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Mod 11 review

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 3585secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

  1. What is the spread spectrum mainly used for ? 

a)

  1. Increasing audio quality 

b)

  1. Reducing antenna size 

c)

  1. Increasing battery life 

d)

  1. Secure and interference-resistant

2.

  1.  Spread spectrum works by: 

a)

  1. Compressing the signal  bandwidth 

b)

  1. Transmitting only during time slots 

c)

  1. Spreading the signal over a wide frequency band

d)

  1. Increasing modulation depth 

3.

  1. Which two techniques are used in spread spectrum systems? 

a)

  1. DSSS and FHSS

b)

  1. AM an FM 

c)

  1. QAM and PSK 

d)

  1. TDMA an FDMA 

4.

  1.  What is the primary purpose of the spread spectrum in military communication?

a)

  1. To provide secure communications by spreading the signal over a large freq band

b)

  1. To reduce signal bandwidth 

c)

  1. To simplify receiver design 

d)

  1. To eliminate encryption 

5.

  1. What is the main advantage of freq hopping?

a)

  1. Fixed freq stability

b)

  1. Higher data throughput

c)

  1. Collision avoidance over short durations

d)

  1. Reduced power consumption 

6.

  1.  JTIDs/MIDS primarily operates in which freq band?

a)

  1. HF

b)

  1. SHF

c)

  1. UHF

d)

  1. L-Band

7.

Spread spectrum is based on the concept that the narrow band signal is manipulated prior to transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

  1. Spread Spectrum was originally developed for

a)

  1. Military Applications

b)

Commercial Applications

c)

Law Enforcement Applications

d)

WW2 Fighter Pilots

9.

  1. Spread Spectrum uses a technique on the concept that ____ so the signal occupies more of the radio spectrum.

a)

  1. Narrowband Signals cannot be manipulated

b)

  1. Narrowband Signals are manipulated during transmission

c)

  1. Narrowband Signals are manipulated prior to transmission

d)

  1. Narrowband Signals are manipulated after transmission

10.

  1. Spread Spectrum was invented in the

a)

  1. 1950s

b)

  1. 1910s

c)

  1. 1960s

d)

  1. 1940s

11.

  1. ______ spreads the communication signal over a larger frequency band.

a)

  1.  JTIDS/MIDS

b)

  1.  EPLRS

c)

  1. Spread Spectrum

d)

  1. SADL

12.

  1. Which Spread Spectrum technique is also known as ‘the spreading code’?

a)

  1. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)

b)

  1. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum

13.

  1. DSSS is the ________ of the original data signal with a ______ noise code.

a)

  1.  Multiplication; Slower

b)

  1. Multiplication; Faster

c)

  1. Division; Slower

d)

  1. Division; Faster

14.

  1. T/F? Spread spectrum was invented in the 1930’s

a)

True

b)

False

15.

  1. In FHSS, signal security is primarily achieved by: 

a)

  1. Using orthogonal spreading sequences 

b)

  1. Increasing chip rate

c)

  1. Rapidly changing carrier frequency

d)

  1. Randomizing transmission power

16.

  1. What determines the hopping sequence used by an FHSS transmitter? 

a)

  1. Data rate 

b)

  1. PN code

c)

  1. Time slot length 

d)

  1. Channel bandwidth 

17.

  1.  Why is FHSS considered an avoidance technique rather than a suppression technique? 

a)

  1. It reduces interference power 

b)

  1. It cancels interfering signals 

c)

  1. It avoids long-term collisions by hopping away

d)

  1. It narrows the signal bandwidth 

18.

  1. What access method does JTIDS/MIDS use?

a)

CDMA

b)

FDMA

c)

DAMA

d)

  1. TDMA

19.

  1.  EPLRS is primarily used by which service?


a)

Navy

b)

Air Force

c)

Marine Corps

d)

Army

20.

  1. What is the airborne equivalent of EPLRS

a)

  1. Link 16

b)

  1. JTIDS

c)

  1. SADL

d)

  1. DAMA

21.

Why is FHSS effective in environments with other systems operating nearby?

a)

It avoids long-lasting interference

b)

It blocks other signals

c)

It transmits at lower power

d)

It uses only one channel

22.

In FHSS, how is the RF frequency changed?

a)

Randomly without any pattern

b)

According to a pseudo-random noise code

c)

Manually by the operator

d)

Only when interference is detected

23.

  1. Frequency hopping has the narrow band signal jump to random narrow bands with a larger bandwidth

a)

False

b)

True

24.

