wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NUR113 Exam 3 Practice

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse should recognize which of the following as a manifestation of sepsis in the neonate? (Select all that apply)

a)

lethargy

b)

tachypnea

c)

hypothermia

d)

sunken fontanel

e)

low serum glucose

2.

A full term newborn is in the clinic with his parents. he is 4 days old. His birth weight was 7lbs (3.2kg). Which assessment made by the nurse is the Most significant?

a)

today's weight is 6 # 9 oz (3Kg)

b)

the infants skin is peeling

c)

the infants breast tissue is swollen

d)

there is a yellow discharge from the infants right eye.

3.

A 22 year old woman is 6 weeks postpartum. In the clinic, she admits to crying everyday, feeling overwhelmed, and sometimes thinking she may hurt the baby. What would be the priority nursing action at this time?

a)

advise the patient of community groups, and depression hotlines.

b)

counsel the mother that the "baby blues' are common at this time and assess her nutrition, rest and availability of help at home.

c)

contact the HCP to evaluate the patient before allowing her to leave the clinic

d)

advise the woman that she cannot use medication for depression because she is breastfeeding,.

4.

The nurse in a newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome. Select all that apply.

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Hypotension

d)

Retractions

e)

Audible grunts

5.

Signs of hypoglycemia include: (Select all the apply)

a)

Tremors

b)

Hunger

c)

Weak cry

d)

Lethargy

e)

Jaundice

6.

The nurse checks the blood sugar of a 2-hour-old newborn and the glucometer reading is 32 mg/dL. The nurse should:

a)

Recognize that this is a normal reading and document it.

b)

Initiate breastfeeding.

c)

Call the laboratory for a STAT blood glucose level.

d)

Transfer the newborn to the NICU.

7.

A diabetic patient delivers her baby at 36 weeks gestation. The infant is jittery and lethargic. Which is the priority nursing action for this infant?

a)

Applying oxygen

b)

Obtaining a heel stick blood glucose

c)

After drying, wrapping the infant in warm blankets

d)

Putting the baby to the breast

8.

How many chromosomes a baby with born down syndrome will have?

a)

44

b)

46

c)

45

d)

47

9.

Down Syndrome is also called ..

a)

Trisomy 20

b)

Trisomy 22

c)

Trisomy 23

d)

Trisomy 21

10.

from common physical features of down syndrome

a)

short neck

b)

small ears

c)

small hands

d)

strong muscle tone

11.

How many types of down syndrome are there..

a)

2 types

b)

3 types

c)

4 types

d)

non of the above

12.

most common communicable childhood disease caused by varicella zoster

virus

a)

Rubella

b)

Poliomyelitis

c)

Chicken Pox

d)

Parotitis

13.

Fine pincer grasp developed

a)

5 months

b)

11 months

c)

9 months

d)

8 months

14.

Mobility may crawl backward

a)

5 months

b)

7 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

15.

Starts to points with index finger

a)

11 months

b)

8 months

c)

10 months

d)

7 months

16.

Sits with support

a)

5 months

b)

6 months

c)

7 months

d)

8 months

17.

Sits without support

a)

5 months

b)

6 months

c)

7 months

d)

8 months

18.

Head control is established

a)

2-3 months

b)

4 months

c)

6 months

d)

9 months

19.

Spontaneous social smile

a)

1 month

b)

16 months

c)

16 weeks

d)

24 weeks

20.

Holds bottle

a)

8 months

b)

6 months

c)

10 months

d)

11 months

21.

Which of the following neonates should be intubated immediately?

a)

An apneic term infant with poor chest rise despite positive pressure ventilation

b)

A 26 week gestation neonate crying with minimal retractions

c)

A 31 week gestation neonate with a marked inguinal hernia

22.

A toddler is considered to be from

a)

One year to three years

b)

Six months to three years

c)

One year to six years

d)

18 months to 3 years

23.

