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Introduction to Garments and Sewing Tools

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Woven fabrics are primarily created by which method?

a)

Looping yarns in circles with hooks

b)

Interlacing warp and weft at right angles

c)

Felting loose fibers using steam

d)

Bonding fibers without threads or yarns

2.

Which product is a common use of non-woven fabrics?

a)

Knitted socks used for comfort

b)

Denim jeans worn for durability

c)

Medical masks used for protection

d)

Cardigans used in winter fashion

3.

Which trend describes clothing that uses recycled fibers and low-waste methods?

a)

Smart fabric development with sensors for data

b)

Sustainable clothing focused on reduced environmental impact

c)

Three-dimensional printing for complex custom accessories

d)

Biotechnology producing lab-grown leather materials

4.

Smart fabrics are designed to do what?

a)

Grow fibers in controlled laboratory spaces

b)

Create custom shapes layer by layer

c)

Include sensors that track movement or temperature

d)

Replace woven textiles with bonded sheets

5.

A key advantage of three-dimensional printing in garments is that it

a)

replaces sewing by bonding fibers directly

b)

adds sensors to monitor body signals

c)

reduces waste by building items layer by layer

d)

uses plant-based dyes to color fabrics

6.

Which practice supports proper sewing ergonomics?

a)

Setting the table at elbow height while upright

b)

Keeping wrists bent while reaching far

c)

Sitting on a stool with dangling feet

d)

Leaning forward with shoulders tight and raised

7.

What is the main purpose of taking regular breaks while sewing?

a)

To stretch your body and prevent strain

b)

To finish seams faster with fewer tools

c)

To press fabrics flatter before cutting

d)

To measure perpendicular lines accurately

8.

Which lighting choice best supports eye comfort during sewing tasks?

a)

Colored light to enhance thread contrast

b)

Proper lighting to avoid eye strain

c)

Strobe light to detect fabric flaws

d)

Dim light to reduce screen glare

9.

Which measuring tool is best for drawing perpendicular lines on patterns?

a)

Gauge used for even seam allowances

b)

Tailor’s square used for right angles

c)

Ruler used for tiny detailed marks

d)

Tape measure used for body dimensions

10.

A dressmaker’s shears are primarily used to

a)

remove stitches from a seam quickly

b)

measure hems and cuffs neatly

c)

finish edges to prevent raveling

d)

cut the fabric cleanly and accurately

11.

Pinking shears are designed to

a)

slice through paper patterns smoothly

b)

trim thread ends after stitching

c)

finish seam edges to prevent raveling

d)

cut curves on heavy denim pieces

12.

Which tool should you choose to remove unwanted stitches?

a)

Rotary cutter with circular blade

b)

Dressmaker’s shears with long blades

c)

Seam ripper with pointed tip

d)

Pinking shears with zigzag blades

13.

A student wants to cut a straight line in cotton fabric while keeping ergonomics in mind. Which combination is best?

a)

Use seam ripper while leaning far forward

b)

Use pinking shears while standing with bent wrists

c)

Use tape measure while shoulders stay raised

d)

Use dressmaker’s shears while table is at elbow height

14.

Which sewing accessory is a small cap worn to protect your fingers while pushing a needle?

a)

Emery bag

b)

Tape measure

c)

Pincushion

d)

Thimble

15.

Pins in garment making are primarily used to do which task?

a)

Create decorative seams

b)

Join patterns to the fabric

c)

Finish raw garment edges

d)

Secure clothing closures

16.

An emery bag in a sewing kit is used to:

a)

Mark seam allowances

b)

Store spare bobbins

c)

Keep and sharpen needles

d)

Measure waist and hips

17.

Which supply is used to secure clothing, such as at the opening of garments?

a)

Pattern papers

b)

Tapes and binding

c)

Interfacing

d)

Fasteners

18.

Pattern papers are best described as sheets used to:

a)

Create templates for cutting fabric

b)

Finish edges of seams neatly

c)

Hold pins safely during work

d)

Protect fingers from the needle

19.

In design, “line” refers to which concept in garments?

a)

Surface feel of woven materials

b)

Two-dimensional outline of shapes

c)

Direction seen in stripes or seams

d)

Hue choices matching skin tones

20.