  1. The “____” of the narrowband transmission is quickly changed according to a pseudo random noise code

a)

  1. Blue Force Tracker

b)

  1. Scrambling Initiative

c)

  1. Radio Frequency

d)

  1. All of the above

25.

  1. By how much does integrated Waveform increase its number of users by in relation to DAMA?

a)

  1. 10

b)

  1. 5 

c)

  1. 15 

d)

  1. 20

26.

  1. How fast does Integrated Waveform perform? 

a)

  1. 12 kbps 

b)

  1. 24 kbps

c)

  1. 48 kbps

d)

  1. 96 kbps 

27.

  1. Overall, Integrated Waveform is better than DAMA.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

  1. Which of the following is Not one of the operating modes for IW on the PRC-117G?

a)

  1. Multiple Access 

b)

  1. Single Access

c)

  1. Dedicated Channel

d)

  1. Wideband Channel

29.

  1. IW operation requires at least one TEK and one TSK to be fully available.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

  1. Which satellite channel bandwidth does integrated and waveform operate on? 

a)

  1. 5kHz only 

b)

  1. 5 kHz or 25 kHz

c)

  1. 25 kHz only 

d)

  1. 10 kHz and 50 kHz 

31.

  1. Integrated waveform primarily provides improvements over DAMA for: 

a)

  1. Tactical satellite operations

b)

  1. Commercial satellite networks 

c)

  1. Strategic nuclear communications 

d)

  1. Line-of-sight relay operations 

32.

Compared to DAMA, integrated waveforms increases the maximum number of simultaneous satellite users from: 

a)

  1. 10 to 20

b)

  1. 5 to 10

c)

  1. 15 to 25 

d)

  1. 5 to 15

33.

What two keys are required for IW operation? 

a)

  1. TSK and TEK

b)

  1. TrKEK and KEK

c)

  1. KEK and TSK 

d)

  1. TEK and KEK

34.

  1. Frequency hopping provides ____ ____ capability by using orthogonal hopping codes for different comms channels.

a)

  1. CDMA

b)

  1. Can and cord

c)

  1. Multiple access

d)

  1. Encryption 

35.

  1. What are each jump in FHSS referred to as? 

a)

  1. Skip

b)

  1. Hop

c)

  1. Jump

d)

  1.  Spacer

36.

  1. Frequency Hopping is a secure form of communication

a)

False

b)

True

37.

  1. Which feature allows JTIDS/MIDS to support many users on a shared network? 

a)

  1. CDMA 

b)

  1. FDMA 

c)

  1. TDMA

d)

  1. FHMA 

38.

  1.  JTIDS/ MIDS operates in which frequency range? 

a)

  1. 960-1215MHz

b)

  1. 225-400 MHz

c)

  1. 1.5-3 GHz

d)

  1. 960- 1200MHz 

39.

  1.  Why is JTIDS/MIDS resistant to jamming ? 

a)

  1. It uses high power 

b)

  1. It uses encryption only 

c)

  1. It uses analog signals 

d)

  1. Uses spread spectrum techniques

40.

  1. Which of the following is a key advantage of JTIDS/MIDS?

a)

  1. Low data rates

b)

  1. Lack of encryption 

c)

  1. Jam-resistant and secure information transfer

d)

  1. Manual message routing

41.

  1. JTIDS/MIDS is a high capacity digital information distribution system which provides integrated communications, navigation, and identification capabilities?

a)

True

b)

False

42.

  1. JTIDS/MIDS uses both frequency hopping and

a)

  1. Direct sequence spread spectrum

b)

  1. High frequency hopping

c)

  1. Indirect sequence spread spectrum

d)

  1. Plot hop 

43.

  1. The JTIDS provides information transfer with only a slight delay.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

  1. Which of the following is the JTIDS unable to utilize?

a)

  1.  TDMA

b)

  1. DSSS

c)

  1. AM/FM

d)

  1.  FHSS

45.

  1.  What is a high capacity, digital information system, that provides integrated communications, navigation, and identification capabilities

a)

  1. SADL

b)

  1. JTIDS/MIDS

c)

  1. TDMA

d)

  1. CDMA

46.

  1. SADL supports which type of communications? 

a)

  1. Voice-only air traffic control 

b)

  1. Fighter-to-fighter an air-to-ground

c)

  1. Satellite TV Transmission 

d)

  1. Civilian emergency broadcasts 

47.

