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Extracted Questions

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. In rotational motion, the object, for example Earth, has ---------.

a)

its own circular path

b)

its own linear path

c)

its own non-linear path

d)

its own axis

2.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. In which condition the direction of angular velocity and angular acceleration are same?

a)

As long as the object is in rotational motion

b)

When the angular velocity is increasing

c)

When the angular velocity is decreasing

d)

When the object is rotating with constant angular velocity

3.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. Two coins rotates on a turntable, Coin B is twice as far from the axis as Coin A.

a)

The angular velocity of A is twice that of B.

b)

The angular velocity of A is equal to that of B.

c)

The tangential velocity of A is twice that of B.

d)

The tangential velocity of A is equal that of B.

4.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. Which of the following statements is true about centrifugal force?

a)

It is always equal to the centripetal force.

b)

It is always in the opposite direction of the centripetal force.

c)

It is only present when an object in motion.

d)

It is a force that pulls objects towards the center of rotation.

5.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. When a car is turned around inclined curve, the vertical component of the normal force will be balanced out with ---------.

a)

frictional force

b)

gravitational force

c)

centripetal force

d)

rotational force

6.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The product of a force and its perpendicular distance from the fulcrum is called the ---------.

a)

arm of the force

b)

moment of the force

c)

movement of the force

d)

angle of the force

7.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. A light beam is balanced as shown in the diagram below. What is the value of the force F?

a)

0.8 N

b)

1 N

c)

4 N

d)

5 N

8.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. A free-body diagram is the diagram showing ---------.

a)

magnitude and direction of velocity of a body

b)

magnitude and direction of acceleration of a body

c)

magnitude and direction of forces acting on a body

d)

magnitude and direction of torques acting on a body

9.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The equilibrium is defined as --------- in a system.

a)

state of matters

b)

state of thermodynamics

c)

state of balance

d)

state of motion

10.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The ability of the material to deform without breaking is called ---------.

a)

Elasticity

b)

Plasticity

c)

Creep

d)

None of these

11.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. In the flow of fluids, the path or flow of the fluid particles is called ---------.

a)

stream line

b)

straight line

c)

parallel line

d)

none of those above

12.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The resistance to fluid motion or --------- of fluid is called viscosity.

a)

internal resistance

b)

internal energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

velocity

13.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. If the larger the area of the pipe, the speed of fluid in the pipe ---------.

a)

is slower

b)

is faster

c)

does not change

d)

depends on medium

14.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. In Bernoulli’s equation, pressure difference and mechanical energy between two points are related according to ---------.

a)

work-energy theorem

b)

law of motion

c)

law of equilibrium

d)

Pascal’s law

15.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The forces between molecules of the same substance is ---------.

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

friction

d)

elasticity

16.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. Which of these is an elastic store?

a)

a stretched catapult

b)

a catapult stored in a cupboard

c)

a candle

d)

a moving toy car

17.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. A motor car accelerates up a hill. Which of the following sets is the correct answer?

a)

decrease (potential energy), decrease ( kinetic energy)

b)

decrease (potential energy), increase ( kinetic energy)

c)

increase (potential energy), decrease ( kinetic energy)

d)

increase (potential energy), increase ( kinetic energy)

18.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. A 1,000.0 kg car that is traveling at 90.0 km/h? How much work must be done to stop the car?

a)

313 kJ

b)

-313 kJ

c)

313 J

d)

-313 J

19.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. According to the definition of mechanical work, pushing on a rock accomplishes no work unless there is ---------.

a)

Movement

b)

a net force

c)

an opposing force

d)

movement in the same direction as the direction of the force

20.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. Radiant energy can be converted to electrical energy using ---------.

a)

lightbulbs

b)

engines

c)

solar cells

d)

electricity

21.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The conductivity of a substance depends on its state. The increasing order of the conductivity of the state is ---------.

a)

solid, liquid, gas

b)

solid, gas, liquid

c)

gas, solid, liquid

d)

gas, liquid, solid

22.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to ---------.

a)

the number of molecules in the sample.

b)

the average momentum of a molecule of the gas

c)

the average translational kinetic energy of the gas

d)

the diffusion constant of the gas.