A preschooler is considered to be from

a)

Two years to six years

b)

One year to 5 years

c)

Three years to 6 years

d)

Three years to 5 years

24.

Newborns is the term that used for baby

a)

≤ 28 days

b)

≤ 30 days

c)

≤ 1 month

25.

When monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which assessment signs if noted in the newborn infant would alert you to the possibility of this syndrome?

a)

Hypotension and Bradycardia

b)

Tachypnea and retractions

c)

Acrocyanosis and grunting

d)

The presence of a barrel chest with grunting

26.

When performing a newborn assessment, you should measure the vital signs in the following sequence:

a)

Pulse, respirations, temperature

b)

Temperature respirations, pulse

c)

Respirations, pulse, temperature

27.

The nurse is aware that a neonate of a mother with diabetes is at risk for what complication?

a)

Anemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Nitrogen loss

d)

Thrombosis

28.

The first pediatric visit is scheduled at...

a)

1 week after birth

b)

3-5 days after birth

c)

2 weeks after birth

d)

2 months after birth

29.

In which position is length measured?

a)

Fowlers

b)

supine

c)

standing

d)

sitting

30.

Which is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection?

a)

1 inch to 2 inches

b)

5/8 inch to 1 inch

c)

1/2 inch to 11/2 inch

d)

1/8 inch to 5/8 inch

31.

The resistance the body has to pathogenic organism or their toxins is known as...

a)

inflammation

b)

contagious

c)

immunization

d)

immunity

32.

What immunizations are part of the MMR?

a)

meningitis, mumps, rubella

b)

measles, meningitis, rotavirus

c)

measles, mumps, rubella

33.

Which of the following is NOT included in a VIS

a)

Publication date Is VIS

b)

Lot number of the vaccine

c)

Reporting an adverse reaction

d)

Risks & benefits of the vaccine

34.

A regularly scheduled office visit based on the child's age is usually called:

a)

an optimum health visit.

b)

a well-child visit.

c)

a sick-child visit.

d)

an immunization recall visit.

35.

In addition to assessing nutritional status, the patient's weight may be used to determine:

a)

activity levels.

b)

developmental stage.

c)

medication dosage.

d)

cardiac abnormalities.

e)

chronologic age.

36.

When measuring the circumference of an infant's skull, the tape should be placed:

a)

above the eyebrows.

b)

at the eyebrows

c)

below the eyebrows.

d)

at the hairline.

e)

resting on the ears

37.

Which of the following is done within 1 week of birth?

a)

Flu vaccine

b)

Varicella vaccine

c)

PKU test

d)

MMR vaccine

e)

None of the above

38.

Growth and Dev't: Age group in which they are Body image conscious.

a)

School Age

b)

Adolescent

c)

Pre-School

d)

Infancy

39.

A lack of this will lead to mistrust.

a)

Trust vs. Mistrust

b)

Autonomy vs. Shame

c)

Identity vs. Role Confusion

d)

Initiative vs. Guilt

40.

Asks “WHY” question

a)

Adolescent

b)

Infant

c)

PreSchool

d)

Toddler

41.

During your vital signs taking to your 5yr old patient, you noted that her RR is 24 CPM. What step should you do next?

a)

Document since it's within normal range

b)

Activate RRT

c)

Refer Immediately to PROD

d)

Administer Oxygen

42.

You Are taking care of a 4mos. old pt. you noted pt to have a RR of 50 CPM. What step should you do next?

a)

Refer Immediately to PROD

b)

Administer Oxygen

c)

Document since it's within normal range

d)

Activate Pediatric RRT

43.

behaviors or skills seen in school-age children as they grow or develop

a)

Gross Motor Skills

b)

Developmental Delay

c)

Developmental Milestones

d)

Developmental Disability

44.

children ages five to 12 years

a)

School-Age Child

b)

Developmental Delay

c)

Fine Motor Skills

d)

Gross Motor Skills

45.