  1. What does “contention-free” mean in SADL communications? 

a)

  1. Only one user can transmit 

b)

  1. Messages do not collide when transmitted

c)

  1. Messages are encrypted

d)

  1. Signals hop frequencies

48.

  1. What does JTIDS/MIDS primarily provide to military units?

a)

  1. Navigation only 

b)

  1. Integrated communications, navigation, and identification 

c)

  1. Weather data

d)

  1. Voice-Only communications 

49.

SADL stands for Situational awareness data link.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

 Who primarily uses SADL

a)

Army

b)

Marine Corps

c)

Navy

d)

Airforce

51.

  1. SADL does not provide air-to-ground combat identification.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

  1. The Airborne equivalent to EPLRS is

a)

  1. SADL

b)

  1. APB

c)

  1. JBF-T

d)

  1. DTS

53.

  1. SADL Provides beyond line of sight ground to ground communication

a)

True

b)

False

54.

  1. SADL also provides air to ground combat identification

a)

True

b)

False

55.

  1. The Situational Awareness Data Link (SADL) Integrates ________ with digitized battlefields.

a)

  1. Space Force satellites

b)

  1. Marine detachments 

c)

  1. Navy vessels 

d)

  1. Air Force aircraft

56.

  1. What does SADL NOT provide data communications for?

a)

  1.  Ground to ground

b)

  1. Ground to air

c)

  1.  Air to ground

d)

  1.  Fighter to fighter

57.

  1.  SADL comms are jam resistant and contention free

a)

True

b)

False

58.

  1. Which branch primarily uses EPLRS? 

a)

  1. U.S Army

b)

  1. U.S Navy 

c)

  1. U.S Air Force 

d)

  1. U.S Coast Guard 

59.

  1. EPLRS helps prevent fratricide by 

a)

  1. Blocking enemy transmissions 

b)

  1. Encryption voice commands 

c)

  1. Showing locations

d)

  1. Increasing weapon accuracy 

60.

  1.  EPLRS is designed to relay traffic when 

a)

  1. Encryption fails 

b)

  1. Voice traffic is heavy 

c)

  1. Beyond-line-of sight operation is required

d)

  1. GPS is unavailable 

61.

  1. Typical vehicle to vehicle EPLRS range is approximately?

a)

  1. Over 100 miles

b)

  1. 1-2 miles

c)

  1. 5-8 miles

d)

  1.  25-30 miles

62.

  1.  EPLRS is a  ____ and jam resistant data link primarily used for blue force tracking.

a)

  1. Super Military Grade

b)

  1. Beyond line of sight

c)

  1. Frequency Hopper

d)

  1. Secure Joint Service

63.

  1. EPLRS is limited to ___ operations 

a)

  1. Beyond line of sight

b)

  1. Line of sight

c)

  1. Satellite link

d)

  1. GUI related

64.

What does the EPLRS Acronym stand for?

a)

  1. Enhanced Positioning Location Reporting System

b)

  1. Expanded Positioning Line Reporting System

c)

  1. Enhanced Programing Line Rerouting System

d)

  1.  Expanded Processing Location Rerouting System 

65.

  1.  The main purpose of the EPLRS is to relay real-time friendly troop position information.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

  1. Tactical data links primarily transmit by 

a)

  1. Bit-oriented digital information

b)

  1. Analog voice signals

c)

  1. Satellite imagery only 

d)

  1. Encrypted voice only 

67.

  1.  The TDL program supports joint and combines operations for: 

a)

  1. NATO only 

b)

  1. Private contractors 

c)

  1. Civilian agencies 

d)

  1. U.S and allied commands

68.

  1. Link-11 is best described as a 

a)

  1. Voice relay system 

b)

  1. Satellite broadcast system 

c)

  1. Wireless internet protocol 

d)

  1. Secure digital point-point data link

69.

  1. Tactical data links were formerly known as

a)

  1. tactical analog links

b)

  1. secure voice networks

c)

  1. tactical digital info links

d)

  1. satellite relay system    

70.

  1. ________ are standardized communication links used for transmitting digital information between the US and its allies

a)

  1. TDLs

b)

  1.  SADLs

c)

  1.  JTIDs

d)

  1. EPLRSs

71.

  1. Link 16 is a LOS data link, and operates over the L-Band.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

  1. What is the primary Tactical Data Link (TDL) used for the USAF?

a)

  1. Link 11

b)

  1. Link 16

c)

  1. Link 12

d)

  1. Link 11B

73.

