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Immunopathology

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which learning goal best describes distinguishing major immune disorder categories?

a)

Differentiate hypersensitivity, autoimmunity, immunodeficiency

b)

Memorize all leukocyte morphologies

c)

Calculate vaccine cold-chain logistics

d)

Predict outcomes of surgical procedures

2.

Which set lists the classic four types of hypersensitivity?

a)

Type I, II, III, IV

b)

Alpha, Beta, Gamma, Delta

c)

IgA, IgG, IgM, IgE

d)

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary

3.

Which concept relates hypersensitivity types to clinical mechanisms?

a)

Genetic transcription and translation

b)

Endocrine feedback loops and hormones

c)

Neural reflex arcs and synapses

d)

Allergic processes and immune reactions

4.

Which example is typical of Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Antibody binding cellular antigens

b)

Cytotoxic T cell killing graft cells

c)

Immediate IgE-mediated allergic response

d)

Immune complex deposition in vessels

5.

Which mechanism defines Type III hypersensitivity?

a)

Immune complex-mediated tissue injury

b)

Superantigen activation of all T cells

c)

Direct mast cell degranulation without IgE

d)

NK cell missing-self cytotoxicity

6.

Which comparison best differentiates hypersensitivity from immunodeficiency?

a)

Humoral immunity versus cellular

b)

Innate responses versus adaptive

c)

Genetic mutations versus infections

d)

Excess immune activity versus deficient

7.

Which cell type plays a central role in Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Macrophages presenting antigen

b)

Mast cells binding IgE

c)

Neutrophils forming NETs

d)

CD8 cytotoxic T cells

8.

Which disease is classically linked to Type III hypersensitivity?

a)

Contact dermatitis from nickel

b)

Systemic immune complex vasculitis

c)

Immediate anaphylactic reactions

d)

Autoimmune thyroid destruction

9.

Which outcome reflects breakdown of self-tolerance?

a)

Autoantibody-mediated tissue injury

b)

Enhanced pathogen neutralization

c)

Improved vaccine responsiveness

d)

Reduced inflammatory cytokines

10.

Which intervention commonly treats Type I allergic disease?

a)

High-dose iron supplementation

b)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics daily

c)

Antihistamines reducing mast effects

d)

Beta-blockers suppressing heart rate

11.

Which strategy addresses autoimmunity therapeutically?

a)

Immunosuppression to limit self-reactivity

b)

Desensitization to environmental allergens

c)

Live vaccines to boost innate immunity

d)

Granulocyte colony-stimulating routine

12.

Which planning step helps distinguish immune disorder categories in patients?

a)

Assume all inflammation is infectious

b)

Treat empirically without testing

c)

Ignore family history and exposures

d)

Evaluate mechanism: antibody, complex, T cell

13.

In the classification of hypersensitivity, which pairing correctly matches the mechanism to the type?

a)

Antibody-mediated corresponds to Type IV only

b)

Cell-mediated corresponds to Types I–III

c)

Antibody-mediated corresponds to Types I–III

d)

Cell-mediated corresponds to Types II–IV

14.

Which immunoglobulin primarily mediates immediate (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

IgG antibodies circulating in plasma

b)

IgE antibodies bound to mast cells

c)

IgA antibodies on mucosal surfaces

d)

IgM antibodies forming pentamers

15.

A patient develops hemolytic anemia due to autoantibodies targeting red blood cell antigens. Which antibody class is most likely involved?

a)

IgD acting as naive B-cell receptor

b)

IgA forming secretory dimers in saliva

c)

IgG or IgM binding to erythrocyte surfaces

d)

IgE binding to basophils and mast cells

16.

Which event best defines the mechanism of Type III hypersensitivity?

a)

IgE cross-linking on mast cells causing immediate degranulation

b)

Immune complexes deposit in tissues and activate complement

c)

Sensitized Th2 cells promote eosinophil-mediated helminth killing

d)

Cytotoxic antibodies bind cell surfaces and trigger ADCC

17.

Which statement best describes the breakdown of self-tolerance in autoimmunity shown in the illustration?

a)

Immune cells only attack microbes during infection

b)

Immune cells misidentify self tissues as foreign

c)

Immune cells ignore foreign pathogens entirely

d)

Immune cells exclusively target non-self dietary antigens

18.

In type 1 diabetes, which effector drives β‑cell destruction?

a)

IgE antibodies binding islet mast cells

b)

CD8+ T lymphocytes attacking pancreatic cells

c)

NK cells recognizing missing self on bacteria

d)

Th2 cells promoting eosinophil activation

19.

The Venn diagram of factors influencing autoimmunity most directly supports which inference about disease etiology?

a)

Infections alone determine individual susceptibility

b)

Dietary components are sufficient to cause all cases

c)

Multiple interacting factors contribute to pathogenesis

d)

Autoimmune disease results from a single genetic defect

20.

Which diagrammed factor most directly exposes hidden nuclear antigens, increasing the likelihood of autoimmune responses?

a)

Gender-associated hormonal shifts altering cytokine profiles

b)

Smoking-related citrullination increasing autoantigen formation

c)

UV radiation–induced cell death revealing nuclear antigens

d)

Pathogen presence maintaining peripheral tolerance mechanisms

21.

A patient who smokes develops rheumatoid arthritis features. Based on the diagrams, which mechanism most plausibly links smoking to autoimmunity?

a)

Enhanced regulatory T cell suppression of effector responses

b)

Increased protein citrullination creating neoantigens

c)

UV-driven apoptosis releasing nuclear components

d)

Pathogen eradication reducing antigenic stimulation

22.

A patient with thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies causing hyperthyroidism most likely has which condition?

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Graves’ disease

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

23.

For a flare of an autoimmune disorder with painful inflammation, which management is most appropriate as first-line symptom control?

a)

High-dose immunosuppression immediately

b)

Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation

c)

Physical therapy as sole treatment

d)

Surgery to remove affected tissue

24.

A patient develops recurrent opportunistic infections after chemotherapy. What is the most accurate classification of this immunodeficiency?

a)

Secondary due to inherited T-cell mutation

b)

Primary intrinsic complement deficiency

c)

Secondary iatrogenic from medical treatment

d)

Primary due to congenital lymphocyte defect

25.

Immunodeficiency leads to increased susceptibility to which set of threats due to failure of lymphocytes, phagocytes, or complement?

a)

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and cancer cells

b)

Parasites only and allergic reactions

c)

Autoantibodies and graft rejection only

d)

Anemia and clotting disorders primarily

26.

Which infectious agent is specifically listed as causing immunodeficiency by directly targeting CD4+ T cells?

a)

Epstein–Barr virus infection

b)

Human immunodeficiency virus infection

c)

Cytomegalovirus infection

d)

Measles viral infection

27.

Which blood disorder is an example of a condition that can lead to immunodeficiency?

a)

Polycythemia vera

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Hemophilia A

d)

Aplastic anemia

28.

Which drug class used in cancer therapy is recognized as a cause of immunodeficiency?

a)

Beta-lactam antibiotics

b)

Antiseizure medications

c)

Antiretroviral drugs

d)

Chemotherapy agents

29.

Which immunosuppressant is listed among drugs that can cause immunodeficiency?

a)

Metformin

b)

Azathioprine

c)

Warfarin

d)

Levothyroxine

30.

Which treatment modality aims to replace missing components of the immune system in immunodeficiency disorders?

a)

Routine antiviral prophylaxis

b)

High-dose corticosteroid therapy

c)

Immune globulin administration

d)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics therapy