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supply chainn 1

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A supply chain could be more accurately described as a supply network or supply web.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

All stages of an enterprise are involved, either directly or indirectly, in fulfilling a customer request.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

A supply chain includes only the organizations directly involved in supplying components needed for manufacturing.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The objective of every supply chain is to maximize the net value generated.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The objective of the customer arrival process is to ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The objective of customer order entry is to maintain a record of product receipt and complete payment.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The difference between the value of the product and its price remains with the customer as consumer surplus.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The supply chain planning phase exceeds the supply chain design phase in duration.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The goal during the supply chain operation phase is to exploit the reduction of uncertainty and optimize performance.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The replenishment cycle occurs at the retailer/distributor interface.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The manufacturing cycle occurs at the distributor/manufacturer interface.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The push/pull view of a supply chain holds that the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories depending on whether they are initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The production scheduling process in the manufacturing cycle is similar to the order entry process in the replenishment cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The cycle view of a supply chain holds that the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories depending on whether they are initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The procurement cycle occurs at the manufacturer/supplier interface.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The cycle view of the supply chain is useful when considering operational decisions, because it specifies the roles and responsibilities of each member of the supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Push processes may also be referred to as speculative processes.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

All supply chain activities within a firm belong to one of three macro processes — CRM, ISCM and SRM.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

CRM systems typically include capabilities for sourcing and negotiating as well as design and supply collaboration.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

There is a close connection between the design and management of supply chain flows and the success of a supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The drawback of Zara's responsive supply chain is that it tends to sell more products at markdown than most of its competitors.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Amazon's operations are completely online.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Good strategic decisions cannot be made without access to relevant analytics.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

All analytics should be designed to support decision making.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Each stage in a supply chain is connected through the flow of products, information, and funds. These flows often occur in both directions and are usually managed by

a)

pricing department

b)

one of the stages

c)

upper management

d)

engineering department

26.

A supply chain features a constant flow of

a)

information, product and funds

b)

personnel, information, and policies

c)

processes, funds, and product

d)

product, processes, and support

27.

Which of these words best describes a typical supply chain structure?

a)

Static

b)

Customer

c)

Cyclical

d)

Network

28.

Which statement about supply chains is best?

a)

New product development is not a supply chain function.

b)

If a supplier uses a shipping company to send product to a customer, the shipping company is technically not a supply chain member.

c)

Funds in a supply chain flow upstream only.

d)

Flows in a supply chain may be managed by an intermediary.

29.

Which sequence of stages is typical for product flow in a supply chain?

a)

Supplier → Manufacturer → Distributor

b)

Retailer → Distributor → Customer

c)

Manufacturer → Retailer → Distributor

d)

Supplier → Customer → Retailer

30.

Supply chain surplus involves what two parts?

a)

Manufacturing cost and selling price

b)

Customer value and supply chain cost

c)

Customer value and high quality products

d)

Reliable transportation and supply chain cost

31.

For any supply chain, the source of revenue is generated by

a)

efficient operations

b)

information flows

c)

the customer

d)

product flows

32.

Customer value is

a)

the sum of the supply chain surplus and supply chain cost

b)

the remainder after supply chain cost is subtracted from supply chain surplus

c)

the remainder after supply chain surplus is subtracted from supply chain cost

d)

supply chain profitability minus the supply chain cost

33.

The objective of every supply chain is to

a)

minimize the overall cost generated

b)

maximize the net value generated

c)

minimize the cost to the manufacturer

d)

maximize the profit of the manufacturer

34.

Retailing in the United States is largely

a)

push/pull

b)

profitable

c)

consolidated

35.

For any supply chain,

a)

management rests solely in the hands of the manufacturer.

b)

management rests solely in the hands of the distributor.

c)

if each member focuses on profitability, the overall supply chain profit will be maximized.

d)

there is only one source of revenue, the customer.

36.