  1.  What two frequency ranges does link 11 operate in?

a)

  1. VHF, EHF

b)

  1. HF, UHF

c)

  1. UHF, RRHF

d)

  1. UHF, VHF

74.

What are the two predominant techniques for spreading the spectrum?

a)

Code Division Multiple Access

b)

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum

c)

Command-and-control

d)

Frequency hopping

75.

Which Spread Spectrum technique significantly improves protection against interfering

signals?

a)

TLDR

b)

FHSS

c)

DSSS

d)

CDMA

76.

Which TDL ( Tactical DATA link ) is half duplex?

a)

Link 11

b)

Link 11B

c)

Link 16

d)

Link 24

77.

Which TDL ( Tactical DATA link ) is the language used on JTIDS/MIDS to send messages?

a)

Link 11

b)

Link 11B

c)

Link 16

d)

Link 24

78.

The Air Force only uses _______________when interoperating with countries or platforms that do not yet have LINK 16.

a)

Link 24

b)

Link 16

c)

Link 11B

d)

Link 11

79.

  1. What does POST stand for?

a)

  1. Pre-Operation System Test

b)

  1. Power On Self Test

c)

  1. Preformed Order of System Test

d)

  1. Power Operational Series of Test

80.

  1. Which is NOT a valid test option on the radio?

a)

  1. LSD Test

b)

  1. BERT

c)

  1. Keypad Test

d)

  1. SW Validation

81.

  1.  you should inspect the radio for damage daily while in use and weekly when in storage.

a)

False

b)

True

82.

  1.  Which mode is typically used in emergency situations to locate a radio operator ? 

a)

  1. Time delay 

b)

  1. Beacon mode

c)

  1. Clone mode 

d)

  1. OTAR transmit mode

83.

  1.  Each RT-1949 and AN/PRC - 152 supports up to how many unique system presets? 

a)

88

b)

98

c)

99

d)

67

84.

  1. Which menu would you use to make changes to the active preset and not take the radio offline? 

a)

  1. Option menu

b)

  1. Light display menu 

c)

  1. Program menu 

d)

  1. Zeroize menu 

85.

The PRC-117G is able to enter Beacon mode.

a)

False

b)

True

86.

  1. The UHF Follow-on system is a constellation of __________ communication satellites

a)

Geostationary

b)

  1. Geosynchronous

c)

Tidally locked

d)

Deep space

87.

  1.  What frequency range(s) replaced the earlier UHF/SHF iterations of the UHF SATCOM?

a)

  1. UHF/EHF

b)

  1. HF

c)

  1. SHF/EHF

d)

  1. EHF

88.

  1.  Which frequency range corresponds to UHF SATCOM uplink frequencies 

a)

  1. 225.00 MHz- 400.00 MHz 

b)

  1. 250.45MHz - 269.95 MHz 

c)

  1. 292.95 MHz- 310.95 MHz

d)

  1. 269.95MHz - 292.95 MHz 

89.

  1. The UFO system replaced which previous satellite systems? 

a)

  1. AEHF and WGS 

b)

  1. FLTSATCOM and Leasat

c)

  1. GPS and MUOS 

d)

  1. MILSTAR and DSCS 

90.

 Later iterations of the UFO spacecraft introduces which capability ? 

a)

  1. Commercial satellite compatibility 

b)

  1. VHF-only communications 

c)

  1. EHF package providing protected communications

d)

  1. Elimination of SHF services 

91.

  1. The Situational Awareness feature is used to do what?

a)

  1.  Transmit encrypted location information

b)

  1.  Survey surroundings for Radio frequencies

c)

  1. Transmit GPS data to all those around you

d)

  1. Map out currently jammed frequencies

92.

  1.  IW improves voice clarity through the expanded use of what?

a)

  1. DAMA protocols

b)

  1. VHF/UHF Line-of Sight (VULOS) operation

c)

  1. TDMA protocols

d)

  1. Mixed Excitation Linear Predictive (MELP) digital signaling

93.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a way you can automatically send SA info?

a)

  1. After a radio is keyed 

b)

  1. After a certain amount of time  

c)

  1. After a radio is connected to a new network

d)

  1. After a certain amount of distance 

94.

  1.  What setting  on the Cypher knob is used to download a Mission Plan?

a)

  1.  IW

b)

  1. LD

c)

  1.  CT

d)

  1.  PT

95.

  1. ANW2 utilizes Voice over Internet Protocol.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

  1. The frequency range for ANW2 is what?

a)

  1. 180 MHz – 1999.995 MHz

b)

  1. 225 MHz – 1999.995 MHz

c)

  1. 195 MHz – 1999.995 MHz

d)

  1. 255 MHz – 1999.995 MHz

97.

