wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 1 & 2: Introduction and Distributive Bargaining

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes negotiation in general?

a)

A two-way process of give and take

b)

A one-sided process of fixed offers

c)

A legal procedure to enforce contracts

d)

A random exchange without structure

2.

What does BATNA represent in a negotiation?

a)

Best alternative to a negotiated agreement

b)

Balanced approach to narrow advantages

c)

Basic agreement to negotiate alternatives

d)

Binding arrangement to negotiate outcomes

3.

The reservation point is best defined as

a)

The midpoint of the bargaining range

b)

The optimal goal you aim to achieve

c)

The visible first offer in the discussion

d)

The bottom line beyond which you walk away

4.

Distributive bargaining is primarily characterized as

a)

Exploratory with shared learning

b)

Adaptive with mutual expansions

c)

Collaborative with win–win gains

d)

Competitive with win–lose outcomes

5.

Which element sets the visible anchor at the start of bargaining?

a)

Concession schedule or ladder

b)

Reservation point or walk-away

c)

Target point or aspiration level

d)

Starting price or initial offer

6.

In the negotiation process, which stage focuses on exchanging proposals and listening to the other party?

a)

Discovery stage of information gathering

b)

Execution stage of agreement closing

c)

Navigation stage of proposal exchange

d)

Creation stage of joint solution design

7.

A strong BATNA typically

a)

Improves your negotiating position

b)

Guarantees a final agreement

c)

Eliminates the need for preparation

d)

Reduces your reservation point to zero

8.

Which scenario reflects positive bargaining for the buyer?

a)

Buyer’s offer equals seller’s listing

b)

Buyer walk-away above seller’s goal

c)

Buyer paying less than the seller asks

d)

Buyer willing to pay more than seller

9.

Which tactic involves asking for a new item after agreement seems reached?

a)

Nibble tactic in hardball

b)

Intimidation using emotions

c)

Bogey tactic as misdirection

d)

Chicken tactic using large bluff

10.

Which closing technique splits the difference to suggest meeting in the middle?

a)

Sweeteners at the end

b)

Split the differences approach

c)

Assume-the-close method

d)

Exploding offer deadline

11.

What is the primary risk of an exploding offer?

a)

Pressures acceptance with manipulated deadlines

b)

Signals weakness and invites new demands

c)

Creates positive bargaining for the buyer

d)

Reveals the reservation point too early

12.

If resources are fixed and limited, negotiators in distributive bargaining should primarily

a)

Reveal their reservation point immediately

b)

Maximize their share through concessions

c)

Expand the pie through collaboration

d)

Avoid any initial offer to stay flexible

13.

During discovery, an effective goal is to

a)

Clarify both parties’ needs and priorities

b)

Make extreme offers to set anchors

c)

Withhold information to gain power

d)

Skip questions to avoid concessions

14.

A seller lists a property higher than their target to allow room for concessions. This illustrates

a)

Setting an initial offer above target

b)

Revealing the reservation point early

c)

Applying the snow job strategy

d)

Using assume-the-close tactic

15.

To deal with hardball tactics effectively, negotiators should primarily

a)

Reveal confidential interests immediately

b)

Match every extreme offer with silence

c)

Concede quickly to avoid escalation

d)

Discuss, ignore, respond in kind, or co-opt

16.

Which best describes integrative negotiation in contrast to distributive bargaining?

a)

Pursues common goals, shares information

b)

Maximizes individual claim, limits information

c)

Focuses on resistance points, market awareness

d)

Relies on strong openings, few concessions

17.

What is logrolling in a multi-issue negotiation?

a)

Anchoring with a high offer

b)

Ignoring low-priority interests

c)

Splitting the difference evenly

d)

Trading concessions across issues

18.

Expanding the pie primarily aims to do what?

a)

Create additional value to share

b)

Protect resistance points firmly

c)

Reduce the number of issues

d)

Accelerate closing without changes

19.

Which set of interests is emphasized in integrative negotiation?

a)

Opening offers and targets

b)

Substantive versus process

c)

Market prices and BATNA

d)

Tone and firmness levels

20.

Which factor most supports successful integrative outcomes?

a)

Clear, accurate communication

b)

Belief issues must be separate

c)

Short time perspectives

d)

Mixed-motive dynamics

21.

In distributive bargaining, the typical stance includes which element?

a)

Generate ideal solutions collaboratively

b)

Common goals, open communication

c)

Strong opening offers, few concessions

d)

Hard on the problem, soft on people

22.

Which statement best differentiates substantive and process interests?

a)

Substantive are outcomes; process is how

b)

Process are outcomes; substantive is how

c)

Both describe tone and relationship

d)

Both concern market-based resistance

23.

Which approach aligns with integrative negotiation’s tone?

a)

Hard on the problem, soft on people

b)

Hard on people, soft on problems

c)

Firm on price, pleasant in tone

d)

Aggressive anchoring, limited sharing

24.