Which statement correctly distinguishes shape and form in garments?

a)

Shape is 2D outline; form is 3D structure

b)

Shape is surface feel; form is color depth

c)

Shape is color scheme; form is texture mix

d)

Shape is line direction; form is seam placement

21.

Texture in clothing is best defined as the fabric’s:

a)

Surface quality felt and seen

b)

Precise seam allowance width

c)

Exact pattern paper weight

d)

Dominant directional stripes

22.

When choosing clothing colors for a person, a good guideline is to match with:

a)

Their skin, eyes, and hair

b)

The darkest tones in the closet

c)

The current fashion week theme

d)

Only the brightest available dyes

23.

Which option describes harmony in garments?

a)

All parts match in color, shape, texture

b)

One outfit area is highlighted boldly

c)

Sizes relate well to wearer's body

d)

Elements arranged to hang straight

24.

A designer adds a bold belt to draw attention to the waist. Which principle is being used?

a)

Rhythm

b)

Proportion

c)

Emphasis

d)

Balance

25.

Balance in garments mainly involves:

a)

Arranging elements so the garment hangs straight

b)

Choosing hues matching skin and eye color

c)

Sharpening needles for accurate stitching

d)

Outlining two-dimensional pattern shapes

26.

Proportion in clothing design refers to the relationship between:

a)

Sizes of parts and the whole, relative to body

b)

Number of pins and seams across panels

c)

Color temperature and the chosen textures

d)

Needle length and specific fabric weights

27.

Which choice best illustrates rhythm in a garment design?

a)

Repeated stripes creating smooth flow

b)

Large pockets matched to body size

c)

Perfectly symmetrical front panels

d)

A single bright scarf for contrast

28.

Which tool is best for measuring body parts that curve around the figure?

a)

Flexible tape measure

b)

Rigid carpenter’s ruler

c)

Folded paper strip

d)

Metal yardstick

29.

Before measuring a client, what action helps ensure accurate posture and clear body outline?

a)

Ask them to stand straight

b)

Have them wear thick sweaters

c)

Measure over filled pockets

d)

Ask them to sit comfortably

30.

For most circumference measurements, how should the tape be positioned relative to the floor?

a)

Diagonal to the floor

b)

Parallel to the floor

c)

Vertical to the floor

d)

Randomly angled to the floor

31.

Which statement best distinguishes circumference from length measurements?

a)

Circumference is always vertical

b)

Circumference wraps around body

c)

Length wraps around body part

d)

Both are taken between points

32.

Why should measurements be written down immediately after taking them?

a)

To avoid repeating steps

b)

To make tape last longer

c)

To change values later

d)

To skip client consent

33.

Pattern drafting mainly involves which process for garment creation?

a)

Sewing fabric directly

b)

Producing accurate templates

c)

Buying ready-made patterns

d)

Dyeing fabric surfaces

34.

What is a foundation pattern (block or sloper) primarily characterized by?

a)

Many decorative details

b)

Minimal ease and no style

c)

Elastic and stretchy fit

d)

Random, freehand shapes

35.

Which basic block covers the upper body from shoulder to waist for tops and jackets?

a)

Sleeve block

b)

Skirt block

c)

Bodice block

d)

Dress block

36.

A straight, fitted sleeve pattern used as a base for puff or bell sleeves is which block?

a)

Skirt block

b)

Trouser block

c)

Bodice block

d)

Sleeve block

37.

Which block extends from the waist to a chosen length and starts A-line or pencil skirts?

a)

Bodice block

b)

Skirt block

c)

Dress block

d)

Sleeve block

38.

The combination of bodice and skirt blocks forms the foundation for which garment type?

a)

Shorts

b)

Pants

c)

Dresses

d)

Jackets

39.

Which statement best defines handicraft?

a)

Programming devices to assemble factory products

b)

Designing digital models for automated printing

c)

Mass-producing goods with advanced machinery

d)

Making products by hand using traditional skills

40.

Which material is central to bamboo craft?

a)

Shaped and assembled bamboo parts

b)

Pressed plastic polymer sheets

c)

Knitted wool and cotton yarns

d)

Molded clay and ceramic glaze

41.

Which description matches fiber craft?

a)

Carving figures from hardwood blocks

b)

Casting objects in melted metal molds

c)

Creating items by weaving or knitting fibers

d)

Forming shapes with heated glass rods

42.