  1. How many users can the ANW2 accommodate?

a)

  1. 1-2

b)

  1. 15

c)

  1. 4-12

d)

  1. 2-10

98.

  1. DAMA provides 5 kHz and 25 kHz SATCOM operation.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

  1. DAMA is designed to replace much of the UHF SATCOM usage.

a)

False

b)

True

100.

  1. What does DAMA stand for?

a)

  1. Demand Assigned Multiple Access

b)

  1. Demand Assigned Maximum Access

c)

  1. Determined Assigned Multiple Access

d)

  1. Demand Associated Multiple Access 

101.

  1. Which of the following is NOT an incorporated feature in the ANW2C network?

a)

  1. Simple Network Management Protocol

b)

  1. Situational Awareness

c)

  1. Directional GPS Management Tool

d)

  1. Network Address Translation

102.

  1. How far is the standard range of the ANW2C? What is its extended range?

a)

  1. 30 km; 55 km

b)

  1. 40 km; 85 km

c)

  1. 20 km; 40 km

d)

  1. 50 km; 100 km

103.

Is the ANWC2 a high bandwidth waveform or a low bandwidth waveform that allows simultaneous voice and high speed data capabilities 

a)

  • High bandwidth waveform 

b)

low bandwidth waveform

104.

The ANWC2 is an enhanced form of the waveform that is compatible with previous generations of the waveform 

a)

True

b)

FALSE

105.

In a single network by means of the guest mode, ANW2C supports up to: 


a)

10

b)

45

c)

200 users

d)

1,000

106.

What capabilities does ANW2 provide? 


a)

Slow data transfer capabilities 

b)

Simultaneous voice and high speed data capabilities

c)

Voice-only capabilities 

d)

Voice streaming and conferencing capabilities 

107.

What type of data transfer does HPW facilitate ? 


a)

Voice streaming to multiple devices 

b)

Audio transfer between computers and speakers 

c)

Voice communication between two computers 

d)

File transfer between two or more computers - via a radio network

108.

Which of the following HPW selections, under perfect conditions , would give the user the highest throughput? 


a)

UHF follow on

b)

Narrowband

c)

point to point protocol 

d)

Wideband 

109.

For successful HPW data communications, time of day synchronization of how many seconds is required? 


a)

+- 4 seconds

b)

+- 30 seconds

c)

+- 10 seconds

d)

+- 60 seconds

110.

How many DAMA net presets are there? 


a)

77

b)

88

c)

99

d)

98

111.

  1. What are the two measurement scales when using the Pocket Transit?

a)

  1. Latitude and Longitude

b)

  1. Azimuth and Elevation

c)

  1. Vertical and horizontal

d)

  1. Linear and Directional

112.

  1. What is the name of the measurement of elevation smaller than a Degree?

a)

  1. Minutes

b)

  1. Plumbs

c)

  1. Seconds

d)

  1. Centimeters

113.

  1. What function does the Pocket Transit NOT have?

a)

  1. Level

b)

  1. Plumb 

c)

  1. Clinometer

d)

  1. Scope

114.

What instruments are combined in a pocket transit? 


a)

A compass, Clinometer, hand level, and plumb

b)

A stopwatch, plumb line, and hand level

c)

A thermometer and altimeter 

d)

A rangefinder, compass , and level 

115.

What does azimuth measure? 


a)

Temperature, measured in degrees Celsius with sunrise as 0 degrees 

b)

Direction, measured clockwise in degrees with true north as 0 degrees

c)

Distance, measured in kilometers from origin 

d)

Elevation, measured in meters above sea level 

116.

What is the role of the zero pin in a pocket transit 


a)

It is used for calibrating the compass direction 

b)

It is used for magnetic declination adjustment

c)

It is used for locking the needle in place 

d)

It is used for adjusting the level of the transit 

117.

Clone mode can only transmit between radios in CT mode that have the same _________ assigned.

a)

KEK

b)

EFK

c)

TSK

d)

TEK

118.

The option to enable or disable SA mode are accessed by pressing what button

a)

7/OPT

b)

8/ PGM

c)

3/ MODE

d)

5/ ZERO

119.

What feature of MANET allows the network to automatically reroute communications so the net can remain active?

a)

Retransmission

b)

Situational Awareness

c)

Self Healing/Net healing

d)

Frequency hopping

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