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Chapter 18: General Pharmacology Introduction

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term best describes the study of drugs, their sources, characteristics, and effects?

a)

Toxicology, studying poisons and exposures

b)

Pathology, studying disease causes and effects

c)

Pharmacology, studying drug sources and effects

d)

Physiology, studying body systems functions

2.

Match each EMT-carried or assisted medication with its primary clinical purpose.

a)

Aspirin

1.

Suspected cardiac chest discomfort

b)

Oral glucose

2.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia in a diabetic

c)

Epinephrine auto-injector

3.

Anaphylaxis with airway involvement

d)

Naloxone

4.

Opioid overdose with respiratory depression

3.

An EMT is preparing to administer a medication. Which action demonstrates adherence to the Five Rights of medication administration?

a)

Ask partner to choose route based on habit

b)

Confirm right patient, drug, dose, route, time

c)

Open medication, then verify with medical control

d)

Estimate weight, calculate dose, document later

4.

You arrive to find a wheezing asthma patient with a prescribed bronchodilator inhaler. Medical direction authorizes assistance. Plan the steps to safely assist the patient using concepts from this chapter.

4.

List the correct sequence as an MCQ: Which plan best reflects proper assistance with a prescribed inhaler under standing orders?

a)

Verify medication, check expiration, shake inhaler, instruct full exhalation, seal lips, press and inhale slowly, hold breath, reassess effects

b)

Hand inhaler immediately, let patient self-dose, document later, reassess only if symptoms worsen

c)

Shake inhaler, press and spray into air, give to patient, skip instructions, move to transport quickly

d)

Call dispatch for advice, avoid reassessment, postpone documentation until end of shift

5.

Match each EMT-administered medication with its best use or key consideration.

a)

Aspirin

1.

Antiplatelet for suspected cardiac-origin chest pain

b)

Oral glucose

2.

Buccal administration for awake patient with low blood sugar

c)

Oxygen

3.

Give when hypoxic; withhold when no good reason

d)

Activated charcoal

4.

Adsorbs certain poisons in the GI tract

6.

A conscious diabetic patient presents with altered mental status and low blood sugar. Which EMT action is most appropriate?

a)

Withhold glucose until patient becomes unresponsive

b)

Insert oral glucose between cheek and gum

c)

Administer intramuscular insulin immediately

d)

Provide nitroglycerin for cerebral perfusion

7.

You are five minutes from the hospital with a 68-year-old woman with sudden chest tightness and nausea. You have assessed her and started high-concentration oxygen. Local protocols allow EMT-administered aspirin. What factor should guide your decision to give aspirin now?

a)

Aspirin works only when given with nitroglycerin

b)

Time to hospital is very short today

c)

Aspirin primarily treats nausea from chest pain

d)

A good indication exists and no contraindications

8.

Which statement best explains why intranasal naloxone can reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression in the field?

a)

Nasal mucosa rapidly absorbs small droplets into circulation

b)

It bypasses metabolism to permanently block opioid receptors

c)

The spray cools nasal passages to stimulate spontaneous breathing

d)

It acts only if the patient has no narcotic exposure at baseline

9.

Match each item with the correct description.

a)

Spacer

1.

Device that holds aerosol to ease coordinated inhalation

b)

Albuterol inhaler

2.

Short-acting bronchodilator for obstructed airflow relief

c)

Naloxone (Narcan)

3.

Antidote that reverses narcotic effects quickly

10.

A patient with asthma presents with wheezing and dyspnea and has their own prescribed metered-dose inhaler. Which action is most appropriate for an EMT prior to assisting with administration?

a)

Verify the inhaler belongs to the patient and obtain medical direction

b)

Shake the inhaler and deliver multiple puffs without coaching

c)

Request family permission even if offline protocols allow

d)

Withhold use because inhalers cause dangerous tachycardia

11.

Which patient presentation is a contraindication for assisting with nitroglycerin?

a)

History of hypertension on beta-blocker

b)

Systolic pressure 88 mmHg with chest pain

c)

Recent meal with stable vital signs

d)

Mild headache after exertional chest pain

12.

Match each condition with the primary pathophysiology described.

a)

Asthma

1.

Small airway reactivity with expiratory air trapping

b)

Anaphylaxis

2.

Immune-mediated vasodilation and airway edema

c)

Both conditions

3.

Bronchoconstriction responsive to beta-agonists

13.

You find an adult with facial swelling, hives, wheezing, and hypotension after a bee sting. Which action provides the most immediate benefit?

a)

Give nitroglycerin for chest tightness

b)

Place in Fowler position and give water

c)

Administer intramuscular epinephrine promptly

d)

Apply cold packs and observe closely

14.