Which trend in handicrafts focuses on reducing environmental impact?

a)

Using sustainable and recycled materials

b)

Adding extra decorative packaging

c)

Increasing single-use plastic components

d)

Relying solely on traditional markets

43.

Which weaving technique interlaces strips in an over-and-under pattern to form a flat surface?

a)

Twining

b)

Plaiting

c)

Wicker

d)

Coiling

44.

Which technique wraps strands around spokes to lock the structure and shape sides?

a)

Wicker

b)

Coiling

c)

Plaiting

d)

Twining

45.

Which statement describes wicker?

a)

Weaving thin branches over a frame

b)

Interlacing strips on a flat base

c)

Wrapping coils around a core

d)

Twisting strands around spokes

46.

Which quality indicates a well-finished handicraft product?

a)

Smooth edges and secure parts

b)

Visible glue and uneven lines

c)

Loose joints and rough surfaces

d)

Unstable shape under light use

47.

Which statement about fictional films is correct?

a)

They require special glasses to watch

b)

They are based on real facts and history

c)

They describe imaginary events and people

d)

They must be produced locally only

48.

A movie made in another country and language is best described as which type?

a)

Foreign film

b)

Local film

c)

Propaganda film

d)

Non-fiction film

49.

Which element of a narrative film describes the time and location where the story occurs and helps create mood?

a)

Plot

b)

Conflict

c)

Theme

d)

Setting

50.

In most stories, which pair of character roles is almost always present?

a)

Protagonist and antagonist

b)

Leader and follower

c)

Mentor and sidekick

d)

Hero and trickster

51.

Which statement best defines conflict in a story?

a)

Comic relief scenes

b)

Background information

c)

Setting description

d)

Force creating tension

52.

The theme of a story is primarily the

a)

physical location

b)

order of events

c)

camera perspective

d)

main idea or meaning

53.

Drama films usually focus on

a)

advanced alien robots

b)

magical creatures' wars

c)

nonstop fight sequences

d)

character growth over time

54.

Which trait best fits the fantasy genre?

a)

Magic and mythic realms

b)

Spacecraft and cyborgs

c)

Crime investigations

d)

Realistic daily events

55.

Science fiction commonly features

a)

documentary footage

b)

slapstick comedy

c)

medieval kingdoms

d)

speculative technology

56.

A thriller primarily aims to

a)

show musical choreography

b)

celebrate historical figures

c)

teach scientific facts

d)

evoke suspense and tension

57.

Which camera shot shows the entire body with space above and below the subject?

a)

Close up

b)

Point of view

c)

Long shot

d)

Medium shot

58.

A medium shot typically frames a person from

a)

waist up through torso

b)

top of head only

c)

knees down only

d)

full body edge to edge

59.

You would choose a close-up mainly to reveal a subject’s

a)

movement across room

b)

position in landscape

c)

full costume details

d)

emotions and reactions

60.

An establishing shot is placed at the start of a scene to

a)

replace the dialogue entirely

b)

show where action happens

c)

hide the setting details

d)

confuse audience perspective

61.

Which framing places two characters together in one frame?

a)

Aerial shot

b)

POV shot

c)

Single shot

d)

Two shot

62.

An over-the-shoulder shot is useful in conversations because it

a)

eliminates depth perception

b)

hides the speaking faces

c)

emulates character perspective

d)

shows entire building

63.

An eye-level angle creates a

a)

distorted perspective

b)

dominant perspective

c)

overhead perspective

d)

neutral perspective

64.

A low-angle shot often emphasizes a character’s

a)

power over others

b)

confusion about time

c)

distance from camera

d)

lack of emotion

65.

Which pair matches the element to its best guiding question?

a)

Theme—What is the story’s main idea?

b)

Setting—Who faces the obstacles?

c)

Conflict—Where is the location only?

d)

Plot—Why is the camera tilted?

66.

To quickly orient the audience to a new city block before a chase scene, the best choice is a

a)

wide establishing shot

b)

tight close-up shot

c)

POV of running feet

d)

over-shoulder whisper

67.

A filmmaker wants the villain to seem intimidating during a confrontation. Which setup would help most?

a)

Dutch-tilt medium

b)

High-angle long shot

c)

Eye-level two shot

d)

Low-angle close-up

68.

Which scenario best fits the drama genre rather than action or fantasy?

a)

Explosions during a heist

b)

Knights battling a dragon

c)

Robots fighting in space

d)

A family coping with loss

69.

