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Seminar 2 Pre-Assessment CC and Micro

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which team member is the coach in a Lean Six Sigma project?

a)

Yellow Belts

b)

Green Belts

c)

Black Belts

d)

Blue Belts

2.

Calculate the Sigma value for sodium given that the total allowable error is 12%, the bias is 0.9%, and the CV is 2%.

a)

2.16%

b)

5.55%

c)

21.6%

d)

6.67%

3.

Which of the following would not be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test?

a)

Immunoturbidimetry

b)

Microscopy

c)

EMIT

d)

ISE

e)

Two of the above

4.

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test?

a)

Call and compare with another laboratory

b)

Use the numbers from official books

c)

Test samples from healthy people

d)

Look on a medical internet site

e)

Two of the above

5.

According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error, the coefficient of variation for HDL cholesterol should be on what range?

a)

≤ 2%

b)

≤ 3%

c)

≤ 4%

d)

≤ 5%

6.

Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?

a)

Colorimetric: kinetic

b)

Colorimetric: end point

c)

Enzymatic: UV

d)

Enzymatic: H2O2

7.

This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effect as the serum protein electrophoretic pattern.

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Hepatic cirrhosis

d)

Pulmonary emphysema

8.

For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall _________& and pCO2 will rise _________%.

a)

7, 3

b)

3, 7

c)

2, 5

d)

5, 2

9.

Colligative properties include all the following, EXCEPT:

a)

Osmolality

b)

Vapor pressure

c)

Freezing point

d)

Osmotic pressure

10.

Beer’s law states that the concentration of a substance is (1) ____ proportional to the amount of light absorbed or (2) ____ proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light:

a)

Directly, inversely

b)

Indirectly, direct

c)

Both directly proportional

d)

Both inversely proportional

11.

Reflectance spectrometry uses which of the following?

a)

Luminometer

b)

Photomultiplier tube

c)

Tungsten-halogen lamp

d)

UV lamp

12.

The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in solution is known as:

a)

Ionization

b)

Quenching

c)

Phosphorescence

d)

Self-absorption

13.

In chemical reaction, the amount of product formed is measured at specific intervals during a specific period and then related to the concentration of analyte in the unknown. This type of measurement is known as:

a)

Colometric

b)

End-point

c)

Rate

d)

Ultraviolet

14.

Indicator of nutrition, binds thyroid hormones and retinol (vitamin A) binding protein:

a)

Orosomucoid

b)

Cerulopasmin

c)

Prealbumin

d)

Hemopexin

15.

Variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions, including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing:

a)

Troponin

b)

Adiponectin

c)

Fibronectin

d)

Cross-linked C telopeptides (CTXs)

16.

Biochemical marker of bone resorption that can be detected in serum and urine:

a)

Troponin

b)

Adiponectin

c)

Fibronectin

d)

Cross-linked C telopeptides (CTXs)

17.

When plasma creatinine concentration is elevated, GFR is ____, indicating renal damage:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

d)

Variable

18.

When measuring ammonia blood levels, which of the following might cause a false increase in this analyte?

a)

The patient had two cigarettes 15 minutes prior to blood draw

b)

The patient was fasting for hours prior to blood collection

c)

Immediately after phlebotomy, the blood sample was maintained on ice

d)

The patient has steak dinner the night before the blood draw

19.

Catalyzes the joining of two substrate molecules, coupled with breaking of the pyrophosphate bond in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) or a similar compound:

a)

Transferase

b)

Hydrolase

c)

Ligase

d)

Lyase

20.

In the Bowers and McComb method for determining alkaline phosphatase activity, the substrate used is:

a)

Monophosphate

b)

Phenylphosphate

c)

Disodium phenylphosphate

d)

Para-nitrophenylphosphate

21.

Abnormal lipoprotein present in patients with biliary cirrhosis or cholestasis and in patients with mutation in lecithin: cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT):

a)

LDL

b)

IDL

c)

Lp(a)

d)

LpX

22.

Friedewald Formula (FF) is not valid for triglycerides over ____ mg/dL

a)

Over 100 mg/dL

b)

Over 200 mg/dL

c)

Over 300 mg/dL

d)

Over 400 mg/dL

23.

Electrolytes essential for myocardial rhythm and contractility:

a)

Sodium, chloride, potassium

b)

Bicarbonate, potassium, chloride

c)

Potassium, magnesium, calcium

d)

Calcium, magnesium

24.