Webvan designed a supply chain with large warehouses in several major cities in the United States, from which groceries were delivered to customer homes. They failed partly because of

a)

low demand for their service.

b)

slow inventory turnover compared to industry averages.

c)

higher labor costs for picking orders.

d)

poor quality products.

37.

A key issue facing Toyota is

a)

developing an Internet marketing system.

b)

whether to specialize in a particular market.

c)

design of its global production and distribution network.

d)

how to implement model changes.

38.

Walmart's supply chain features clusters of stores around distribution centers, which facilitates

a)

high transportation costs.

b)

frequent but inexpensive replenishment at the stores.

c)

rapid design cycles from their R&D group.

d)

sharing of information with suppliers.

39.

Which of these statements about Dell's supply chain is best?

a)

Dell's supply chain surplus was largely driven by their negative shipping model.

b)

Dell's initial success was largely driven by the ability to accurately forecast what customers wanted and supply those models to retail outlets that carried their computers.

c)

Dell's initial success was largely driven by their Assembly → Customer supply chain linkage.

d)

Dell's supply chain consists of only two members, Dell and the customer.

40.

The decision phases in a supply chain include

a)

production scheduling.

b)

customer relationship management.

c)

supply chain operation.

d)

supply chain orientation.

41.

A company would decide whether to outsource or perform a supply chain function in-house during the

a)

planning phase.

b)

design phase.

c)

tactical phase.

d)

operation phase.

42.

The supply chain strategy category would include a decision about

a)

which items in the warehouse will be shipped to Malibu.

b)

which warehouse will supply the Surf City location.

c)

when the order should be shipped to the little old lady from Pasadena.

d)

how large the warehouse in Kokomo should be.

43.

A decision made about which markets will be serviced by which locations falls in the supply chain ____ phase

a)

conceptualization

b)

design

c)

operation

d)

planning

44.

The profitability of a supply chain is impacted primarily by

a)

the design, planning and operation categories of decisions.

b)

only the operation category of decisions.

c)

only the design and planning categories of decisions.

d)

only the planning and operation categories of decisions.

45.

The time horizon of the operation phase is typically

a)

quarterly or yearly.

b)

weekly or daily.

c)

monthly or quarterly.

d)

over the next several years.

46.

Handling customer orders in the best possible manner is the goal of supply chain

a)

strategy.

b)

planning.

c)

operations.

d)

design.

47.

The cycle view of a supply chain holds that

a)

the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories.

b)

the processes in a supply chain are divided into a series of activities performed at the interface between successive stages.

c)

all processes in a supply chain are initiated in response to a customer order.

d)

all processes in a supply chain are performed in anticipation of customer orders.

48.

The push/pull view of a supply chain holds that

a)

the processes in a supply chain are divided into a series of activities performed at the interface between successive stages.

b)

all processes in a supply chain are initiated in response to a customer order.

c)

all responses in a supply chain are performed in anticipation of customer orders.

d)

the processes in a supply chain are divided into 2 categories depending on whether they are initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.

49.

The customer order cycle occurs at the

a)

customer/retailer interface.

b)

retailer/distributor interface.

c)

distributor/manufacturer interface.

d)

manufacturer/supplier interface.

50.

Customer order arrival refers to

a)

the point in time when the customer has access to choices and makes a decision regarding a purchase.

b)

the customer informing the retailer of what they want to purchase and the retailer allocating product to the customer.

c)

the process where product is prepared and sent to the customer.

d)

the process where the customer receives the product and takes ownership.

51.

The objective of the customer order arrival process is to

a)

get the correct orders to customers by the promised due date at the lowest possible cost.

b)

maintain a record of product receipt and complete payment.

c)

maximize the conversion of customer arrivals to customer orders.

d)

ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.

52.

Customer order entry is

a)

the point in time when the customer has access to choices and makes a decision regarding a purchase.

b)

the customer informing the retailer of what they want to purchase and the retailer allocating

53.

