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Seminar 2 Pre-Assessment CM and Hema

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in urine. Which colors indicate glycosuria?

a)

Blue, green and yellow

b)

Green, yellow and orange

c)

Orange and red

d)

Blue and green

2.

Which urine clarity described as few particulates, print easily seen through newsprint?

a)

Very cloudy

b)

clear

c)

Hazy

d)

Cloudy

3.

Which form of biliburin is detectable in urine?

a)

Conjugated

b)

Unconjugated

c)

Biliverdin

d)

All forms

4.

What part of a microscope is replaced to convert a bright field to a dark field microscope?

a)

Polarizing filter

b)

A split aperture

c)

Iris diaphragm

d)

Condenser

5.

One of the following is a diluent for CSF WBC?

a)

3% HAc

b)

HABA

c)

0.1 HCL

d)

10% H2S04

6.

Which reagent is necessary for cytocentrifugation of CSF to increase the cell yield?

a)

LISS

b)

30% Albumin

c)

10% albumin

d)

NSS

7.

A urine sample has a specific gravity of 1.005, what is the appropriate term for this condition?

a)

Oligosthenuria

b)

Hyposthenuria

c)

Isosthenuria

d)

Hypersthenuria

8.

After a 12 round boxing game, the boxer’s urine was red in color. Other than blood, what could cause such color?

a)

Urobilinogen

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Haptoglobin

d)

Biliburin

9.

What causes the normal color of feces?

a)

Pancreatic enzymes

b)

Muscle fibers

c)

Urobilin

d)

Cellulose

10.

In manual, routine urinalysis, how are squamous epithelial cells reported?

a)

Average number /0 HPF

b)

Few, moderate, many, abundant / LPF

c)

Few, moderate, many, abundant / HPF

d)

Present / none seen

11.

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?

a)

PCT

b)

ALH

c)

DLH

d)

DCT

12.

The concentration of which substances provide the best means of distinguishing urine from other body fluids?

a)

Uric acid, ammonia

b)

Creatinine, urea

c)

Glucose, protein

d)

Water, electrolytes

13.

By far the the greatest source of error in any clearance procedure using urine is the use of:

a)

Freshly voided urine

b)

Urine without preservative

c)

Post-prandial urine sample

d)

Improperly timed specimen

14.

Polyuria, an increase in daily urine output is often associated with DM and DI, however it may be artificially induced by diuretics, caffeine, or alcohol, which suppresses ADH. Urine output in polyuria:

a)

>1L/ day

b)

>1.5 L/ day

c)

>2 L/ day

d)

>2.5 L/day

15.

Clearance tests are used to evaluate:

a)

Concentrating ability

b)

Tubular reabsorption

c)

Concentrating ability

d)

Glomerular filtration rate

16.

All of the following are soluble in ether except:

a)

Lipids

b)

Lymphatic fluid

c)

Chyle

d)

RBCs

17.

All of the following are insoluble with dilute acetic acid except:

a)

Bacteria

b)

RBCs

c)

Spermatozoa

d)

WBCs

18.

A lack of odor i urine from patients with acute renal failure suggests:

a)

Prerenal failure

b)

Acute tubular necrosis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Heart failure

19.

While performing urinalysis, the medtech on duty noticed that the urine has a fruity odor. The patient’s urine most likely contains:

a)

Acetone

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Coliform bacilli

d)

Porphyrin

20.

The color of normal urine is due to the pigment:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urobilin

c)

Urochrome

d)

Uroerythrin

21.

Which of the following pigments will deposit on urate and uric acid crystals to form a precipitate described as “brick dust?”

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urobilin

c)

Uroerythrin

d)

Urochrome

22.

A white precipitate in normal alkaline urine is most likely caused by:

a)

Uric acid crystals

b)

Amorphous phosphates

c)

Amorphous urates

d)

Radiographic contrast dye

23.

Isosthenuria is a term applied to a series of urine specimens that exhibit at:

a)

SG of 1.000

b)

SG <1.007

c)

Fixed SG of approximately 1.010

d)

Fixed SG of approximately 1.015

24.