23.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The r m s speed is the ---------.

a)

speed at which all the gas molecules move

b)

speed of a molecule with the average kinetic energy

c)

average speed of the gas molecules

d)

maximum speed of the gas molecules

24.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. An ideal gas has the volume V0. If the temperature and the pressure are each tripled during a process, the new volume is ---------.

a)

V0

b)

9 V0

c)

3 V0

d)

0.33 V0

25.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. If you want to move heat from a region of cooler temperature to a region of warmer temperature, you must supply energy. This is described by the ------

a)

first law of thermodynamics

b)

second law of thermodynamics

c)

third law of thermodynamics

d)

None of the above is correct

26.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The velocity of sound in air depends on the ---------.

a)

pitch of the note

b)

loudness of the note

c)

temperature of the air

d)

distance from the source to the receiver

27.

Choose the correct or the most appropriate answer for this question. The waves with the frequency above the audible range of human beings are called ---------.

a)

Supersonic waves

b)

Ultrasonic waves

c)

Infrasonic waves

d)

Hypersonic waves

28.

The distance which compression or a rarefaction travels per unit of time gives ---------.

a)

the density of sound wave

b)

speed of sound

c)

wavelength of sound

d)

frequency of sound

29.

The phenomenon where a sound produced is heard again due to reflection is called ---------.

a)

sound bounce

b)

mirage

c)

an echo

d)

interference

30.

Loudness is a subjective sensation that depends on:

a)

The frequency of the sound wave

b)

The speed of the sound wave

c)

The hearing ability of the listener

d)

The wavelength of the sound wave

31.

The ratio of phase difference to that of path difference between two light waves is ---------.

a)

2πλ\dfrac{2\pi}{\lambda}

b)

λ2π\dfrac{\lambda}{2\pi}

c)

2π λ2\pi\,\lambda

d)

None of these

32.

What kind of sources are required for Young’s Double Slit experiment?

a)

Coherent

b)

Incoherent

c)

Intense

d)

Bright

33.

Which of the following incident light wavefronts is most suitable for observing a single slit diffraction pattern?

a)

Either a cylindrical wavefront or a spherical wavefront

b)

Cylindrical wavefront only

c)

Plane wavefront only

d)

None of the above

34.

Light seems to turn around corners and enter regions where we would expect a shadow. These effects, known as ---------.

a)

interference

b)

diffraction

c)

polarization

d)

refraction

35.

According to Huygens principle of secondary wavelets, each particle at a wave front ---------.

a)

is an electron

b)

behaves as a photon

c)

behaves as a new light source

d)

represents the direction of the motion of wavefront

36.

Lens maker’s formula can be expressed as ---------.

a)

1f=(1⋅n)[1R1−1R2]\dfrac{1}{f}=(1\cdot n)\left[\dfrac{1}{R_1}-\dfrac{1}{R_2}\right]

b)

1f=(n−1)[1R1−1R2]\dfrac{1}{f}=(n-1)\left[\dfrac{1}{R_1}-\dfrac{1}{R_2}\right]

c)

1f=(n+1)[1R1−1R2]\dfrac{1}{f}=(n+1)\left[\dfrac{1}{R_1}-\dfrac{1}{R_2}\right]

d)

f=(n−1)[1R1−1R2]f=(n-1)\left[\dfrac{1}{R_1}-\dfrac{1}{R_2}\right]

37.

--------- microscope uses a single lens for magnification.

a)

Compound

b)

Simple

c)

Phase contrast

d)

Light

38.

A person sees an object closer to his eyes. What changes will take place in his eyes?

a)

the pupil size will expand

b)

the ciliary muscles will contract

c)

the focal length of the eye lens will increase

d)

the light entering the eye will be more

39.

Light energy radiated per second from a luminous body is known as:

a)

watt

b)

luminous flux

c)

candela

d)

lumen

40.

The unit of solid angle is ---------.

a)

degree

b)

Angstrom

c)

steradian

d)

radian

41.