The objective of customer order entry is to

a)

get the correct orders to customers by the promised due date at the lowest possible cost.

b)

maintain a record of product receipt and complete payment.

c)

maximize the conversion of customer arrivals to customer orders.

d)

ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.

54.

Customer order fulfillment refers to

a)

the point in time when the customer has access to choices and makes a decision regarding a purchase.

b)

the customer informing the retailer of what they want to purchase and the retailer allocating product to the customer.

c)

the process where product is prepared and sent to the customer.

d)

the process where the customer receives the product and takes ownership.

55.

Demand is external to the supply chain and thus is most uncertain at the

a)

manufacturing cycle.

b)

replenishment cycle.

c)

customer order cycle.

d)

procurement cycle.

56.

The objective of customer order fulfillment is to

a)

get the correct orders to customers by the promised due date at the lowest possible cost.

b)

maintain a record of product receipt and complete payment.

c)

maximize the conversion of customer arrivals to customer orders.

d)

ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.

57.

Customer order receiving is

a)

the point in time when the customer has access to choices and makes a decision regarding a purchase.

b)

the customer informing the retailer of what they want to purchase and the retailer allocates product to the customer.

c)

the process where product is prepared and sent to the customer.

d)

the process where the customer receives the product and takes ownership.

58.

The retailer and distributor engage in the

a)

customer order cycle.

b)

replenishment cycle.

c)

manufacturing cycle.

d)

procurement cycle.

59.

The process included in the replenishment cycle includes

a)

order arrival.

b)

production scheduling.

c)

retail sale.

d)

manufacturing.

60.

The manufacturing cycle occurs at the

a)

customer/retailer interface.

b)

retailer/distributor interface.

c)

distributor/manufacturer interface.

d)

manufacturer/supplier interface.

61.

The processes involved in the manufacturing cycle include

a)

order trigger.

b)

production scheduling.

c)

order fulfillment.

d)

order entry.

62.

The production scheduling process in the manufacturing cycle is similar to the

a)

order receiving process in the replenishment cycle.

b)

order fulfillment process in the replenishment cycle.

c)

order entry process in the replenishment cycle.

d)

order trigger process in the replenishment cycle.

63.

The manufacturing and shipping process in the manufacturing cycle is equivalent to the

a)

order receiving process in the replenishment cycle.

b)

order fulfillment process in the replenishment cycle.

c)

order entry process in the replenishment cycle.

d)

order trigger process in the replenishment cycle.

64.

The manufacturer and supplier participate in the

a)

procurement cycle.

b)

replenishment cycle.

c)

manufacturing cycle.

d)

life cycle.

65.

The relationship between the manufacturer and supplier during the procurement cycle is very similar to the relationship between

a)

customer and retailer.

b)

retailer and distributor.

c)

distributor and manufacturer.

66.

The cycle view of the supply chain is useful when considering operational decisions because

a)

it categorizes processes based on whether they are initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.

b)

it specifies the roles and responsibilities of each member of the supply chain.

c)

processes are identified as either reactive or speculative.

d)

it focuses on processes that are external to the firm.

67.

The push/pull view of the supply chain is useful when considering strategic decisions relating to supply chain design because

a)

it categorizes processes based on whether they are initiated in response to or in anticipation of customer orders.

b)

it specifies the roles and responsibilities of each member of the supply chain.

c)

it clearly defines the processes involved and the owners of each process.

d)

it focuses on processes that are external to the firm.

68.

Which of the following statements about pull processes is accurate?

a)

They may also be referred to as speculative processes.

b)

Execution is initiated in anticipation of customer orders.

c)

At the time of execution, demand must be forecast.

d)

They may also be referred to as reactive processes.

69.

Which of the following statements about push processes is accurate?

a)

They may also be referred to as speculative processes.

b)

Execution is initiated in response to customer orders.

c)

At the time of execution, demand is known with certainty.

d)

They may also be referred to as reactive processes.