Which of the following tests is affected at least by standing or improperly stored urine?

a)

Glucose

b)

Protein

c)

pH

d)

Bilirubin

25.

Urine preservative for cathecolamines, VMA, steroids, ammonia, urea, and total nitrogen

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Concentated HCl

c)

Glacial acetic acid at pH 4.5

d)

Glacial acetic acid at pH 2.0

26.

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall.

a)

Within +-1 standard deviation of the mean

b)

Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean

c)

Within +-2 standard deviations of the mean

d)

Within +-3 standard deviations of the mean

27.

Which characteristics is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?

a)

Removes ionized calcium (Ca2+) from fresh whole blood by the process of chelation

b)

Is used for most routine coagulation studies

c)

Is most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology

d)

Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered evacuated tubes

28.

If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible causes include that

a)

The staining time was too long

b)

The stain was too basic

c)

The buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short

d)

The buffer was too basic and the exposure time was too long

29.

As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

30.

What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone marrow with the following characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm?

a)

Rubrilast (pronormoblast)

b)

Reticulocyte

c)

Metarubricyte (orthochromatic normoblast)

d)

Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)

31.

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin

a)

S

b)

F

c)

A

d)

C

32.

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

33.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity if one population of red blood cells to

a)

Warm antibodies

b)

Cold antibodies

c)

Complement

d)

Either A or B

34.

An acute leukemia can be described as being

a)

Of short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

b)

Of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

c)

Of short duration with little alteration of leukocytes of the peripheral blood

d)

Of long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

35.

The abnormal protein frequently found in the urine of persons with multiple myeloma is

a)

Albumin

b)

Globulin

c)

IgG

d)

Bence Jones

36.

The cellular ultrastructural component(s) unique to the platelet is (are)

a)

Cytoplasmic membrane

b)

Glycocalyx

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Microtubules

37.

The abbreviation laser stands for

a)

Light-associated simulated emission of radiation

b)

Largely amplified by simulated emission of radiation

c)

Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

d)

Liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

38.

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured?

a)

Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

b)

Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count

c)

Leukocyte count and hematocrit

d)

Platelet count and platelet volume

39.

The delta check method of quality control

a)

Uses the patient’s own data to monitor population values

b)

Uses batches of 20 samples to track MC, MCH, and MCHC values

c)

Compares the patient’s leukocyte and platelet counts with his or her previous results

d)

Monitors the patient’s values within two SDs of the mean

40.

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the _____ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages.

a)

Amount of patient’s plasma

b)

Amount of test reagent

c)

Time

d)

Temperature

41.

Neither the aPTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of

a)

Platelet factor 3

b)

Factor VII

c)

Factor VIII

d)

Factor IX

42.

The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide _____ to the assay

a)

Kaolin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Phospholipoprotein

d)

Thrombin

43.

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of ____ in the early stage

a)

Factor II

b)

Factor I

c)

Factor XII

d)

Factor V

44.

The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is

a)

Factor X activation

b)

Factor II activation

c)

Factor I activation

d)

Factor XIII activation

45.

What is the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?

a)

New methylene blue

b)

Phyloxine B

c)

Solution lyses erythrocytes and darkens the cells to be counted

46.

What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for the Westergren method

a)

The diluting solution lyses erythrocytes with propylene glycol and contains sodium carbonate and water

b)

The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling

c)

Ferrous ions are oxidized to the ferric state

d)

The diluting solution is either 1% hydrochloric acid or 2% acetic acid

47.

Solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell leukemia

a)

Lymphoma, undifferentiated

b)

Lymphoma, poorly differentiated

c)

Lymphoma, well-differentiated

d)

Myeloma

48.

The reticulocyte count is 20 per 1000 RBCs. Calculate the percentage of reticulocytes?

a)

20 percent

b)

2 percent

c)

200 percent

d)

0.2 percent

49.

Prominent primary granules that are rich in myeloperoxidase and chloroacetate esterase and has a diameter if 14 to 20 mm

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Promyeloctye

c)

Myelocyte

d)

Promonocyte

50.

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is:

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Monoblast

c)

Promyelocyte

d)

Myelocyte

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