--------- connection of the three capacitors, the potential difference of each capacitor is the same?

a)

All parallel

b)

All series

c)

Two capacitors are connected in series and the third one is connected parallel with the first combination

d)

Two capacitors are connected in parallel and the third one is connected series with the first combination

42.

Three 6 V batteries with internal resistance r Ω are connected in series. The total internal resistance of the combination is ---------.

a)

3r Ω

b)

r Ω

c)

r/3 Ω

d)

none of the above

43.

Batteries and generators are called source of ---------.

a)

electromotive force

b)

chemical energy

c)

magnetic force

d)

heat energy

44.

Kirchhoff’s voltage rule is based on the ---------.

a)

conservation of energy

b)

conservation of current

c)

conservation of resistance

d)

conservation of charge

45.

A fuse is usually made of ---------.

a)

tin-lead alloy

b)

copper

c)

steel

d)

plastic

46.

An inductor stores energy as ---------.

a)

electrical energy

b)

magnetic energy

c)

mechanical energy

d)

all above

47.

Which of the following will happen in a transformer when the number of secondary turns is less than the number of primary turns?

a)

The voltage gets stepped up

b)

The voltage gets stepped down

c)

The power gets stepped up

d)

The power gets stepped down

48.

Which of the following is correct regarding Faraday’s Law?

a)

Change in magnetic flux can cause a voltage to be induced.

b)

The induced emf cannot generate the current

c)

Increase in number of turns in a coil will decrease induced emf

d)

All of the above statements are correct

49.

Which device uses a split-ring commutator?

a)

a d.c. generator

b)

a relay

c)

a transformer

d)

an a.c. generator

50.

A coil of copper wire is moved parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will ---------.

a)

depend on the intensity of magnetic field

b)

depend on the velocity of the coil

c)

be zero

d)

be infinite

51.

What happens to the resistance of a light dependent resistor (LDR) during the day?

a)

Remains the same

b)

Increases

c)

Increases and the decreases

d)

Decreases

52.

In LED light is emitted because:

a)

Light falls on LED

b)

Recombination of charge take place

c)

PN junction emits light when heated

d)

IR Light falls on LED

53.

Which of the following is an INVALID state in an 8421 binary-code decimal?

a)

1001

b)

1010

c)

1000

d)

0100

54.

Which of the following segments are enabled in a 7-segment display when a digit ‘2’ is displayed on the screen?

a)

A, B, C, D, E, F

b)

A, B, C, D, E, F, G

c)

A, B, G, E, D

d)

A, B, C

55.

Which of the following is the correct order of binary weight?

a)

1, 2, 4, 8

b)

8, 2, 1, 4

c)

4, 2, 1, 8

d)

8, 4, 2, 1

56.

In nuclear reaction 92238U→90234Th+X^{238}_{92}\mathrm{U} \rightarrow {}^{234}_{90}\mathrm{Th} + X , here particle X is ---------.

a)

negative beta particle

b)

Alpha particle

c)

Positron

d)

Photon

57.

In radioactive decay which of the following quantity depends on the number of atoms ---------.

a)

half life

b)

mean life

c)

rate of decay

d)

rate of decay and mean life

58.

Radio carbon dating technique is used to estimate the age of ---------.

a)

rocks

b)

soil

c)

fossils

d)

buildings

59.

Nuclear waste products are packaged up in --------- and steel containers and are buried deep underground or dropped to the bottom of the sea.

a)

plastic

b)

brick

c)

concrete

d)

rubber

60.

The rest mass of an electron is m0m_0 . When it moves with the velocity of 0.6 c0.6\,c then its mass is --------- m0m_0 .

a)

1.6

b)

1.25

c)

1.8

d)

1.5

61.

The angular acceleration is known as the rate of change of ---------.

a)

angular displacement

b)

angular momentum

c)

angular velocity

d)

none of the above

62.

The initial angular velocity of an object is 10 rad s−110\ \text{rad s}^{-1} . After 1010 seconds the angular velocity becomes 20 rad s−120\ \text{rad s}^{-1} . Find the angular acceleration of the object.

a)

1 rad s−21\ \text{rad s}^{-2}

b)

1 rad s−11\ \text{rad s}^{-1}

c)

10 rad s−110\ \text{rad s}^{-1}

d)

10 rad s−210\ \text{rad s}^{-2}

63.