Instance in which a child is continually behind in obtaining skills other children of a similar age have learned

a)

Developmental Delay

b)

Developmental Disability

c)

Developmental Milestones

d)

Fine Motor Skills

46.
The time period between childhood and adulthood that includes physical, social, emotional and mental changes is called:
a)
Puberty
b)
Maturity
c)
Adolescence
d)
Rebellion
47.
Children’s play that involves assuming adult roles, thus enabling the child to experience different points of view 
a)
Role taking
b)
Imprinting
c)
Learning
d)
Conservation
48.
Occurring automatically and involuntarily as a result of the nervous system's reaction to a stimulus
a)
reflexes 
b)
gross motor skills
c)
fine motor skills
d)
development
49.
what are 3 and 4 year olds typically not learning yet?
a)
colors
b)
shapes
c)
numbers and letters
d)
complex words
50.
Noticeable lag in a specific aspect of development that is beyond average variations
a)
Developmental delay
b)
Visual-motor coordination
c)
Hand-eye coordination
d)
Dexterity
51.
Person's own assessment of himself or herself based on an evaluation of personal abilities, failures, and comments from other people
a)
Conservation
b)
Self-concept
c)
Seriation
d)
Classification
52.
Physical overall changes in size, such as gains in height and weight
a)
Executive strategies
b)
Growth
c)
Gross motor skills
d)
Fine Motor skills
53.

______________ is when a toy is felt but not remembered, pictured, or imagined.

a)

Schema

b)

Object Permanence

c)

Conservation

d)

Assimilation

54.

Which is the first stage in Piaget's Stages of Cognitive Development?

a)

Preoperational

b)

Formal

c)

Concrete

d)

Sensorimotor

55.

Infants form one of 4 kinds of attachments with their caregivers. Which is generally considered to be the desired kind of attachment?

a)

Secure

b)

Avoidant

c)

Resistant

d)

Disorganized

56.

How many stages are in Erikson's theory of Psychosocial development?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

57.

what does IPV stand for

a)

Inactivated Polio Vaccine

b)

Incubated Polio Vaccine

c)

Intramuscular Polio Vaccine

58.

What is the difference between a vaccine and a toxoid?

a)

vaccine- solution that contains small amount of weakened/dead bacteria that causes disease

toxoid- uses toxins bacteria creates

b)

vaccine- cannot make antibodies

toxoid- can make antibodies

c)

vaccine - can fight bacteria

toxoid- cannot fight bacteria

59.

What does it mean by active immunization?

a)

immunization that can be activated by crying

b)

babies are given the vaccines and their body replicates it so that they can't get hurt by the disease

c)

the type of immunization that is active

60.

measles

a)

A contagious acute viral disease with symptoms that include a bright red rash of small spots that spread to cover the whole body

b)

An injection of weakened disease-carrying germs given to a person so their body can build a resistance to a certain disease

61.

mumps

a)

An acute contagious disease that causes a fever with swelling of the salivary glands

b)

A severe infectious viral disease, usually affecting children or young adults, that inflames the brain stem and spinal cord, sometimes leading to loss of voluntary movement and muscular wasting

62.

rubella

a)

A highly contagious viral disease, especially affecting children, that causes swelling of the lymph glands and a reddish pink rash; may be harmful to the unborn baby of a pregnant woman who contracts it

b)

A contagious acute viral disease with symptoms that include a bright red rash of small spots that spread to cover the whole body

63.
The __________ period is how long the disease can spread from one person to another.
a)
Sickness
b)
Bed rest
c)
Contagious
64.

It is also called varicella, characterized by itchy red blisters that appear all over the body.

a)

Chickenpox

b)

Cough

c)

Mumps

d)

Fever

65.

Another term for Polio.

a)

Poliomyetis

b)

Poliomyelitis

c)

Poliotis

d)

Polio

66.

Ivan was sent home early because he was complaining of headache and fever. His body felt sore all over and he had sore throat and cough. Which disease has these symptoms?

a)

cough

b)

chicken pox

c)

influenza

d)

mumps

67.