Electrolytes essential for myocardial rhythm and contractility:

a)

Sodium, chloride, potassium

b)

Bicarbonate, potassium, chloride

c)

Potassium, magnesium, calcium

d)

Calcium, magnesium

25.

Sodium produces which color in a flame?

a)

Red

b)

Violet

c)

Magnesium

d)

Yellow

26.

What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?

a)

Amastigote

b)

Trypomastigote

c)

Promastigote

d)

Sporozoites

27.

The third Taenia spp.:

a)

T. asiatica

b)

T. crassiceps

c)

T. taeniaeformis

d)

T. saginata

28.

Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?

a)

Urease medium

b)

Rice agar

c)

Czapek’s agar

d)

Blood agar

29.

This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.

a)

Germ tube test

b)

Latex agglutination

c)

Hair perforation test

d)

Chlamydospore test

30.

Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?

a)

Fonsecaea pedrosoi

b)

Microsporum audouinii

c)

Trichophyton rubrum

d)

Epidermophyton floccosum

31.

Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?

a)

Paragonimus westermani

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

32.

85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2 is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?

a)

Aerobes

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Capnophiles

d)

Microaerophiles

33.

Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?

a)

Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Providencia, and Proteus

b)

Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia

c)

Pseudomonas, Moraxella, Acinetobacter, and Aeromonas

d)

Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella

34.

One of the enterotoxins produced by enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli in traveler’s diarrhea is similar to the toxin produced by:

a)

Clostridium perfringens

b)

Clostridium difficile

c)

Vibrio cholera

d)

Yersinia enterocolitica

35.

Shigella species characteristically are:

a)

Urease positive

b)

Non-motile

c)

Oxidase positive

d)

Lactose fermenters

36.

A culture of decubitus ulcer grew a gram-negative facultative bacillus. On TSI it produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows: Citrate negative, Indole positive, urease negative, ONPG negative, Voges-Proskauer negative. The organism was identified as:

a)

Enterobacter cloacae

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Citrobacter koseri

d)

Providencia stuartii

37.

The causative agent of melioidosis is:

a)

Burkholderia cepacia

b)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

c)

Moraxella catarrhalis

d)

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

38.

An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for which sugar before sending it to a reference laboratory for serotyping?

a)

Sorbitol (fermentation)

b)

Mannitol (oxidation)

c)

Raffinose (fermentation)

d)

Sucrose (fermentation

39.

Which species of Shigella is most commonly associated with diarrheal disease in the United States?

a)

S. dysenteriae

b)

S. flexneri

c)

S. boydii

d)

S. sonnei

40.

The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly progressing wound infections seen in patients with underlying liver disease is:

a)

V. alginolyticus

b)

V. cholera

c)

V. vulnificus

d)

V. parahaemolyticus

41.

Severe disseminated intravascular coagulation often complicates cases of septicemia caused by:

a)

Acinetobacter sp.

b)

Moraxella sp.

c)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d)

Neisseria meningitidis

42.
  1. What is a Schistosomule?

 

a)

Cercaria

b)

Free-swimming cercaria

c)

Cercaria minus tail

d)

Metaercariae

43.

Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to:

a)

Use of soft contact lenses

b)

Use of hard contact lenses

c)

Use of contaminated lens care solutions

d)

Failure to remove lenses while swimming

44.
  1. Autofluorescence requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of:

a)
  1. Entamoeba histolytica cysts

b)
  1. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites

c)
  1. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites

d)
  1. Cyclospora cayatenensis oocysts

45.

The microfilariae of Brugia malayi are recognized by the

a)

Presence of a sheath and two distinct terminal nuclei in the tail

b)

Presence of a sheath and absence of nuclei in the tail

c)

Absence of a sheath and nuclei continuous to the tip of the tail.

d)

Absence of a sheath and absence of nuclei in the tail.

46.

All of the following except one are best diagnosed by identification in a blood smear. Which one is not?

a)

Babesia microti

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Onchocerca volvulus

d)

Wuchereria bancrofti

47.

In the D. latum life cycle, the infective stage for humans is

a)

Cysticercus

b)

Cysticercoid

c)

Proceroid

d)

Plerocercoid

48.

It causes alveolar hydatid disease, which is a fatal form of echinococcosis

a)

Echinococcus garnulosis

b)

Echinococcus multiocularis

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Taenia saginata

49.

CSF shunt primary plating media:

a)

BA, CA

b)

BA, CA, thio

c)

CA, thio

d)

BA, CA, BBA

50.

Yellow colonies on XLD agar:

a)

E. coli

b)

Shigella

c)

Salmonella

d)

Edwardsiella