Which change would most likely turn a neutral conversation into a tense, unsettling moment without altering dialogue?

a)

Switch to a Dutch angle

b)

Use brighter lighting

c)

Cut to aerial footage

d)

Move to a long shot

70.

Which element would you adjust to shift a story’s mood from cheerful to eerie without changing characters or events?

a)

Setting details

b)

Fight choreography

c)

Credit sequence

d)

Costume laundry

71.

Which camera movement keeps the camera completely still to avoid distraction?

a)

Tracking shot following action

b)

Tilt shot moving vertically

c)

Pan shot across the horizon

d)

Static shot with tripod support

72.

A pan primarily moves the camera in which direction?

a)

Diagonal toward the subject

b)

Circular around the subject

c)

Vertically up or down

d)

Horizontally left or right

73.

What is the key difference between a tilt and a pan?

a)

Tilt moves vertically; pan moves horizontally

b)

Tilt rotates on long axis; pan circles

c)

Tilt moves the camera through scene; pan locks

d)

Tilt follows subject; pan stays on tripod

74.

Which movement physically changes the camera’s location through the scene, often following a subject?

a)

Roll over the long axis

b)

Static shot without motion

c)

Tracking shot across the space

d)

Arc shot around a point

75.

The roll movement rotates the camera over its side on its long axis. What is a common effect of this?

a)

It quietly reveals new information

b)

It emphasizes horizontal motion

c)

It can feel dizzying and unnatural

d)

It creates a calm stable image

76.

An arc shot is typically used to add energy when characters have minimal actions. How does the camera move?

a)

It locks on a tripod

b)

It orbits around the subject

c)

It tilts from low to high

d)

It rushes straight forward

77.

Which camera movement is best to subtly reveal a character’s dominance without changing location?

a)

A wide horizontal pan

b)

A fast tracking move

c)

A vertical tilt upward

d)

A complete roll spin

78.

For installing a mobile video editor on Android, what is the correct first step?

a)

Verify your email link

b)

Tap the Sign Up button

c)

Create a new project

d)

Open Google Play Store

79.

When searching to install, which app name is appropriate for either platform?

a)

Filmora or Capcut editors

b)

Photoshop or Lightroom

c)

GarageBand or iMovie

d)

Maps or Calendar apps

80.

During registration in the app, what is one valid method to create an account?

a)

Skip entering any credentials

b)

Record a sample project first

c)

Purchase a paid camera rig

d)

Use Google or Facebook login

81.

Which step correctly starts a new editing project after logging in?

a)

Press Export immediately

b)

Clear the app cache

c)

Tap the + or New Project

d)

Open the device settings

82.

After adding media to a project in the mobile editor, what should you do before saving or exporting?

a)

Use tools to trim and add effects

b)

Delete the original video files

c)

Disconnect from the internet

d)

Change the phone language

83.

Which tool is the main workspace where you arrange clips, audio, text, and effects from left to right?

a)

Trim window for cutting edges

b)

Effects browser for choosing styles

c)

Timeline panel for organizing tracks

d)

Export screen for saving files

84.

You want to delete a middle section of a clip while keeping the rest. Which tool should you use first?

a)

Split to cut the section apart

b)

Filter to change the colors

c)

Export to finalize the edit

d)

Transition to hide the cut

85.

Which choice best describes Transitions in an editor?

a)

Effects that connect two clips smoothly

b)

Tools that add words like captions

c)

Settings that control audio volume

d)

Options that set file resolution

86.

A filter is used mainly to do which task on a video?

a)

Insert shapes, frames, or textures

b)

Record narration or background music

c)

Cut extra footage from the ends

d)

Adjust colors and tones for mood

87.

You want animated stickers and emoji on top of your video. Which feature fits this need?

a)

Timeline tracks order the media

b)

Stickers and overlays layer visuals

c)

Audio tools balance the soundtrack

d)

Export tools share the final video

88.

Which audio task is most appropriate for Audio Tools?

a)

Create a frame around a picture

b)

Blend two clips with a dissolve

c)

Choose the final video bitrate

d)

Change volume and add effects

89.

Before sharing the finished project online, which tools let you choose format, resolution, and quality?

a)

Transition tools with crossfades

b)

Text tools with title presets

c)

Export tools with output settings

d)

Trim tools with cut options