Raine has red, itchy spots. These spots eventually turned into fluid-filled blisters. Raine also had fever for the first two days. Which disease has these symptoms?

a)

chicken pox

b)

measles

c)

mumps

d)

rubella

68.

What causes pertussis or whooping cough?

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

virus

d)

worm

69.

What causes mumps?

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

virus

d)

worm

70.
Special proteins produced by the body to attack foreign invaders.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigen
71.
Substances that cause the body to produce antibodies.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigens
72.
The process by which the body becomes immune to a disease.
a)
immunization
b)
vaccination
73.
The different types of vaccines are:
a)
live,weakened or attenuated
b)
inactivated or killed
c)
conjugated
d)
all of the above
74.

What is herd immunity

a)

When everyone is vaccinated.

b)

A form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant portion of a population provides a measure of protection for individuals who have not developed immunity.

c)

When all of a group of farm animals have been immunised.

d)

When a disease spreads throughout a population.

75.

Can result in an S or C shaped curve of the spine in the lumbar region.

a)

Multiple Sclerosis

b)

Scoliosis

c)

Scurvy's Disease

d)

Poor Posture

76.

The MMR Vaccine contains which 3 viruses?

a)

Measles

b)

Rubella

c)

Rabies

d)

Coronavirus

e)

Mumps

77.

Mumps is a _______ ?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plant

d)

Membrane

78.

Which is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection?

a)

1 inch to 2 inches

b)

5/8 inch to 1 inch

c)

1/2 inch to 11/2 inch

d)

1/8 inch to 5/8 inch

79.

The resistance the body has to pathogenic organism or their toxins is known as...

a)

inflammation

b)

contagious

c)

immunization

d)

immunity

80.

The length of the needle used in the pediatric injection depends on...

a)

the child's age

b)

amount of medication

c)

the child's height

d)

the size of the child's thigh

81.

Which is the preferred site to obtain a blood sample from a newborn?

a)

plantar surface of the foot

b)

lateral surface of the finger

c)

big toe

d)

deltoid muscle

82.

Which of the following is NOT included in a VIS

a)

Publication date Is VIS

b)

Lot number of the vaccine

c)

Reporting an adverse reaction

d)

Risks & benefits of the vaccine

83.

The deltoid muscle should not be used as an IM siteuntil the child

a)

is 10 years old

b)

has been walking for a year

c)

is at least 18 months old

d)

won't cry

84.

Children may experience swollen salivary glands.

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Chickenpox

85.

Children may experience skin rashes, watery eyes, and high fever.

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Chickenpox

86.

Children may experience blister rash and fever.

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Chickenpox

87.

Children may experience muscle or body pain, headache, colds and cough, and also a high fever.

a)

Influenza

b)

Measles

c)

Pneumonia

88.

German measles is the disease caused by

a)

the mumps virus

b)

the measles virus

c)

the rubella virus

d)

both measles and rubella viruses

89.

The incubation periods for the MMR viruses are

a)

1-2 days

b)

3-7 days

c)

1-3 weeks

d)

6 months

e)

1-2 years

90.

MMR viruses are transmitted through

a)

Contaminated food

b)

Sexual contact

c)

Contact with droplets (direct and indirect)

d)

No means, they are not contagious diseases

91.

A widespread maculopapular rash and Koplik's spots are signs of

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Influenza

d)

Rubella

92.

Swollen salivary glands (parotitis) is the main sign of

a)

Measles

b)

Mumps

c)

Rubella

d)

All three

e)

Rubella and Mumps

93.

The MMR vaccine is made from

a)

inactivated viruses

b)

attenuated viruses

c)

recombinant viral capsids

d)

viral envelopes and glycoproteins

e)

toxoids

94.

The treatment for measles, mumps and rubella is

a)

only supportive (fluids and rest)

b)

2 weeks of tetracycline

c)

2 weeks of amoxicillin

d)

the MMR vaccine

95.

