeks

16.

In the transverse plane, how many ossification centers should be seen in the fetal spine?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

One

17.

How are the ossification centers of the fetal spine arranged in the transverse plane?

a)

Two anterior and one posterior to the spinal canal

b)

Two posterior and one anterior

c)

Three posterior to the spinal canal

d)

One lateral and two anterior

18.

How do normal fetal vertebral ossification centers appear sonographically?

a)

Hypoechoic

b)

Anechoic

c)

Moderately echogenic

d)

Highly echogenic

19.

Which sonographic findings is suggestive of a neural tube defect?

a)

Splaying of the posterior elements

b)

Absence of vertebral body

c)

Fusion of posterior elements

d)

Decreased echogenicity of the spine

20.

In the sagittal plane, how many echogenic lines should the fetal spine show?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Two

21.

What lies between the anterior and posterior spinal lines?

a)

Echogenic tissue

b)

Anechoic spinal canal

c)

Hypoechoic cord

d)

Amniotic fluid

22.

Why must the spinal lines be continuous and unbroken?

a)

To rule out neural tube defects

b)

To confirm fetal position

c)

To assess fetal growth

d)

To estimate gestational age

23.

Which portion of the fetal spine widens toward the skull base?

a)

Thoracic

b)

Lumbar

c)

Cervical

d)

Sacral

24.

As the spine approaches the lumbar-sacral region, the ossified elements:

a)

Converge

b)

Disappear

c)

Diverge

d)

Remain parallel

25.

In which imaging plane is the fetal spine evaluated to visualize two echogenic posterior ossification centers?

a)

Axial

b)

Sagittal

c)

Oblique

d)

Coronal

26.

What sonographic findings is characteristic of the fetal spine when imaged in the coronal plane?

a)

Single hyperechoic midline structure

b)

Two echogenic posterior ossification centers

c)

Vertebral bodies with ribs

d)

Spinal canal only

27.

From which regions of the fetus can the spine be imaged on ultrasound?

a)

Cervical region through the lumbosacral region

b)

Thoracic region through the cerebellum region

c)

Cranial to thoracic region only

d)

Lumber region only

28.

Which imaging plane is preferred for evaluating the fetal spine?

a)

Axial

b)

Coronal

c)

Transverse

d)

Sagittal

29.

What major structures should be evaluated when imaging the fetal chest?

a)

Liver, stomach, and spleen

b)

Bony elements, lungs, and heart

c)

Kidneys, adrenal glands, and body elements

d)

Bladder, bowel, and spleen

30.

How do fetal lungs typically appear on ultrasound in terms of structure and location?

a)

Solid masses location between the ribs and the heart

b)

Cystic structures located posterior to the spine

c)

Fluid-filled structures adjacent to the diaphragm

d)

Air-filled organs anterior to the sternum

31.

How does the echogenicity of the fetal lungs change throughout gestation when compared to the fetal liver?

a)

Hyperechoic to the liver early in pregnancy and isoechoic later

b)

Isoechoic or slightly hypoechoic to the liver early, becoming hyperechoic later in fetal life

c)

Consistently hypoechoic compared to the liver throughout gestation

d)

Anechoic in later fetal life, and hyperechoic to the liver only after birth

32.

Can fetal lung maturity be determined by ultrasound imaging?

a)

Yes, by evaluating lung echogenicity

b)

Yes, by measuring lung size

c)

No, lung maturity cannot be determined by ultrasound

d)

No, lung maturity can be determined by ultrasound

33.

What test is used to assess fetal lung maturity?

a)

Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio

b)

Alpha-fetoprotein levels

c)

Biophysical profile score

d)

Amniotic fluid index

34.

What is the function of the fetal diaphragm?

a)

Separates the pelvic cavity from the abdomen

b)

Support the lungs

c)

Separates the heart from the lungs

d)

Divides the abdomen from the thorax

35.

By approximately what gestational age can the fetal diaphragm be visualized in most fetuses?

a)

16 weeks

b)

12 weeks

c)

28 weeks

d)

20 weeks

36.

How does the fetal diaphragm typically appear on ultrasound?

a)

Thin hypoechoic curvilinear structure

b)

Heterogeneous muscular band

c)

Hyperechoic ring surrounding the lungs

d)

Thick echogenic linear structure

37.

In which imaging planes should the fetal abdominal wall be evaluated?

a)

Sagittal and transverse planes

b)

Coronal and sagittal planes

c)

Sagittal, transverse, and coronal planes

d)

transverse only

38.

What does a sagittal view of the fetal abdomen and thorax best demonstrate?

a)

Location of the kidneys

b)

Amniotic fluid volume from the posterior wall of the abdomen

c)

Fetal presentation

d)

Continuity of the anterior abdominal wall

39.