70.

Supply chain macro processes include which of the following?

a)

Internal Relationship Management (IRM)

b)

Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

c)

External Relationship Management (ERM)

d)

Supplier Relationship Management (SCRM)

71.

Supply chain macro processes include which of the following?

a)

Internal Relationship Management (IRM)

b)

External Relationship Management (ERM)

c)

Supplier Relationship Management (SRM)

d)

Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

72.

Activities involved in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) macro process include

a)

planning of internal production and storage.

b)

order fulfillment.

c)

marketing.

d)

supply planning.

73.

Activities involved in the Internal Supply Chain Management (ISCM) macro process include

a)

marketing.

b)

order fulfillment.

c)

sales.

d)

order management.

74.

Activities involved in the Supplier Relationship Management (SRM) macro process include

a)

planning of internal production and storage.

b)

order fulfillment.

c)

supplier evaluation and selection.

d)

order management.

75.

The activities associated with planning typically occur during which macro process?

a)

SRM

b)

ISCM

c)

DRM

d)

CRM

76.

A key supply chain difference between Gateway and Apple is that

a)

Gateway's stores currently carry a large variety of products made by other manufacturers, while Apple carries only Apple products.

b)

Apple has always carried product in their stores while at one time Gateway stores carried no inventory.

c)

Gateway has always used a push system while Apple has always used a pull system.

d)

Gateway has no suppliers, preferring to make everything in-house, while Apple buys many of their components from suppliers.

77.

Zara's supply chain strategy

a)

results in supply more closely matching customer demand.

b)

results in longer lead times for store order fulfillment, primarily due to shipping time.

c)

of purely online sales reduces the costs that they would incur with a brick and mortar store system.

d)

of high volume but low cost apparel requires production well in advance of the actual selling season for each garment type.

78.

Toyota's global complementation strategy

a)

calls for plants to be devoted to the production of vehicles for only the local market.

b)

dictates that parts plants be built to supply all of the needs for each vehicle production plant worldwide.

c)

requires that a single parts plant, for example, for brakes, export brake components to all of its vehicle assembly plants worldwide.

d)

mandates that plants can produce vehicles for export to markets that remain strong when the local market weakens.

79.

A company's competitive strategy defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The value chain emphasizes the close relationship between all the functional strategies within a company. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

A company's product development strategy defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

A company's product development strategy specifies the portfolio of new products that it will try to develop. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Supply chain strategy specifies what the operations, distribution, and service functions, whether performed in-house or outsourced, should do particularly well. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

A company's supply chain strategy determines the nature of procurement and transportation of materials as well as the manufacture and distribution of the product. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

The degree of supply chain responsiveness should be consistent with the implied uncertainty. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

To achieve complete strategic fit, a firm must ensure that all functions in the value chain have diverse strategies that support functional goals. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Because demand and supply characteristics change, the supply chain strategy must change over the product life cycle if a company is to continue achieving strategic fit. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

To retain strategic fit, supply chain strategy must be adjusted over the life cycle of a product and as the competitive landscape changes. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The intercompany scope of strategic fit is no longer relevant today because the competitive playing field has shifted from company versus company to supply chain versus supply chain. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The interoperation scope has each stage of the supply chain devising its strategy independently. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Intraoperation scope resulted in minimal supply chain surplus. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

An example of intrafunctional scope is that outsourcing a key component is reasonable if the savings in staying current in technology results in improved performance in other areas of R&D that permit improved overall performance. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

If all functional strategies are deliberately aligned with each other and with the overall competitive strategy, then the company profit will be maximized. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Intercompany scope is broader than intrafunctional scope. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Monolithic Lumber has purchased timber from Bunyan Axe, the same wholly-owned subsidiary, for the last two centuries and plans to do so for another two centuries. It is crucial that Monolithic continue to demonstrate an agile company scope. Select True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Greater product variety and shorter life cycles result in shorter windows of opportunity for a supply chain to achieve fit.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Globalization has increased the opportunities and decreased the risks for supply chains.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Over the past several decades, the supply chains of most firms have become easier to coordinate.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

A company's competitive strategy

a)

defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services.

b)

specifies the portfolio of new products that it will try to develop.

c)

specifies how the market will be segmented and how the product will be positioned, priced, and promoted.

d)

determines the nature of procurement and transportation of materials as well as manufacture and distribution of the product.