Which practice helps discover value for integrative trade-offs?

a)

Reduce issues to a single dimension

b)

Identify and prioritize interests

c)

Maintain secrecy about preferences

d)

Benchmark opponents’ resistance points

25.

When is distributive bargaining most appropriate compared to integrative negotiation?

a)

Ongoing relationship context

b)

One-time, zero-sum transaction

c)

Complex multi-issue collaboration

d)

Joint problem-solving environment

26.

Which principle in principled negotiation prioritizes objective measures over personal opinions when reaching agreement?

a)

Deferring to seniority for final decision

b)

Letting the most persuasive party decide terms

c)

Relying on objective criteria to settle terms

d)

Using subjective preferences to finalize terms

27.

In Fisher and Ury’s model, what is the key difference between focusing on interests versus positions?

a)

Positions emphasize collaborative problem solving

b)

Interests define the BATNA comparison metric

c)

Positions reveal objective criteria and standards

d)

Interests explore underlying needs and goals

28.

Which action aligns with inventing options for mutual gains during preparation?

a)

Brainstorming multiple win–win possibilities

b)

Waiting for the other side to offer concessions

c)

Insisting on one preferred solution only

d)

Choosing the fastest compromise available

29.

According to Getting More (Diamond), what is a core focus that differentiates his approach?

a)

Prioritizing power and leverage over empathy

b)

Centering others’ perceptions and emotions

c)

Making yourself the most important party

d)

Relying mainly on strict legal procedures

30.

In Diamond’s approach, why should negotiators view themselves as the least important person in the room?

a)

To accelerate closing with fewer steps

b)

To reduce personal stress during talks

c)

To better understand others’ needs first

d)

To gain formal authority in the process

31.

Which technique is central to Voss’s tactical empathy?

a)

Using data-only, emotion-free arguments

b)

Offering immediate concessions to build trust

c)

Providing detailed technical clarifications

d)

Mirroring the last three words spoken

32.

What is the purpose of acknowledging in active listening skills?

a)

To end the conversation efficiently

b)

To correct the other person’s assumptions

c)

To show respect without necessarily agreeing

d)

To agree with the other person’s views

33.

Which communication practice best reduces misunderstanding in negotiation?

a)

Using complex jargon to sound credible

b)

Listening first with purposeful speaking

c)

Speaking first to set a strong tone

d)

Avoiding paraphrasing to save time

34.

Which framing technique aims to highlight benefits to encourage constructive discussion?

a)

Defensive framing to protect against criticism

b)

Neutral framing to remove all persuasive elements

c)

Reframing to intensify perceived drawbacks

d)

Positive framing to emphasize proposals’ advantages

35.

Which barrier to negotiation is most likely when cultural differences are ignored?

a)

Communication barriers and misunderstanding

b)

Reduced need for non-verbal cues

c)

Enhanced trust and rapport

d)

Accelerated mutual understanding

36.

Why can pushing too quickly for a “Yes” backfire in Voss’s approach?

a)

It eliminates the need for active listening

b)

It demonstrates strong leadership presence

c)

It risks mistrust and shallow commitment

d)

It creates immediate agreement and trust

37.

During preparation, what does comparing an agreement against BATNA help determine?

a)

Whether to ignore objective criteria

b)

Whether to avoid brainstorming options

c)

Whether the deal beats the best alternative

d)

Whether to pursue a positional demand

38.

In the Dual Concern Model diagram, which negotiation style fits when both substantive outcomes and relational outcomes are important?

a)

Accommodation

b)

Collaboration

c)

Avoidance

d)

Competition

39.

Which consequence is most directly linked to failing to set clear goals before negotiating?

a)

Inability to evaluate offers consistently

b)

Overinvesting in long-term relationships

c)

Excessive focus on integrative tactics

d)

Premature concession of objective criteria

40.

According to the goals–strategy–tactics table, how are tactics positioned relative to strategy?

a)

Primary drivers of direction

b)

Subordinate and short-term moves

c)

Equal to overall action sequences

d)

Independent of broader plans

41.

Which statement best characterizes direct goals in negotiation planning?

a)

They are abstract and loosely measurable

b)

They relate to motivating interests or needs

c)

They primarily ignore present relationships

d)

They limit long-term impacts by design

42.

When substantive outcomes are not important but relational outcomes are important, which style is appropriate based on the Dual Concern Model?

a)

Collaboration

b)

Competition

c)

Avoidance

d)

Accommodation

43.

Which planning misstep increases the risk of misjudging opponents’ strengths and weaknesses?

a)

Choosing a win–win collaboration early

b)

Not doing adequate homework or analysis

c)

Relying only on quick clever exchanges

d)

Setting goals that are overly measurable

44.