Why must the posterior abdominal wall be carefully evaluated during fetal abdominal wall assessment?

a)

To confirm stomach position

b)

To assess placental attachment

c)

To measure abdominal circumference

d)

To evaluate for spinal defects

40.

Where is normal cord insertion located relative to the stomach?

a)

At the same level as the stomach

b)

Slightly below the level of the stomach

c)

Above the diaphragm

d)

At the level of the kidneys

41.

In which imaging plane should cord insertion be documented?

a)

TRV

b)

SAG

c)

Oblique

d)

COR

42.

The intrahepatic portion of the umbilical vein is best visualized in which plane?

a)

SAG

b)

COR

c)

TRV

d)

Oblique

43.

Where are fetal kidneys located on ultrasound?

a)

Cranial to the stomach

b)

Posterior to the bladder

c)

Within the liver

d)

Caudal to the stomach on either side of the spine

44.

By what gestational age can fetal kidneys usually be visualized?

a)

15-16 weeks

b)

13-14 weeks

c)

20 weeks

d)

10-12 weeks

45.

How do fetal kidneys appear early in gestation?

a)

Hyperechoic

b)

Anechoic

c)

Cystic

d)

Hypoechoic

46.

During which trimester is the fetal bowel typically visualized?

a)

Second

b)

First

c)

Third

47.

Which finding may be seen in normal fetal bowel?

a)

Shadowing calcifications

b)

Fixed dilation

c)

Solid echogenic mass

d)

Peristalsis

48.

By what gestational age should the fetal bladder be visualized?

a)

20 weeks

b)

12 weeks

c)

28 weeks

d)

16 weeks

49.

Visualization of the fetal bladder confirms the presence of at least one:

a)

Kidney

b)

Lung

c)

Ureter

d)

Adrenal gland

50.

Which long bone is measured in the lower extremity?

a)

Femur

b)

Radius

c)

Humerus

d)

Ulna

51.

Which bones are located in the upper extremity?

a)

Femur and tibia

b)

Tibia and fibula

c)

Radius and ulna

d)

Ilium and ischium

52.

Which measurement may also be used for fetal dating?

a)

AC only

b)

Biorbital diameter

c)

BPD only

d)

Placental thickness

53.

Fetal genitalia may first be visualized at approximately:

(a)  

54.

Accurate fetal sex determination is most reliable after:

(a)  

55.

The "turtle sign" indicates:

a)

Male genitalia

b)

Female genitalia

c)

Placental abnormality

d)

Ambiguous genitalia

56.

Which trimester includes weeks 13-26?

a)

Second

b)

Third

c)

First

57.

Which maternal change normally occurs during pregnancy?

a)

Decreased blood volume

b)

Increased blood volume

c)

Increased respiratory activity

d)

Decreased respiratory activity

58.

Physiologic hydronephrosis is most common in which trimester(s)?

a)

First and second

b)

Third only

c)

Second only

d)

Second and third

59.

Maternal hydronephrosis is more common on which side?

a)

Right

b)

Left

c)

Posterior

d)

Anterior

60.

What position can cause inferior vena cava compression?

a)

Supine

b)

LLD

c)

Standing

61.

What is the correct treatment for IVC compression symptoms?

a)

Continue exam

b)

Sit patient upright

c)

Turn patient onto right side

d)

Turn patient onto left side

62.

Amniotic fluid volume normally peaks at:

a)

32-36 weeks

b)

24 weeks

c)

28 weeks

d)

36-38 weeks

63.

What echogenic findings may be seen in amniotic fluid in the 3rd trimester?

a)

Blood clots

b)

Meconium

c)

Vernix

d)

Calcifications

64.

Which condition is commonly associated with olifohydramnios?

a)

Maternal diabetes

b)

PROM

c)

Twin pregnancy

d)

Placenta previa

65.

What AFI measurement defines polyhydramnios?

a)

>24 cm

b)

<18 cm

c)

<24 cm

d)

>18 cm

66.

The most common cause of polyhydramnios is:

a)

Maternal diabetes

b)

Idiopathic

c)

Fetal anomalies

d)

Placental insufficiency

67.

By what gestational age do the amnion and chorion normally fuse?

a)

16-18 weeks

b)

10-12 weeks

c)

13-15 weeks

d)

20-22 weeks

68.

A floating amniotic membrane after 16 weeks is considered:

a)

Always abnormal

b)

Diagnostic of rupture if fetus is not involved

c)

indicative of twins

d)

Normal if fetus is not involved

69.

Fetal involvement with amniotic membranes may result in:

a)

Amniotic band syndrome

b)

Hydrops

c)

IUGR

d)

Placenta accreta