100.

The value that potential customers place on product cost and delivery time determines a company's

a)

customer needs.

b)

competitive strategy.

c)

supply chain surplus.

d)

product life cycle.

101.

The value chain in a company begins with

a)

the customer.

b)

marketing and sales.

c)

new product development.

d)

operations.

102.

Seven-Eleven in Japan's operations and distribution strategy focuses on

a)

convenience in the form of easy access to stores.

b)

constantly adding new products and services.

c)

low cost for gasoline, which drives traffic to the store.

d)

being responsive and having an excellent information infrastructure.

103.

Which element in the value chain is responsible for transforming inputs into outputs?

a)

Operations

b)

Marketing

c)

Distribution

d)

All elements of the value chain do this.

104.

Which of these services facilitates the function of the value chain but is not considered a core element of the supply chain?

a)

Marketing

b)

Information Technology

c)

Distribution

d)

Service

105.

A company's product development strategy

a)

defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services.

b)

specifies the portfolio of new products that it will try to develop.

c)

specifies how the market will be segmented and how the product will be positioned, priced, and promoted.

d)

determines the nature of procurement and transportation of materials as well as manufacture and distribution of the product.

106.

A company's marketing and sales strategy

a)

defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services.

b)

specifies the portfolio of new products that it will try to develop.

c)

specifies how the market will be segmented and how the product will be positioned, priced, and promoted.

d)

determines the nature of procurement and transportation of materials as well as manufacture and distribution of the product.

107.

A company's supply chain strategy

a)

defines the set of customer needs that it seeks to satisfy through its products and services.

b)

specifies the portfolio of new products that it will try to develop.

c)

specifies how the market will be segmented and how the product will be positioned, priced, and promoted.

d)

determines the nature of procurement and transportation of materials as well as manufacture and distribution of the product.

108.

The value chain consists of direct and indirect activities. Which of the following is an indirect activity for an enterprise?

a)

Marketing

b)

Distribution

c)

Human Resources

d)

Service

109.

A _____ strategy specifies the portfolio of new products that a company will try to develop.

a)

Product Development

b)

Marketing and Sales

c)

Supply Chain

d)

Finance

110.

A ______ strategy specifies how the market will be segmented and how the product will be positioned, priced, and promoted.

a)

Product Development

b)

Marketing and Sales

c)

Supply Chain

d)

Finance

111.

Which of the following determines the nature of procurement of raw materials, transportation of materials to and from the company, manufacture of the product or operation to provide the service, and distribution of the product to the customer along with follow-up service?

a)

Competitive strategy

b)

Product development strategy

c)

Marketing and sales strategy

d)

Supply chain strategy

112.

Which of the following defines the set of customer needs that a company seeks to satisfy through its products and services?

a)

Competitive strategy

b)

Product development strategy

c)

Marketing and sales strategy

d)

Supply chain strategy

113.

Which of the following specifies the portfolio of new products that a company will try to develop?

a)

Competitive strategy

b)

Product development strategy

c)

Marketing and sales strategy

d)

Supply chain strategy

114.

The uncertainty of customer demand for a product is the

a)

rate of strategic uncertainty

b)

demand uncertainty

c)

implied demand uncertainty

d)

average forecast error

115.

The uncertainty that exists due to the portion of demand that the supply chain is required to meet is the

a)

rate of strategic uncertainty

b)

demand uncertainty

c)

implied demand uncertainty

d)

average forecast error

116.