What immunizations are given at 6 months of age ?

a)

DTap and Hep B

b)

Inactivated polio and pneumoccal

c)

all of these answers are correct

d)

influenza

96.

One way to help with the prevention of SIDs is:

a)

Have baby sleep on stomach

b)

Have parents cosleep with the baby

c)

Have the child sleep on their back

d)

Have the child sleep with their favorite stuffed animals and extra blankets to stay extra warm

97.

what type of milk should a 18 month old be drinking ?

a)

soy

b)

skim

c)

1%

d)

whole

98.

What immunizations can be given at a 4 month old visit ?

a)

Influenza and Varicella

b)

Varicella and HIB

c)

MMR

d)

DtaP and HIB

99.

15 year old with maculopapular rash with bright red cheeks has this disease

a)

Chicken pox

b)

Roseola

c)

5ths disease

d)

Erythema

100.

All of the following can cause patient anxiety and fear in pediatric nursing except

a)

fear of separation

b)

fear of intimidating equipment

c)

fear of unpleasant medication

d)

fear of horror movies

101.

Which of the following is part of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle?

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Lung Sounds

c)

Work of Breathing

d)

BGL

102.

Which of the following is a sign of respiratory failure in a pediatric patient?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Nasal Flaring

c)

ALOC

d)

Retractions

103.

What is the most common cause of pediatric cardiac arrest?

a)

Vascular Emergencies

b)

Long QT Syndrome

c)

Trauma

d)

Hypoxia

104.

what is the most frequent type of seizures in childhood ?

a)

Febrile

b)

Focal

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Status Epilepticus

105.

Minimal systolic pressure for a Preschooler ?

a)

>75 mg dL

b)

>75 mm Hg

c)

>65 mm Hg

d)

>70 mm Hg

106.

Normal heart rate for School-aged PEDs ?

a)

60-120

b)

75-125

c)

80-100

d)

70-120

107.

Adolescent age range ?

a)

10-18 years

b)

11-18 years

c)

10-19 years

d)

12-18 years

108.

Neonate (newborn) age range ?

a)

< 15 days

b)

< 28 days

c)

< 28 hrs.

d)

< 30 days

109.

Infant age range?

a)

birth - 12 months

b)

1-13 months

c)

1-12 months

d)

1-6 months

110.

Preschooler age range ?

a)

3-7 years

b)

4-8 years

c)

4-7 years

d)

3-6 years

111.

What does PAT stand for ?

a)

Pediatric Amusement Triangle

b)

Pediatric Assessment Table

c)

Pediatric Accoutrement Table

d)

Pediatric Assessment Triangle

112.

In assessing a child, you use the Pediatric Assessment Triangle . what component is NOT included in the Pediatric assessment triangle

a)

Appearance

b)

Work of breathing

c)

Color

d)

Circulation to skin

113.

When measuring a child’s Blood pressure, the following should apply, except

a)

Cuff should be 2/3 of the size of the child’s arm

b)

Reference range should be based on the percentile for age

c)

BP should be taken while child is active and moving about

d)

When the child is settled, and relaxed

114.

Mark the appropriate answer/s with a check. The following are signs of a critically ill child:

a)

limp

b)

good muscle tone

c)

easily consolable

d)

listless

e)

weak cry

115.

Mark the appropriate answer/s with a check. The following are preterminal signs of a critically ill child:

a)

silent chest

b)

cyanosis

c)

hypotension

d)

oxygen saturation of less than 85% in room air

116.

Which is NOT a typical characteristic of simple febrile seizure?

a)

Seizure lasting 5 minutes

b)

Stiffening of right upper and right lower extremities

c)

associated with temperature 38.5

d)

Not recurrent within 24 hours

117.

Lumbar puncture is indicated for ALL patients younger than six months with fever and seizure

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Central Cyanosis

c)

Grunting

d)

Tachycardia