Which statement best distinguishes anaphylaxis from isolated asthma exacerbation?

a)

Asthma primarily causes severe hypotension

b)

Asthma always presents with skin hives

c)

Anaphylaxis only causes expiratory wheezes

d)

Anaphylaxis adds systemic signs like hypotension

15.

Drug name types often encountered in EMS include chemical, generic, and trade. Which option correctly pairs form and example style?

a)

Generic name equals company marketing

b)

Chemical name short and brand-like

c)

Trade name lowercase, e.g., ventolin hfa

d)

Generic name not capitalized, e.g., albuterol

16.

Which statement best distinguishes indications from contraindications for a medication?

a)

Indications list doses; contraindications list administration routes

b)

Indications are drug side effects; contraindications are intended actions

c)

Indications are when use is appropriate; contraindications are when it is not

d)

Indications are physician orders; contraindications are EMT protocols

17.

Match each effect type to its description.

a)

Side effect

1.

Predictable but undesired action

b)

Untoward effect

2.

Harmful effect beyond desired action

c)

Intended effect

3.

Therapeutic action sought

d)

Indication

4.

Reason to administer a drug

18.

An EMT is unsure about a medication order received via radio. What is the best immediate action?

a)

Use the echo technique and ask for verbal confirmation

b)

Wait silently for ALS to arrive on scene

c)

Proceed if the dose seems familiar to you

d)

Administer half the dose to be safe

19.

You are preparing to administer nitroglycerin. The patient has chest pain, systolic blood pressure of 86 mmHg, and took sildenafil earlier today. What should you do next?

a)

Withhold the drug due to multiple contraindications

b)

Give one dose because chest pain is an indication

c)

Administer oxygen and give nitroglycerin immediately

d)

Contact pharmacy for dosing clarification first

20.

Which item is NOT part of the Five Rights to verify before giving a medication?

a)

Right patient

b)

Right expiration date

c)

Right dose

d)

Right route of administration

21.

Off-line medical direction primarily involves which of the following?

a)

Standing orders and written protocols

b)

Physician presence at the scene

c)

Hospital-based dosing calculators

d)

Real-time verbal physician orders

22.

Match each route of administration to the most accurate characteristic.

a)

Sublingual

1.

Absorbed via oral mucosa; faster than swallowing

b)

Intranasal with atomizer

2.

Fine droplets sprayed; requires intact mucosa

c)

Subcutaneous

3.

Into fatty tissue; slower than IM

d)

Endotracheal

4.

Into tracheal tube; variable lung absorption

23.

A 64-year-old with chronic asthma carries an Advair Diskus inhaler but is in severe respiratory distress now. What is the most appropriate immediate action regarding that device?

a)

Use it for acute relief during the attack now

b)

Add ipratropium to the device for faster action

c)

Avoid it for acute relief and provide other therapy

d)

Double the dose to achieve rapid bronchodilation

24.

Match each herbal agent to its commonly reported use.

a)

St. John’s wort

1.

Depression support

b)

Ginkgo biloba

2.

Poor circulation or memory issues

c)

Ginger root

3.

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Valerian root

4.

Insomnia relief

25.

Which part of an IV administration set is used to control the rate of fluid entering the patient?

a)

The drip chamber below the bag

b)

The injection port near the clamp

c)

The flow regulator on the tubing

d)

The spike inserted into the bag

26.

You open a new IV set and are about to spike the bag. Which action best maintains sterility and prevents contamination?

a)

Remove both caps and lay them on a tray

b)

Twist the spike into the port without touching tips

c)

Open the roller clamp to flush air first

d)

Squeeze the drip chamber before inserting spike

27.

An IV that was flowing well has slowed to a drip. What is the FIRST problem you should check and correct?

a)

The patient’s blood pressure trend

b)

A constricting band left on the arm

c)

If the IV is a microdrip set

d)

Whether the solution has expired

28.

Match each issue with the most appropriate immediate corrective action.

a)

Drip chamber overfilled

1.

Invert chamber and pump fluid back

b)

Air remaining in tubing

2.

Open regulator to flush air through

c)

Tubing kink under equipment

3.

Reposition patient or move equipment

d)

Flow stopped by closed clamp

4.

Release or open the clamp

29.

Which medication is an antidote for narcotic overdoses that an EMT may administer under protocol?

a)

Naloxone via intranasal route

b)

Epinephrine auto-injector

c)

Oral glucose gel packet

d)

Nitroglycerin sublingual spray

30.

What does BOAS stand for?

a)

Brachycardia Oppressive Airway Syndrome

b)

Broncho-Obstructive Affective Syndrome

c)

Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome

d)

Breathing Obstructive Airway Syndrome

31.

In airway assessment, what does the "Mallampati score" evaluate?

a)

Neck circumference

b)

Tongue size relative to the oropharynx

c)

Jaw mobility

d)

Nasal patency