Which of the following customer needs will cause implied uncertainty of demand to increase?

a)

Product margin

b)

Lead time decreases

c)

Average stockout rate

d)

Average forced season end markdown

117.

The first step in achieving strategic fit between competitive and supply chain strategies is to

a)

understand the supply chain and map it on the responsiveness spectrum

b)

understand customers and supply chain uncertainty

c)

match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

d)

ensure that all functional strategies within the supply chain support the supply chain's level of responsiveness

118.

The second step in achieving strategic fit between competitive and supply chain strategies is to

a)

understand the supply chain and map it on the responsiveness spectrum

b)

understand customers and supply chain uncertainty

c)

match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

d)

ensure that all functional strategies within the supply chain support the supply chain's level of responsiveness

119.

The final step in achieving strategic fit between competitive and supply chain strategies is to

a)

understand the supply chain and map it on the responsiveness spectrum

b)

understand customers and supply chain uncertainty

c)

match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

d)

combine customer and supply chain uncertainty and map it on the implied uncertainty spectrum

120.

Supply chain responsiveness includes the ability to do which of the following?

a)

Handle supply uncertainty

b)

Understand customers and supply chain uncertainty

c)

Match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

d)

Ensure that all functional strategies within the supply chain support the supply chain's level of responsiveness

121.

Supply chain responsiveness includes the ability to do which of the following?

a)

Understand customers and supply chain

b)

Meet a very high service level

c)

Match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

d)

Ensure that all functional strategies within the supply chain support the supply chain's level of responsiveness

122.

Supply chain responsiveness includes the ability to do which of the following?

a)

Understand customers and supply chain

b)

Match supply chain responsiveness with the implied uncertainty of demand

c)

Meet short lead times

d)

Ensure that all functional strategies within the supply chain support the supply chain's level of responsiveness

123.

The cost of making and delivering a product to the customer is referred to as

a)

supply chain responsiveness

b)

supply chain efficiency

c)

cost-responsiveness efficient frontier

d)

implied uncertainty

124.

The curve that shows the lowest possible cost for a given level of responsiveness is referred to as the

a)

supply chain responsiveness curve

b)

supply chain efficiency curve

c)

cost-responsiveness efficient frontier

d)

responsiveness spectrum

125.

A firm that is not on the cost-responsiveness efficient frontier can improve

a)

both responsiveness and cost performance

b)

only responsiveness

c)

only cost performance

d)

responsiveness, but not cost performance

126.

A graph with two axes with implied uncertainty along the horizontal axis and responsiveness along the vertical axis is referred to as the

a)

implied uncertainty spectrum

b)

responsiveness spectrum

c)

uncertainty/responsiveness map

d)

zone of strategic fit

127.

The relationship where increasing implied uncertainty from customers and supply sources is best served by increasing responsiveness from the supply chain is known as the

a)

implied uncertainty spectrum

b)

responsiveness spectrum

c)

uncertainty/responsiveness map

d)

zone of strategic fit

128.

The drive for strategic fit should come from

a)

the supply chain manager

b)

the strategic planning department

c)

the highest levels of the organization, such as the CEO

d)

middle management

129.

The preferable supply chain strategy for a firm that sells multiple products and serves customer segments with very different needs is to

a)

set up independent supply chains for each different product or customer segment

b)

set up a supply chain that meets the needs of the highest volume product or customer segment

c)

tailor the supply chain to best meet the needs of each product's demand

d)

set up a supply chain that meets the needs of the customer segment with the highest implied uncertainty

130.

Which of the following would be a demand and supply characteristic toward the beginning stages of a product's life cycle?

a)

Demand has become more certain and supply is predictable

b)

Margins are lower due to an increase in competitive pressure

c)

Product availability is crucial to capturing the market

d)

Price becomes a significant factor in customer choice