Which description aligns with avoidance in the Dual Concern Model?

a)

Engagement to pursue win–win outcomes

b)

Non-engagement when effort is not worthwhile

c)

Distributive bargaining for competitive gain

d)

Yielding to maintain a long-term relationship

45.

Which pairing correctly matches goal, strategy, and tactics in planning flow?

a)

Tactics approve strategic plans, goals adapt

b)

Goals drive negotiation, strategy follows goals

c)

Strategy defines goals, tactics set boundaries

d)

Goals are adaptive moves, strategy is measurable

46.

Which statement best captures reciprocity as a persuasion lever in negotiations?

a)

Mutual exchange that encourages concession trading

b)

Independent actions without expectation of returns

c)

Fixed positions that prevent dynamic proposals

d)

One-sided giving that avoids future obligations

47.

A negotiator begins with easy-to-agree proposals to build acceptance over time. Which principle is primarily being used?

a)

Commitment and consistency

b)

Authority and expertise

c)

Scarcity and urgency

d)

Social proof dynamics

48.

Which tactic most directly increases persuasion through liking in a deal-making context?

a)

Presenting exclusive limited offers

b)

Demonstrating friendliness and respect

c)

Referencing prior commitments made

d)

Citing credentials and certifications

49.

Scarcity affects concessions in negotiation primarily because it creates what?

a)

Perceived higher value and urgency

b)

Long-term commitment alignment

c)

Trust based on social acceptance

d)

Authority grounded in expertise

50.

A negotiator supports arguments with data and relevant experience. Which persuasion principle is emphasized?

a)

Liking

b)

Social proof

c)

Authority

d)

Reciprocity

51.

Showing that a similar proposal has already been accepted by others leverages which principle?

a)

Social proof

b)

Commitment

c)

Scarcity

d)

Reciprocity

52.

Multi-party negotiations are uniquely challenging mainly because they require what?

a)

Maintaining single-issue focus only

b)

Balancing diverse interests and goals

c)

Avoiding trust-building activities

d)

Limiting parties to two members

53.

Which challenge is most associated with multi-party settings compared to bilateral talks?

a)

Stable preferences with minimal conflict

b)

Clear decisions with fast consensus

c)

Communication overload among participants

d)

Simple coordination of sequential steps

54.

An effective first step in managing multi-party negotiations is to conduct stakeholder analysis. What should this analysis identify?

a)

Preferred communication channel style

b)

Historical agreements unrelated to goals

c)

Only financial benefits for each party

d)

Interests, positions, strengths and weaknesses

55.

Coalitions in negotiations typically form how, and depend on what to function?

a)

One member at a time, persuasion and trust

b)

Randomly over time, authoritative orders

c)

All members simultaneously, formal rules

d)

Externally mandated, strict hierarchy

56.

Which move in shadow negotiation focuses on altering the negotiation through adjustments to rules and decisions?

a)

Pressure tactics by calling them out

b)

Appreciative moves volunteering expertise

c)

Process moves redesigning rules

d)

Power moves using incentives

57.

What is the primary intent of appreciative moves in shadow negotiation?

a)

Increase understanding and trust

b)

Bring unwilling bargainers back

c)

Use allies to gain leverage

d)

Design to alter decision rules

58.

When facing the other side’s hard distributive tactics, which response aligns with recommended practice?

a)

Ignore and mirror their tactics

b)

Withdraw without explanation

c)

Escalate with stronger threats

d)

Call them out and seek change

59.

Which approach addresses negotiation anger effectively?

a)

Apply more pressure and incentives

b)

Sidestep emotions entirely

c)

Understand causes and give voice

d)

Switch to purely legal arguments

60.

BATNA is most relevant when the other side has more power. What is the advised action?

a)

Redefine the process exclusively

b)

Protect yourself using BATNA

c)

Formulate a wise alert system

d)

Abandon offers immediately

61.

Which best practice directly emphasizes structural analysis before bargaining?

a)

Be prepared thoroughly

b)

Diagnose the negotiation structure

c)

Savor and protect reputation

d)

Continue learning from experience

62.

Which paradox highlights tension between transparency and prudence?

a)

Claiming value versus creating value

b)

Being too honest versus too opaque

c)

Sticking to principles versus going with flow

d)

Being too trusting versus too distrusting

63.

What is a recommended stance when the other side is being difficult?

a)

Change the process instead

b)

Fight their position directly

c)

Accept all their demands

d)

Exit without alternatives

64.

Power moves in shadow negotiation are best characterized by which action?

a)

Design process adjustments

b)

Volunteer expertise

c)

Incentives and pressure

d)

Support for changes

65.

A core best practice for coalitions in negotiation is to:

a)

Rely on fairness alone

b)

Actively manage coalitions

c)

Ignore external stakeholders

d)

Delay coordination efforts