Find the mass of the object in the figures.

a)

1 g

b)

1 kg

c)

10 g

d)

10 kg

64.

A free-body diagram is the diagram showing

a)

magnitude and direction of velocity of a body.

b)

magnitude and direction of acceleration of a body.

c)

magnitude and direction of forces acting on a body.

d)

magnitude and direction of torques acting on a body.

65.

Which of these is an elastic store?

a)

a stretched catapult

b)

a catapult stored in a cupboard

c)

a candle

d)

a moving toy car

66.

A tungsten-filament lamp is 4% efficient. How much electrical energy must be supplied to the lamp each second when it produces 6 J of light per second?

a)

67 J

b)

130 J

c)

150 J

d)

160 J

67.

The transfer of heat that takes place directly from molecule to molecule is ---------.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

sublimation

68.

What is the maximum possible thermal efficiency of a steam engine that takes in steam at 160 ∘C160\ ^\circ\text{C} and exhausts it at 100 ∘C100\ ^\circ\text{C} ?

a)

10 %

b)

14 %

c)

16 %

d)

18 %

69.

The Doppler ultrasound technique is used ---------.

a)

to measure threshold of hearing.

b)

to determine the quality of a sound.

c)

to detect the movement of the chest of a young fetus.

d)

to determine the intensity of sound.

70.

As a ship approaches a cliff, its siren is sounded and the echo is heard in the ship after 10 s10\ \text{s} . If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s−1340\ \text{m s}^{-1} , calculate the distance between the ship and the cliff.

a)

1500 m

b)

1600 m

c)

1700 m

d)

1800 m

71.

As compared to light microscope, the resolving power of electron microscope is ---------.

a)

5 times

b)

10 times

c)

100 times

d)

1000 times

72.

The focal length of the objective and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope for normal adjustments are 50 cm50\ \text{cm} and 5 cm5\ \text{cm} . The separation of the lenses should be ---------.

a)

45 cm45\ \text{cm}

b)

50 cm50\ \text{cm}

c)

55 cm55\ \text{cm}

d)

60 cm60\ \text{cm}

73.

The dielectric constant for vacuum is ---------.

a)

1

b)

less than 1

c)

0

d)

greater than 1

74.

One unit of electricity is equal to ---------.

a)

1 kilowatt hour (1 kW h)

b)

1 horsepower hour (1 hp h)

c)

1 watt hour (1 W h)

d)

1 watt second (1 W s)

75.

The process of producing electric current through the variable magnetic field is called ---------.

a)

electrification

b)

patience

c)

electromagnetic induction

d)

parabolic

76.

What will be used inductance of a coil of 200 turns in which a current of 2 A produces a magnetic flux of 4 m Wb?

a)

0.4 H

b)

1.4 H

c)

2.4 H

d)

3.4 H

77.

LEDs operates at --------- bias.

a)

forward

b)

reverse

c)

neutral

d)

none of the above

78.

What is the voltage across each diode when the current is 20 mA through it in the figures?

a)

3 V, 2 V

b)

2 V, 3 V

c)

1.5 V, 1.5 V

d)

1 V, 1 V

79.

If a U-238 nucleus splits into two identical parts, the two nuclei so produced will be ---------.

a)

radioactive

b)

stable

c)

isotope

d)

isobar

80.

An electron and a 6.0 kg bowling ball each have 4.50 eV of kinetic energy. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron.

a)

5.79 × 10^{-10} m

b)

4.79 × 10^{-10} m

c)

3.79 × 10^{-10} m

d)

2.79 × 10^-10 m

81.

The centripetal force exerted on a 9 kg car that negotiates a 3 m radius curve at 2.0 m s^-1. Assuming an unbanked curve, find the centripetal force?

a)

0.13 N

b)

1.3 N

c)

11.3 N

d)

12 N

82.

If a liquid enters a pipe of diameter d with a velocity v, what will it's velocity at the exit if the diameter reduces to 0.5d?

a)

v

b)

0.5v

c)

2v

d)

4v